Advanced EMT (AEMT)
Review Questions
Course Introduction
The Advanced EMT (AEMT) course is designed for emergency medical personnel seeking to expand their prehospital care skills beyond the basic EMT level. This course covers advanced airway management, intravenous and intraosseous access, fluid therapy, pharmacology, and the administration of a broader range of emergency medications. Participants will engage in both classroom instruction and practical, hands-on training to develop the critical assessment, decision-making, and technical abilities required in emergency situations. Upon successful completion, students will be prepared to provide intermediate-level care and interventions as part of an emergency medical services (EMS) team, bridging the gap between EMT and Paramedic responsibilities.
Recommended Textbook
Prehospital Emergency Care 10th Edition by Joseph
J. Mistovich
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48 Chapters
2835 Verified Questions
2835 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2143 Page 2
Chapter 1: Emergency Medical Care Systems, Research, and Public Health
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42685
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been asked to sit on your service's quality improvement (QI) committee. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that you will be involved in projects that serve to:
A) communicate with insurance companies for increased reimbursement.
B) recruit and educate EMTs into the profession of the Emergency Medical Services. C) examine ways in which the delivery of emergency care can be improved.
D) identify and reeducate EMTs that routinely do not provide proper care.
Answer: C
Q2) Most authorities agree that the modern-day EMS system evolved after the release of what document?
A) The Emergency Medical Services Act of 1973
B) The White Paper "Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society"
C) The American Heart Association Guidelines for Cardiac Resuscitation
D) The Emergency Medical Services: Agenda for the Future
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness of the Emt
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding "burnout" and the Emergency Medical Services, which statement is most accurate?
A) Employers are required to have a written plan addressing EMT burnout.
B) Burnout can diminish an EMT's ability to provide competent care.
C) Research indicates that burnout affects all EMS personnel within a five-year period.
D) Burnout often tends to resolve on its own over time.
Answer: B
Q2) An EMT has an understanding of the different types of pathogens when she states:
A) "Bacteria tend to be larger than viruses and can be seen without a microscope."
B) "Protozoa are considered parasitic worms and can live within the human body."
C) "Fungal infections typically attack the immune systems of healthy persons."
D) "Viruses are resistant to antibiotics because they live within the body's cells."
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Despite a patient's protest not to have his blood pressure taken, the EMT places a BP cuff on his arm and takes his blood pressure. The EMT states: "See? It is just as I suspected, your blood pressure is sky high. You really need to be seen in the emergency department." The patient states he did not realize that his blood pressure was that high. In terms of battery, which one of the following is true?
A) Since the BP was elevated and treatment must be provided, battery cannot be charged.
B) The patient could charge the EMT with battery, regardless of his blood pressure reading.
C) The patient could charge the EMT with assault, not battery.
D) Because the patient knows the result of the BP, the EMT is safe from battery.
Answer: B
Q2) Your best protection when a patient refuses care or transport is to:
A) inform the patient's family physician of what happened.
B) have your partner sign the refusal form as a witness.
C) contact the patient at a later time to see how he is doing.
D) completely and thoroughly document the incident.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Documentation
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a patient, who is short of breath, signs a refusal of service, which one of the following statements would be appropriate prior to leaving the residence?
A) "We will leave this oxygen for you; call us when you feel better."
B) "Try taking an aspirin and get a good night's rest; you will probably feel better."
C) "Call our dispatch in the morning to let us know how you made out."
D) "If you change your mind and want to be transported to the hospital, call 911."
Q2) A nauseated patient with fever and abdominal pain states that he has not vomited. Which one of the following describes how that fact should be documented?
A) As a treatment finding
B) As a subjective finding
C) As a pertinent negative
D) This fact would not be documented.
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6
Chapter 5: Communication
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Throughout a radio transmission to the dispatch center, the EMT periodically uses the term "break." You should recognize this to mean he is:
A) completing his transmission.
B) purposely pausing his transmission.
C) awaiting a response from the dispatcher.
D) taking time to get his thoughts together.
Q2) What important piece of information has been omitted from the following report: "University Hospital, we are en route with a 61-year-old male complaining of generalized weakness. He states that he was cutting the grass when he suddenly became hot and weak, forcing him to sit down. He has a history of diabetes and prostate cancer, but takes no medications. Right now he is alert and oriented and has the following vital signs: pulse 96, respirations 18, and blood pressure 156/82 mmHg. We have placed him on two liters of oxygen by nasal cannula and are transporting in a semi-Fowler's position. He states that the weakness is starting to resolve. Do you have questions or orders?"
A) Patient's family physician
B) Location of the incident
C) ETA to the hospital
D) Medications the patient is taking
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Chapter 6: Lifting and Moving Patients
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements accurately describes the concept of body mechanics?
A) "Body mechanics refers to an exercise program designed to increase strength and prevent injuries when lifting or moving patients."
B) "Body mechanics describes the personal maintenance of a proper weight and posture so that on-the-job injuries are minimized."
C) "Body mechanics refers to methods that promote using your body in the safest and most efficient way when moving objects or patients."
D) "Body mechanics describes a program of back exercises that decreases the chance of incurring a back injury when moving a patient."
Q2) When an EMT places his palm and all fingers in contact with the object being lifted, he is using the:
A) power lift.
B) lock grip.
C) power grip.
D) squat grip.
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Chapter 7: Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are using cryotherapy to treat a deformed and painful ankle. This involves the use of:
A) compression.
B) ice.
C) massage.
D) heat.
Q2) An enlarged liver is best documented as:
A) hepatitis.
B) hepatomegaly.
C) ascites.
D) gastric distention.
Q3) A patient has taken a medication that increases the activity of his sympathetic nervous system. Which one of the following signs and symptoms would the EMT expect to find?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Dilated pupils
C) Low blood pressure
D) Dry and flushed skin
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9
Chapter 8: Pathophysiology
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74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a temperature of 105.4°F is suffering from systemic vasodilation. Which one of the following findings would be consistent with this condition?
A) Slow heart rate
B) Elevated afterload
C) Decreased blood pressure
D) Pale and cool skin
Q2) Which one of the following conditions is most likely to cause acidosis?
A) Irregular heart rhythm
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Depressed respirations
D) Low blood glucose level
Q3) Failure of the sodium potassium pump can result in:
A) accumulation of acidic wastes.
B) excess amounts of sodium outside of the cell.
C) large amounts of potassium inside the cell.
D) cellular damage, swelling, and rupture.
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Chapter 9: Life Span Development
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are enroute to a home for an 8-year-old with "noisy" breathing and a cough. As you respond, which of the following pieces of advice would you give your partner, a new EMT?
A) "We will need to be careful. Children of this age group tend to throw tantrums, and we could get hurt if we are not careful."
B) "The scene probably will be chaotic, so let's just get the patient out to the ambulance and assess him there."
C) "Although most children of this age are trusting of authority, let's approach slowly and make the scene work for us."
D) "Most children in this age group have a short attention span, so we need to assess him as quickly as possible."
Q2) A patient informs you that she has already gone through menopause. You would realize that:
A) her menstrual periods are irregular and she cannot have a baby.
B) she has stopped outright menstrual periods but can still become pregnant.
C) she will still have menstrual periods but is incapable of pregnancy.
D) she has stopped menstrual periods and cannot become pregnant.
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Chapter 10: Airway Management, Artificial Ventilation, and Oxygenation
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly male who is short of breath is on home oxygen. He is wearing a nasal cannula connected to an oxygen tank with the flow regulator set to 3 liters per minute. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should recognize that the patient is getting approximately what percentage of oxygen with each breath?
A) 20%
B) 24%
C) 32%
D) 40%
Q2) Despite coaching and explaining the benefits of a nonrebreather face mask, a moderately short of breath and hypoxic patient with lung cancer states that she cannot tolerate the mask over her face. The more that she panics, the worse the shortness of breath becomes. Your best course of action is to:
A) remove the nonrebreather mask and apply a simple face mask.
B) decrease the oxygen flow rate entering the nonrebreather face mask.
C) disconnect the nonrebreather and replace it with a nasal cannula.
D) discontinue oxygen therapy and continually monitor breath sounds during transport.
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12
Chapter 11: Baseline Vital Signs, Monitoring Devices, and History Taking
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123 Verified Questions
123 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assessment of a patient who is unresponsive reveals pupils that are both large at 8 millimeters and do not change size in response to light. The EMT would best document this finding as:
A) bilateral dilation of the pupils.
B) constricted pupils nonreactive to light.
C) midsize pupils that are reactive to light.
D) nonreactive pupils of decreased size.
Q2) The EMT should recognize normal skin color in a healthy patient as:
A) white.
B) warm.
C) red.
D) pink.
Q3) A 41-year-old male patient reacts to painful stimuli by moaning. You shine a light at his right pupil. Which one of the following reactions would be normal?
A) Dilation of the right pupil
B) Constriction of the left pupil
C) Dilation of the left pupil
D) Closure of both eyelids
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Chapter 12: Scene Size-Up
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 67-year-old male who lives in an extremely "bad" neighborhood is experiencing chest pain. There are vacant homes throughout, including the homes to either side of his residence. Additionally, parked cars have forced you to park three houses away, making it necessary to walk and carry supplies to the residence. Which action is most appropriate as you approach and/or gain access to the patient's house?
A) Stand in front of the door while knocking to make your presence known.
B) Walk single file with your partner behind you carrying the medical bag.
C) Walk on the sidewalk instead of the grass to ensure steadier footing.
D) Hold a lit flashlight in front of you to illuminate shrubbery and trash cans.
Q2) You and your partner are first on the scene of a bleacher collapse at a local raceway. As you exit the ambulance, you note several patients seated throughout the debris from the seats. In this situation, which action would you perform first?
A) Determine the severity of injuries.
B) Wait for additional units to arrive.
C) Determine the number of patients.
D) Notify the local hospitals of a mass-casualty incident.
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14
Chapter 13: Patient Assessment
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are by the side of a patient complaining of shortness of breath with a history of heart problems, including congestive heart failure (CHF). When assessing the airway, which one of the following observations best indicates that it is patent?
A) She easily tells you that she is having chest pain.
B) She is sitting in an upright position because she cannot lie flat.
C) She can only speak in extremely short sentences.
D) She is lethargic and confused to person, place, and time.
Q2) En route to the hospital, you start the reassessment of a 22-year-old trauma patient. You should begin this assessment by:
A) rechecking vital signs.
B) repeating the primary assessment.
C) checking all interventions.
D) assessing for additional injuries.
Q3) Which of the following physical findings is least consistent with an injured extremity?
A) Deformities
B) Vomiting
C) Contusions
D) Burns
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Chapter 14: Pharmacology Medication and Administration
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As an EMT, you may assist the patient in taking which of the following prescribed medications?
A) Inhalers used for difficulty breathing
B) Medications for high blood pressure
C) Drugs for heart-rhythm disorders
D) Seizure-control medications
Q2) Which one of the following best describes the purpose of the five rights of drug administration?
A) Makes medication administration easier
B) Decreases the risk of a medication error
C) Ensures therapeutic benefit to the patient
D) Prevents clinical deterioration of the patient
Q3) A patient with severe chest pain hands you a bottle of nitroglycerin. After reading the label, you determine that the medication expired two months ago. You should:
A) administer two of the nitroglycerin tablets.
B) withhold the medication and transport.
C) administer the nitroglycerin orally.
D) place one tablet under the patient's tongue.
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16
Chapter 15: Shock and Resuscitation
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has fallen down a flight of stairs and is restless and confused. The airway is open, and he is adequately breathing 22 times per minute. He has a radial pulse of 92 beats per minute and is moderate in strength. Emergency Medical Responders are maintaining manual in-line spinal stabilization. Your next action would be to:
A) check the blood pressure and assess for injuries causing blood loss.
B) apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute via nonrebreather face mask.
C) insert an oral airway and start positive pressure ventilation with oxygen.
D) immobilize the patient with a cervical collar and long spine board.
Q2) After two cardiac arrests, a large home improvement center has purchased a fully automated AED. You have been asked to provide education on its use. During an instructional session, a student asks you what will happen when the AED indicates that a shock is indicated. Your response should be:
A) "The AED will prompt you to recheck the pulse."
B) "You will need to reanalyze the heart rhythm."
C) "The AED will automatically shock the patient."
D) "You will need to press the shock button."
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Chapter 16: Respiratory Emergencies
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a 3-year-old male in respiratory distress, the EMT should recognize "see-saw" breathing when he observes:
A) alternate breathing through the nose and mouth.
B) movement of the chest and abdomen in opposite directions.
C) retraction of the muscles between the ribs.
D) up-and-down motion of the head as the patient breathes.
Q2) When assessing an adult patient with difficulty breathing, what sign or symptom would be of most concern?
A) Temperature of 101.3°F
B) Blue coloration to the lips
C) Rate between 20 and 24 breaths per minute
D) Cyanosis to the fingernails
Q3) How many breaths per minute is normal for an infant?
A) 8 to 10
B) 12 to 20
C) 25 to 50
D) 45 to 60
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18
Chapter 17: Cardiovascular Emergencies
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has called 911 for chest pain that he describes as "tearing" and radiating between his shoulders. His airway is patent, breathing accelerated but adequate, and radial pulse intact. Your partner reports the following vital signs: pulse 120, respirations 22, blood pressure 88/64, and SpO at 96% on room air. At this time, you should:
A) assist the patient with his nitroglycerin.
B) provide the patient with 325 mg of aspirin.
C) encourage the patient to take an antacid such as Maalox.
D) recheck the blood pressure in the other arm.
Q2) A 56-year-old female with a smoking history and COPD complains of the sudden onset of shortness of breath and diaphoresis. History indicates no cardiac diagnosis but previous drug abuse 8 years ago. Vital signs are: pulse 96, respiration 18 and mildly labored, blood pressure 168/102 mmHg, and SpO 94% on home oxygen at 4 lpm, which she wears for COPD. Her lung sounds are clear but diminished bilaterally. You would:
A) administer aspirin, monitor the patient, and transport.
B) turn down the oxygen to 2 lpm, monitor, and transport.
C) administer patient's MDI and transport to the hospital.
D) assist the patient is trying her husband's nitroglycerin.
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Chapter 18: Altered Mental Status, Stroke, and Headache
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following questions is it critical that the EMT ask the family of a patient who cannot speak and is suspected of having a stroke?
A) "Does your mother have a history of heart problems?"
B) "What time did the weakness and dizziness start?"
C) "What medications is your mother taking?"
D) "Does your mother have any pain in her arms or legs?"
Q2) What condition places the patient at greatest risk for an acute neurological deficit?
A) Acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
B) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D) New onset of Type II diabetes
Q3) A 82-year-old male presents with right-hand weakness and garbled speech. Which of the following questions should the EMT ask first?
A) "Is he allergic to anything?"
B) "Does he take any blood thinners?"
C) "Does he have a history of high blood pressure?"
D) "What time did these signs start?"
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Seizures and Syncope
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57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young male with a seizure history is postictal in his bed. His airway is patent, breathing labored and forced, and radial pulse strong and fast. Vital signs are pulse 140, respirations 20, blood pressure 158/92 mmHg, and SpO 96% on room air. At this time, what action would be most appropriate?
A) Provide high-concentration oxygen.
B) Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
C) Start positive pressure ventilation.
D) Place in a side-lying position.
Q2) As a general rule, a postictal patient should be placed on the stretcher and transported in what position?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler's
C) Lateral recumbent
D) Prone
Q3) Status epilepticus is best differentiated from a generalized seizure by the:
A) duration of the seizure.
B) length of the postictal period.
C) presence of an aura prior to seizing.
D) preexisting seizure history.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Acute Diabetic Emergencies
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is the best means by which hypoglycemia can be differentiated from hyperglycemia?
A) Determine the rate at onset.
B) Examine the signs and symptoms.
C) Analyze the vital signs.
D) Evaluate the patient's blood sugar.
Q2) You have been called for a 32-year-old female with altered mental status. On scene you find the patient lethargic and confused. Although information is sketchy, it appears that she has a history of diabetes as well as renal failure for which she receives dialysis. You note no deficits in the primary assessment and the vital signs are: pulse 124, respirations 28, BP 106/68 mmHg, and SpO 97%. Your partner reports a blood sugar reading of 774 mg/dL. Based on this information, the EMT would understand that definitive care of this patient would involve the administration of which one of the following medications?
A) Insulin
B) Glucose
C) Intravenous fluids
D) Oxygen
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Chapter 21: Anaphylactic Reactions
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT exhibits an understanding of allergic reactions and anaphylaxis when she makes which one of the following statements?
A) "An allergic reaction only occurs when the patient ingests or inhales an allergen; anaphylaxis occurs when the allergen is injected."
B) "Allergic reactions are caused by pollen and food; anaphylactic reactions are caused by venoms and medications."
C) "Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that will lead to death without emergency care."
D) "Anaphylaxis describes a severe allergic reaction that occurs the first time a person is exposed to an allergen."
Q2) In which situation would the EMT contact medical direction prior to administering epinephrine to a patient suffering an anaphylactic reaction?
A) She has an allergy to chocolate or eggs.
B) Her heart rate is 144 beats per minute.
C) She is hypotensive and tachycardic.
D) The patient is not prescribed an auto-injector.
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Chapter 22: Toxicologic Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a 28-year-old male with a history of behavioral problems. He responds to painful stimuli with garbled speech. His airway is patent, but breathing is inadequate. His radial pulse is rapid and skin cool and moist. He has crackles at the bases of both lungs and the following vital signs: pulse 108, respirations 6, blood pressure 98/64, and SpO 92%. A friend informs you that he thinks that he drank a considerable amount of antifreeze, possibly up to 12 hours ago, in a suicide attempt. The first thing you should do is:
A) start positive pressure ventilation.
B) call poison control.
C) look for confirmation that the antifreeze was ingested.
D) administer activated charcoal.
Q2) A patient who is agitated and hyperactive with dilated pupils and tachypnea has most likely ingested:
A) heroin.
B) hallucinogens.
C) methadone.
D) crack cocaine.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Abdominal, Hematologic, Gynecologic,
Genitourinary, and Renal Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old male has extreme pain in his left lower groin with a protruding mass noted in the same area. In discussing the patient with your partner, which of the following statements would be accurate?
A) "I am worried about an abdominal aneurysm; we should palpate gently."
B) "I don't think that the mass is related to his pain since it is not pulsating."
C) "Are you thinking appendicitis since he does have a low grade fever?"
D) "He really needs to be evaluated; he could end up with an obstruction."
Q2) The fundamental problem associated with anemia is:
A) thickened blood consistency.
B) elevated blood pressure.
C) predisposition to infection.
D) cellular hypoxia.
Q3) A patient with generalized weakness informs you that she has a history of iron-deficient anemia. You would understand this to mean that she has:
A) an overabundance of RBCs not capable of carrying oxygen.
B) problems transferring oxygen from the lungs to the RBCs.
C) a decreased amount of hemoglobin available to carry oxygen.
D) malformed RBCs that have a difficult time carrying oxygen.
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Chapter 24: Environmental Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been summoned to a beach for a young male who has been stung by jellyfish on both forearms. Which one of the following instructions to other EMTs shows proper care of this patient?
A) "Make sure to keep the arms below the heart."
B) "Let's put a constricting band on his wrists."
C) "We need to rinse the sting sites with peroxide."
D) "Let's soak the arms in warm water."
Q2) You have been summoned to a field where a 32-year-old male patient has been struck by lightning. Emergency Medical Responders are with the patient holding manual in-line spinal stabilization. Once you arrive at the patient's side, which one of the following should you do first?
A) Apply a cervical spine collar.
B) Perform a secondary assessment.
C) Assess the airway and breathing.
D) Place the patient on the stretcher.
Q3) In what situation will the means of sweating to cool the body be less effective?
A) Relative humidity of 98%
B) Outdoor temperature of 92 F
C) Internal temperature of 102 F
D) Indoor humidity of 68%
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Chapter 25: Submersion Incidents: Drowning and Diving Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You and several other EMTs are on location where a young female lost control of her car, and ended up in a shallow lake. The car is approximately 20 feet from shore and upright with the wheels touching the bottom of the lake. The woman is on the car's roof stating that she is not hurt but is scared. Which of the following should the EMT do to rescue the patient?
A) Swim out to retrieve the patient.
B) Toss a rope with a throw bag to the patient.
C) Extend a ladder across the water to the car and patient.
D) Encourage the patient to swim to shore.
Q2) Which one of the following statements about drowning is true?
A) Actual drownings are responsible for only a small number of water-related deaths.
B) Children less than 1 year of age most commonly drown in swimming pools.
C) Fences around swimming pools are the most effective means of preventing a child from drowning.
D) Personal flotation devices afford little protection to a patient if he or she panics while in the water.
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Chapter 26: Behavioral Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients would the EMT classify as having a behavioral emergency?
A) 44-year-old female with bipolar disorder complaining of a fever of 102.5°F
B) 56-year-old male with schizophrenia who has stopped taking his medications
C) 29-year-old male with diabetes who is suddenly confused
D) 36-year-old male with no known history who is hearing voices
Q2) You are assessing and treating a young girl who superficially cut her wrists in a self-stated suicide attempt. Bleeding was not significant and has clotted. While transporting the patient, which one of the following statements is most appropriate?
A) "Can you tell me why you tried something like this?"
B) "This really has upset your parents. How does that make you feel?"
C) "These cuts are not significant. You didn't really want to do this, did you?"
D) "I am going to clean these cuts with some water and then wrap them."
Q3) After restraining a patient on the stretcher, what action is it essential that the EMT perform first?
A) Check the tightness of the chest strap.
B) Check the extremities for pulses and motor ability.
C) Inform the patient of what will occur during transport.
D) Obtain a set of vital signs, excluding temperature.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Trauma Overview: the Trauma Patient and the Trauma System
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42711
Sample Questions
Q1) You are responding to a call for a 4-year-old child hit by a car. When assessing this child, which of the following injury patterns would you recognize as typical based on the child's age and mechanism of injury?
A) Deformed femurs, bruises to the chest and abdomen
B) Left arm and leg deformity, head injury
C) Bilateral ankle deformity, contusions to the back
D) Head injury with deformity to both upper arms
Q2) A patient with severe head and neck pain states that he was properly wearing his seat belt when another car struck him from behind. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would realize that the complaint of:
A) head and neck pain indicates that he was not wearing his seat belt.
B) head pain suggests that he was not wearing the seat belt properly.
C) head and neck pain could occur when the seat belt is properly worn.
D) head and neck pain indicates that the lap belt was worn without the shoulder harness.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Bleeding and Soft Tissue Trauma
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42712
Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old male was cutting limbs from a tree when he lost his footing and fell 20 feet. He is unresponsive and breathing poorly at 28 times per minute. His radial pulse is weak and thready and his skin is cool to the touch. Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) have placed him on a nonrebreather face mask and are holding manual in-line stabilization. A blanket has also been applied and covers the man. Based on these assessment findings, what instruction would you give to the EMRs?
A) "Since he is unresponsive, let's go ahead and open the airway with the head-tilt, chin-lift."
B) "Let's uncover him since increased temperature will dilate his blood vessels and drop his BP."
C) "Let's go ahead and move him to the stretcher for immediate transport to the hospital."
D) "Let's take off the oxygen mask and start positive pressure ventilation to assist his breathing."
Q2) Which one of the following best describes a topical hemostatic agent?
A) Rapid acting pill that promotes clotting in the body
B) Topical medication that reduces chances of infection
C) Dressing specially designed to stop bleeding
D) Liquid that stops bleeding by "gluing" the edges of a laceration together
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Chapter 29: Burns
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42713
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a patient who had a large bag of lime powder tear as he was unloading it from a truck. On arrival he is complaining of burning to both legs and you note that aside from the shorts he is wearing, lime dust covers both legs. Your immediate action would be to:
A) brush as much of the lime off his legs as possible.
B) cut his clothes off to better assess the extent of the burns.
C) wash his legs off with large amounts of water.
D) move him to the stretcher for immediate transport.
Q2) You are called by the owner of a restaurant for a female patron who spilled hot tea onto her right thigh. The secondary assessment reveals the burn area to be soft, red, and painful. The skin is intact with no blister formation noted, although some edema is present. Based on these assessment findings, you would recognize what category of burn?
A) Superficial
B) Partial thickness
C) Deep partial thickness
D) Full thickness
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Chapter 30: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Nontraumatic
Fractures
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42714
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with diagnosed osteoporosis is more likely to sustain which of the following injuries?
A) Strain
B) Joint sprain
C) Nontraumatic dislocation
D) Fracture
Q2) You arrive on the scene to help another crew with the extrication from an attic of a female patient who fell while retrieving holiday decorations. As a result of the fall, she has an open fracture to her left lower leg. The patient has been fully immobilized to a long board and has a rigid splint in place to her left leg. Which one of the following would indicate the extremity has been improperly splinted?
A) The splint has immobilized the ankle, knee, and hip regions.
B) Ice packs wrapped in towels have been applied to the skin between the splints.
C) The patient is able to flex her left ankle when directed to do so.
D) The skin of the foot is red and swollen with a weak pedal pulse noted.
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Chapter 31: Head Trauma
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42715
Sample Questions
Q1) A 68-year-old female patient is complaining of a headache and generalized weakness. Her husband informs you that she was with a friend yesterday and was involved in a motor vehicle collision. She did strike her face on the dashboard, but refused treatment on scene. Her past medical history includes a stroke with right arm weakness and high blood pressure for which she takes medications. When assessing this patient, what finding should concern the EMT most?
A) Contusion to her left cheek area
B) Weakness to the right-hand grip
C) Bruising behind her left ear
D) Complaint of pain when she moves her jaw
Q2) A patient who fell out of a tree has an open skull injury. Which of the following inquiry descriptions would fit this description?
A) Instability to the temporal region of the skull with no break in the overlying scalp
B) Crepitus to the back of the skull with a hematoma overlying the unstable area
C) Laceration to the top of the scalp with pain to the skull when palpated
D) Obvious deformity to the right side of the skull with a laceration to the overlying scalp
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Chapter 32: Spinal Column and Spinal Cord Trauma
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42716
Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient has suffered an injury that severed his spinal cord in the thoracic spine. What presentation would be associated with this injury?
A) He will have no sensation in his arms.
B) He will feel pain below the injury in his legs.
C) He will have decreased motor ability above the injury.
D) He will experience paralysis to the legs.
Q2) You arrive on the scene of a two-car motor vehicle collision. The patient was the unrestrained driver of a car that struck another from behind at 25 mph. In the course of the collision, the patient flew forward and struck the windshield with his head. No air bags were deployed. The patient extricated himself and denies head, neck, or back pain; however, you do note a small cut on his hand, which occurred as he was getting out of the car. When asked about preexisting medical problems he tells you that he did have herniated disks in his lumbar spine that were surgically repaired several years ago. Based on this, your strongest reason to fully immobilize this patient would be:
A) history of back surgery.
B) laceration to the hand.
C) self-extrication of the patient.
D) mechanism of injury.
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Chapter 33: Eye, Face, and Neck Trauma
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42717
Sample Questions
Q1) A 22-year-old male attempted to hang himself in a garage using chains suspended from the roof trusses. He was quickly found by family members and taken down to the ground. Currently he is complaining of neck pain as well as mild difficulty breathing. Assessment shows his airway to be patent, breathing adequate, and skin warm and dry. His neck is red, but free of any subcutaneous air or swelling. Which of the following will you do first when caring for this patient?
A) Place ice packs to his neck.
B) Insert a nasal airway.
C) Immediate transport.
D) Apply a cervical collar.
Q2) For a patient suffering from conjunctivitis, the EMT would expect to observe a/an: A) inflamed and irritated cornea.
B) infected lens.
C) reddened membrane over the sclera.
D) nonresponsive pupil.
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Chapter 34: Chest Trauma
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42718
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement made by an EMT demonstrates an understanding of chest trauma?
A) "Open chest injuries are more serious than closed chest injuries, because air and bacteria can enter the chest through the open wound."
B) "In general, an open chest injury caused by blunt trauma is more life threatening than a closed one due to increased potential for blood loss."
C) "Closed chest injuries are caused by blunt trauma, and can be just as serious as open chest injuries."
D) "Closed chest injuries are caused by penetrating trauma and cause more life-threatening injuries than do open chest injuries."
Q2) You are transporting a 19-year-old male with a gunshot wound to the chest. On scene you covered the wound with an appropriate dressing. Now, as you reassess the patient, you note that the patient is tachypneic and complaining of difficulty breathing. Breath sounds on the side of the injury are diminished. Your immediate action would be to:
A) tape the dressing on the fourth side.
B) lift the dressing from the wound for several seconds.
C) provide positive pressure ventilation with high-concentration oxygen.
D) cover the wound with another dressing.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42719
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient who suffered a straddle injury while trying to balance on top of a chain link fence continues to bleed from the vaginal area despite your initial attempt to control the hemorrhage. At this time, you would:
A) apply an ice pack wrapped in a towel to the genital area.
B) gently put sterile gauze dressings into the opening of the vaginal canal.
C) place another dressing over the first and maintain direct pressure.
D) clean the area with sterile saline and reapply direct pressure.
Q2) You are transporting a female patient who was sexually assaulted by having a foreign body inserted deep into her vagina. You are attempting to control hemorrhage by the appropriate means. As you reassess the patient, which one of the following is of most concern?
A) Pain increases from a 7/10 to 10/10.
B) Large blood clots are forming at the vaginal entrance.
C) Patient informs you she has a sexually transmitted disease.
D) Heart rate increases from 116 to 140 per minute.
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Chapter 36: Multisystem Trauma and Trauma in Special Patient Populations
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42720
Sample Questions
Q1) A 32-week pregnant female who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is currently immobilized to the long spine board. Which one of her following statements should concern the EMT most?
A) "I think that I just had a contraction."
B) "I forgot to tell you that I am having twins."
C) "My back is really hurting from being on this board."
D) "I have not taken prenatal vitamins for one week."
Q2) The EMT is correctly assessing a 2-year-old male who is unresponsive after being assaulted by the mother's live-in boyfriend when he:
A) checks the patient's brachial pulse.
B) recognizes a respiratory rate of 30 per minute as abnormal.
C) takes the time to get a blood pressure.
D) checks capillary refill time to help determine perfusion.
Q3) The young pediatric patient is more prone to head injury because:
A) the skull is still cartilaginous and remains weak in structure.
B) the chest muscles are weak and cannot support the head.
C) the head is proportionately heavier and the neck muscles weaker.
D) the brain is smaller and floats within the larger skull.
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Chapter 37: Obstetrics and Care of the Newborn
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42721
Sample Questions
Q1) Despite positive pressure ventilation, a newborn's heart rate has fallen from 80 beats per minute to 40. He is breathing 40 breaths per minute and has a mottled appearance. Your next action would be to:
A) continue positive pressure ventilation.
B) suction the nose and mouth.
C) start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
D) attach an AED with pediatric pads.
Q2) You are transporting a female patient who is seven months pregnant. She has been diagnosed with preeclampsia and is currently hypertensive. Which one of the following statements made by the patient indicates she may be transitioning from preeclampsia to eclampsia?
A) "I feel like I am going to have a seizure."
B) "My legs and feet are more swollen."
C) "I have gained 10 pounds just this month."
D) "I think that I may have to vomit."
Q3) The APGAR scoring system is useful in determining:
A) type of resuscitation needed.
B) precise age of gestation.
C) status of overall condition.
D) maturity of heart and lungs.
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Chapter 38: Pediatrics
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42722
Sample Questions
Q1) An extremely high fever in a 2-month-old infant should be considered what medical emergency until known otherwise?
A) Bacterial pneumonia
B) Cerebral abscess
C) Viral bronchitis
D) Meningitis
Q2) You are by the side of a 2-year-old whose mother states he has had a cough for the past three days. His airway is patent and respirations labored. Intercostal retractions are accompanied by stridorous respirations. His skin is warm to hot and vital signs are as follows: pulse 152, respirations 28, SpO 97%, and temperature 100.3°F. Breath sounds are clear and equal. Based on this presentation, you would suspect and treat the patient for:
A) asthma.
B) bronchiolitis.
C) foreign body airway obstruction.
D) croup.
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Chapter 39: Geriatrics
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42723
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement indicates an accurate understanding of administering positive pressure ventilation (PPV) to a geriatric patient?
A) "An increase in the force of ventilation is needed to get air into the stiff lungs."
B) "If the patient is breathing between 10 and 20 breaths per minute, PPV is not needed."
C) "If the geriatric patient has a history of COPD, a pediatric bag-valve mask may be needed."
D) "Gentle ventilations that make the chest rise are adequate to provide oxygen into lungs."
Q2) In reviewing prehospital care reports, you note that over 75 percent of the patients from a nursing home suffer from hypertension. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize that:
A) hypertension is common among the elderly.
B) the patients are not taking blood pressure medications.
C) an infectious disease is spreading through the nursing home.
D) all of the patients must have the same physician.
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Chapter 40: Patients With Special Challenges
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42724
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called to a residence for an unknown medical problem. As you enter the house, what scene clue would most likely suggest the use of home medical oxygen?
A) Coughing and wheezing heard from a bedroom
B) Wife telling you that her husband cannot breathe
C) Metered-dose inhaler of albuterol on the table
D) No smoking sign located on the front door
Q2) While assessing a patient on a home mechanical ventilator, the low pressure alarm sounds. Your immediate action would be to:
A) start positive pressure ventilation with high-concentration oxygen.
B) increase the rate of ventilation on the ventilator.
C) check the ventilator tubing for kinking or obstruction.
D) check the connection between the tubing and tracheostomy.
Q3) An intraventricular shunt benefits a patient by:
A) providing a route to eliminate urine from the bladder.
B) draining fluid from around the heart.
C) allowing medication to be given to the patient.
D) draining cerebrospinal fluid from the brain.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: The Combat Veteran
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42725
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT would recognize what response when a patient states "I still see them burning but cannot do anything about it"?
A) Relive
B) Response
C) Avoidance
D) Anxiety
Q2) A combat veteran's wife has summoned 911 after her husband suddenly became confused and agitated. She states that he takes several mood stabilizing drugs and has a history of traumatic brain injury (TBI) from an improvised explosive device (IED) while on tour in the Middle East. There is no other medical history. In the bedroom, the patient is staring at you with a face that appears angry. Your initial priority in the care of this patient would be to:
A) recognize post-traumatic stress disorder and check a blood sugar.
B) gather and identify the medications taken by the patient.
C) recognize post-traumatic stress disorder and prepare for immediate transport.
D) establish a rapport with the patient and ensure personal safety.
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Chapter 42: Ambulance Operations and Air Medical Response
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42726
Sample Questions
Q1) In an EMS system, the first assessment of the call and the patient's condition is most often made by the:
A) Emergency Medical Responder.
B) Emergency Medical Dispatcher.
C) Emergency Physician.
D) Emergency Medical Technician.
Q2) A 43-year-old male is entrapped in a car that struck a tree at a high rate of speed. He suffered blunt trauma to the chest and has a decreased level of consciousness. In this situation, which one of the following is the best reason to transfer the patient by helicopter to the hospital?
A) A family member on scene requests it.
B) Death of the car's driver occurred.
C) Prolonged extrication was necessary.
D) The helicopter base is only 1 mile away.
Q3) The use of high-visibility vests when operating on a roadway is a requirement of the:
A) federal government.
B) state EMS department.
C) medical director.
D) state department of highways.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Gaining Access and Patient Extrication
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21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42727
Sample Questions
Q1) A car has struck a utility pole at a high rate of speed. The male driver appears to be unresponsive with snoring respirations. The vehicle has just been stabilized, and you have donned the appropriate personal protective equipment. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Perform a jaw-thrust airway maneuver.
B) Place a tarp over some spilled antifreeze.
C) Take manual spinal stabilization.
D) Apply a cervical collar to his neck.
Q2) A roofer on top of a two-story house called 911 after experiencing chest pain and dizziness. You are providing care to the patient on top of the roof and the fire department has arrived to help remove the patient from his present location. As the patient is brought down the ladder, your highest priority as an EMT is:
A) safety of the patient.
B) providing patient care.
C) your personal safety.
D) safety of the other rescuers.
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Chapter 44: Hazardous Materials
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42728
Sample Questions
Q1) A worker has been exposed to beta rays given off by a radioactive material. Which one of the following should you do first?
A) Decontaminate the patient.
B) Quickly assess for any radiation burns.
C) Assess his level of consciousness and ABCs.
D) Determine the exact material he was exposed to.
Q2) When working in the "warm" zone, the EMT must remember that:
A) contamination is no longer a threat.
B) water used does not have to be contained.
C) protective gear must be worn.
D) patient care is not performed.
Q3) While he is moving a container of a radioactive liquid, some of the liquid splashed onto the technician's arm. This situation is best be described as:
A) exposure.
B) contamination.
C) exposure with contamination.
D) exposure with beta injury.
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Chapter 45: Multiple-Casualty Incidents and Incident Management
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42729
Sample Questions
Q1) In most EMS systems, a multiple-casualty incident occurs when the number of patients is:
A) 3 or more.
B) 10 or more.
C) 20 or more.
D) 50 or more.
Q2) Approximately 15 trucks and cars have been involved in a "chain-reaction" collision. You are the first ambulance on the scene and begin going from vehicle to vehicle to determine the type and severity of each injury. This would be an example of what kind of triage?
A) Secondary
B) Emergency
C) Primary
D) Tertiary
Q3) A problem with the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system of triage is it:
A) is difficult to apply to young children.
B) requires at least 10 rescuers.
C) is only used for traumatic injuries.
D) can be complex and difficult to use.
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Chapter 46: Ems Response to Terrorism Involving Weapons
of Mass Destruction
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42730
Sample Questions
Q1) A chemical agent used by terrorists is described as having a high volatility. You should recognize this as meaning that the chemical is:
A) highly radioactive.
B) easily evaporated.
C) very explosive.
D) in liquid form.
Q2) Nerve agents typically cause death by what type of organ or system failure?
A) Respiratory
B) Renal
C) Cardiac
D) Liver
Q3) For the patient exposed to a nerve agent, which of the following signs would the EMT expect?
A) Dilated pupils
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Decreased body temperature
D) Increased salivation
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Page 48
Chapter 47: ALS-Assist Skills
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42731
Sample Questions
Q1) When assisting an advanced life support provider with IV therapy, the best way to avoid potential clinical complications is to:
A) only assist with setting up IV equipment if the patient is critically ill or injured.
B) only assist with setting up IV equipment if the patient is not critically ill or injured.
C) ask medical direction for approval each time prior to assisting with the equipment.
D) gain and maintain proficiency through knowledge and practice.
Q2) An IV administration set is described as 10 gtt/mL. Which of the following is true?
A) 10 mL are in each drop of IV solution.
B) 10 drops equal 1 mL of IV solution.
C) 10 drops of solution are to be placed in the drip chamber.
D) 10 mL of fluid are needed to fill the administration tubing.
Q3) After appropriately filling the drip chamber with IV fluid, you would:
A) flush air from the IV tubing.
B) remove the protective cap from the spike.
C) check the IV solution for particles or other impurities.
D) adjust the flow to the appropriate rate.
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Chapter 48: Advanced Airway Management
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49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42732
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements shows that the EMT has an accurate understanding of endotracheal intubation and the pediatric patient?
A) "A cuffed endotracheal tube should be used for patients under 8 years of age."
B) "A straight laryngoscope blade is preferred in infants."
C) "Sellick's maneuver is contraindicated in the pediatric patient."
D) "Ventilations should never be interrupted for more than 60 seconds when intubating a pediatric patient."
Q2) Of the following intubation techniques, which one is most likely to be successful on first attempt?
A) Digital intubation
B) Intubation with an ETC in place
C) Lighted stylet intubation
D) Visual orotracheal intubation
Q3) Which of the following is true when a King LT airway is correctly placed?
A) The lungs can be suctioned by passing a catheter through the airway.
B) The distal end lies in the esophagus.
C) The main lumen (tube) is placed in the trachea.
D) The large size of the device does not allow for capnometry.
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