Advanced Dental Hygiene Practice Exam Answer Key - 1191 Verified Questions

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Advanced Dental Hygiene Practice

Exam Answer Key

Course Introduction

Advanced Dental Hygiene Practice explores the expanded roles and responsibilities of dental hygienists in contemporary oral health care settings. This course emphasizes evidence-based approaches to patient care, advanced assessment and diagnostic techniques, and comprehensive treatment planning. Students will gain proficiency in the use of emerging dental technologies, pain management, and the management of complex cases, including care for diverse and medically compromised populations. Topics include collaborative practice models, ethical and legal considerations in advanced practice, and leadership skills necessary for integrating advanced dental hygiene services in interprofessional healthcare teams.

Recommended Textbook

Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 8th Edition by Elena Bablenis Haveles

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26 Chapters

1191 Verified Questions

1191 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug

Legislation, and Prescription Writing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is located in the body of the prescription?

A)The date of the prescription

B)The amount of the drug to be dispensed

C)Directions to the prescriber

D)Refill instructions

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following is true concerning generic and trade names of drugs?

A)A drug may only have one generic name and one trade name.

B)A drug may only have one generic name,but it may have several trade names.

C)A drug may have several generic names,but it may only have one trade name.

D)A drug may have several generic names and several trade names.

Answer: B

Q3) The federal body that determines whether a drug is considered a controlled substance and to which schedule it belongs is the

A)Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

B)Federal Trade Commission (FTC).

C)Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).

D)U.S.Pharmacopeia (USP).

Answer: C

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling

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Sample Questions

Q1) If redistribution occurs between specific sites and nonspecific sites,a drug's action will be

A)prolonged.

B)extended.

C)decreased.

D)terminated.

Answer: D

Q2) Which is true regarding excretion when tubular urine is more alkaline?

A)Both weak acids and weak bases are excreted more rapidly.

B)Weak acids are excreted more rapidly,and weak bases are excreted more slowly.

C)Weak acids are excreted more slowly,and weak bases are excreted more rapidly.

D)Both weak acids and weak bases are excreted more slowly.

Answer: B

Q3) Which drug is eliminated with zero-order kinetics?

A)Probenecid

B)Aspirin

C)Allopurinol

D)Penicillin

E)Naproxyn sodium

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The greatest risk to the fetus from exposure to drugs occurs

A)just before birth.

B)during the third trimester.

C)during the second trimester.

D)before pregnancy status is known.

Answer: D

Q2) Type _____ hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE antibodies. A)I

B)II

C)III

D)IV

Answer: A

Q3) A genetically related abnormal drug response is called a(n) A)toxic reaction.

B)idiosyncratic reaction.

C)side effect.

D)drug allergy.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patients pretreated with _____ agents are prone to epinephrine reversal.

A)cholinergic

B)anticholinergic

C)a-adrenergic

D)a-adrenergic blocking

Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the organization of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?

A)All body tissues are innervated by the ANS.

B)All organs receive both parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation.

C)If a tissue receives both innervations,the response will be equal to the sum of excitatory and inhibitory influences of the two divisions of the ANS.

D)Sensory fibers in one division cannot influence the motor fibers in the other.

Q3) The direct effect of acetylcholine on the heart is _____ chronotropic and _____ inotropic action.

A)negative;negative

B)positive;positive

C)negative;positive

D)positive;negative

E)None of the above are correct.

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Chapter 5: Nonopioid Non-Narcoticanalgesics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the pharmacokinetics of acetaminophen?

A)Acetaminophen is slowly and incompletely absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.

B)Acetaminophen is excreted with a half-life of 8 to 12 hours.

C)When large doses of acetaminophen are ingested,an intermediate metabolite is produced that is thought to be hepatotoxic.

D)Acetaminophen is less potent and efficacious than aspirin.

Q2) Which of the following agents is intended to treat an acute attack of gout?

A)Probenecid

B)Codeine

C)Colchicine

D)Acetaminophen

E)Both A and C

Q3) Which of the following agents is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor?

A)Colchicine

B)Ibuprofen

C)Allopurinol

D)Probenecid

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Chapter 6: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics and Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) Beta-endorphin is a naturally occurring peptide with opioid-like action.It possesses analgesic action but has no addiction potential.

A)Both statements are true.

B)Both statements are false.

C)The first statement is true;the second statement is false.

D)The first statement is false;the second statement is true.

Q2) What do aspirin,acetaminophen,ibuprofen,and codeine have in common?

A)They are all antiinflammatory.

B)They are all analgesic.

C)They all inhibit platelet aggregation.

D)They are all antipyretic.

Q3) Children should not receive codeine after a tonsillectomy due to an increased risk for

A)central nervous system depression.

B)respiratory depression.

C)postural hypotension.

D)constipation.

Q4) A patient who feels nauseated after taking codeine is allergic to it.

A)True

B)False

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the cephalosporins?

A)They are active against gram-positive but not gram-negative organisms.

B)Those available for oral use are susceptible to penicillinase.

C)They are bacteriostatic.

D)Their mechanism of action is inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

Q2) The frequency of cross-hypersensitivity between penicillin and cephalosporins is about __%.

A)0

B)10

C)20

D)30

E)40

Q3) Quinolones

A)must be administered parenterally and cannot be taken orally.

B)have no use in dentistry.

C)are bactericidal against most gram-negative organisms and many gram-positive organisms.

D)have cross-resistance with many other antimicrobial agents.

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Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) The following statements are true of ketoconazole except which one?

A)Ketoconazole is an imidazole that is used in dentistry.

B)Hepatotoxicity subsequent to the administration of ketoconazole is thought to be an idiosyncratic reaction.

C)Ketoconazole has a masculinizing effect by increasing testosterone levels.

D)At least 2 hours should pass between the ingestion of an antacid and the administration of ketoconazole.

E)Ketoconazole is available as a cream.

Q2) The most frequent adverse reaction(s)associated with ketoconazole is (are)

A)diarrhea.

B)nausea and vomiting.

C)xerostomia.

D)premature ventricular contractions.

Q3) Which of the following antifungal agents is produced by Streptomyces noursei?

A)Fluconazole

B)Clotrimazole

C)Ketoconazole

D)Nystatin

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Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following dental local anesthetics is associated with an increased incidence of paresthesia following an inferior alveolar (IA)block?

A)Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine 1:100,000

B)Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine 1:50,000

C)Mepivacaine 2% with levonordefrin 1:20,000

D)Prilocaine 4% with epinephrine 1:200,000

E)Articaine 4% with epinephrine 1:100,000

Q2) Repolarization of a nerve occurs by

A)influx of potassium.

B)influx of sodium.

C)efflux of potassium.

D)efflux of calcium.

E)None of the above

Q3) Which of the following components of an injected amide local anesthetic agent may produce a hypersensitivity reaction that exhibits itself as an acute asthmatic attack?

A)The vasoconstrictor

B)The antioxidant for the vasoconstrictor

C)The sodium hydroxide

D)The sodium chloride

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Page 11

Chapter 10: General Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient should be given 100% oxygen for 5 minutes after treatment with nitrous oxide to prevent

A)neuropathy.

B)dissociative anesthesia.

C)diffusion hypoxia.

D)respiratory paralysis.

Q2) What are the goals of surgical anesthesia? (Select all that apply. )

A)Good patient control

B)Adequate muscle relaxation

C)Reduced respiratory rate

D)Reduced cardiac output

E)Pain relief

Q3) Which of the following types of agents is used during balanced general anesthesia to help the patient pass from stage I to stage III and skip over the signs of stage II?

A)Ketamine

B)Propofol

C)Ultrashort-acting IV barbiturate

D)Opioids

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Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) What percentage of Americans only seek oral health care when absolutely necessary?

A)0%

B)5%

C)10%

D)20%

Q2) Which of the following sleep stages is enhanced with the use of benzodiazepines?

A)Latency period

B)Rapid eye movement (REM)sleep

C)Nonrapid eye movement (NREM)sleep stages 3 and 4

D)Nonrapid eye movement (NREM)sleep stage 2

Q3) Which of the following agents used for dental anxiety has a fast onset and short half-life?

A)Triazolam

B)Diazepam

C)Lorazepam

D)Alprazolam

Q4) Sedatives potentiate analgesic agents.

A)True

B)False

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) The percentage of Americans diagnosed with hypertension is which percentage according to the new recommendations of the American Heart Association (AHA)?

A)6%

B)16%

C)26%

D)36%

E)46%

Q2) MI refers to

A)injury or necrosis of the heart muscle.

B)transient lack of oxygen to the heart.

C)congestive heart failure (CHF).

D)abnormal sinus rhythm of the heart.

Q3) The newest guidelines from the ACC/AHA recommend using HMG-coA reductase inhibitors (statins)as the drugs of first choice for treating patients with atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease based on

A)a total cholesterol level of over 240 mg/dL.

B)a low-density lipoprotein level over 190 mg/dL.

C)the patient's estimated 10-year atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease risk.

D)poor lifestyle factors such as being overweight and smoking.

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Chapter 13: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the best non-narcotic analgesic for the management of a dental patient with peptic ulcer disease or gastroesophageal reflux disease?

A)Acetaminophen

B)Aspirin

C)Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory (NSAID)

D)Tylenol #3

Q2) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)may be useful in treating ulcers.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Each of the following is part of common multidrug regimens for treatment of ulcers due to Helicobacter pylori except one.Which is the exception?

A)Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)

B)Metronidazole

C)Amoxicillin

D)Tetracycline

E)Sodium bicarbonate

Q4) Antacids are the best treatment for peptic ulcers.

A)True

B)False

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fetal hydantoin syndrome is associated with maternal ingestion of A)carbamazepine.

B)phenobarbital.

C)phenytoin.

D)gabapentin.

Q2) Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for the treatment of _____ seizures.

A)generalized tonic-clonic

B)generalized absence

C)partial simple

D)partial complex

Q3) Gingival enlargement may occur in what percentage of chronic users of phenytoin?

A)10%

B)30%

C)50%

D)90%

E)None of the above

Q4) Lamotrigine is an effective treatment for myoclonic seizures.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous

System Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Interaction of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)with many drugs such as amphetamines,and with foods such as wines,cheese,and fish,can precipitate

A)hair loss.

B)hypertensive crisis.

C)gout.

D)dysgeusia.

Q2) Abrupt withdrawal of serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)can lead to symptoms of A)urinary retention.

B)anxiety.

C)tachycardia.

D)sweating.

Q3) Which of the following antipsychotic agents have been approved for adjunctive treatment of major depressive disorder?

A)Low potency first-generation antipsychotics

B)Medium potency first-generation antipsychotics

C)High potency first-generation antipsychotics

D)Second-generation antipsychotics.

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Chapter 16: Adrenocorticosteroids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following types of patients is least likely to require steroid supplementation for most routine dental procedures?

A)A patient with primary adrenal insufficiency

B)A patient with secondary adrenal insufficiency

C)A patient with Addison disease

D)A patient with rheumatoid arthritis

Q2) Adrenocorticosteroids are released from the A)hypothalamus.

B)adrenal cortex.

C)pituitary gland.

D)adrenal medulla.

E)kidney.

Q3) Most dental patients taking steroids who are having normal dental treatment rendered do not need additional corticosteroids.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Corticosteroids increase resistance to infection.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory

Disorders and Allergic Rhinitis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A spacer is often placed between the metered-dose inhaler and the mouth to decrease the amount of drug delivered to the lungs.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which is an interleukin-5 antibody antagonist?

A)Montelukast (Singulair)

B)Mepolizumab (Nucala)

C)Albuterol (Proventil HFA)

D)Prednisone (Deltasone)

E)Omalizumab (Xolair)

Q3) The primary advantage of second-generation H agents is that they are less likely to have which of the following pharmacologic effects of first-generation H antihistamines?

A)Antihistaminic

B)Antiserotonergic

C)Anticholinergic

D)Sedative

Q4) Cromolyn sodium works by blocking acetylcholine receptors.

A)True

B)False

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus

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Sample Questions

Q1) Diabetes is the major cause of blindness in adults.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Insulin is a pancreatic hormone that promotes insulin storage.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Patients with uncontrolled or undiagnosed diabetes are more prone to periodontal disease.Patients with well-controlled diabetes are no more prone to periodontal disease than the general public.

A)Both statements are true.

B)Both statements are false.

C)The first statement is true,the second is false.

D)The first statement is false,the second is true.

Q4) Which of the following oral antidiabetic agents is a bile-acid sequestrant used to lower low-density lipoprotein (LDL)cholesterol?

A)Pramlintide

B)Colesevelam

C)DPP-4s

D)Glucagon

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Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cretins exhibit all of the following dental abnormalities except which one?

A)Malocclusion

B)Large teeth

C)Delayed tooth eruption

D)Increased tendency to develop periodontal disease

Q2) Simple goiter is prevalent in some areas of the world because iodine is abundant in most foods.

A)Both the statement and the reason are correct.

B)The statement is correct,but the reason is not.

C)The statement is not correct,but the reason is correct.

D)Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q3) Which of the following glands is also called the "master gland"?

A)Thyroid gland

B)Anterior pituitary gland

C)Pituitary gland

D)Gonads

Q4) In most homeostatic systems the hormone released has a negative feedback effect on the secretion of the hormone-stimulating substance.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Antineoplastic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which folic acid analog antimetabolite antineoplastic drug is also used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?

A)Bleomycin (Blenoxane)

B)Methotrexate (Amethopterin,MTX)

C)Interferon alpha-n3 (Alferon N)

D)Vincristine (Oncovin)

E)Fluorouracil (5-FU)

Q2) The phase of the cell cycle before mitosis and after the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)synthesis phase is

A)G .

B)M.

C)G .

D)S.

E)G .

Q3) The dental health care worker should not recommend any products containing alcohol to patients taking antineoplastic agents because antineoplastic agents produce a disulfiram reaction.

A)True

B)False

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Emergency Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Diazepam may be administered for treatment of which of the following emergencies?

A)Hyperglycemia

B)Hypoglycemia

C)Seizures

D)Asthma

E)Anaphylactic shock

Q2) Which of the following signs is the most common emergency in the dental office?

A)Acute airway obstruction

B)Syncope

C)Hypoglycemia

D)Diabetic coma

Q3) The patient with hypoglycemia has a _____ pulse and _____ respiration.

A)rapid;increased

B)rapid;decreased

C)slow;increased

D)slow;decreased

Q4) Most dental offices are well equipped to treat cardiac arrhythmias.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following adverse effects is associated with smoking?

A)Neonatal dependence

B)Intrauterine growth retardation,sudden infant death syndrome

C)Abnormal development patterns,neonatal withdrawal syndrome

D)Increased spontaneous abortion,premature labor,abnormal development,decreased school performance

Q2) The wives of dental personnel who are exposed to trace amounts of nitrous oxide in the workplace have a higher incidence of spontaneous abortion.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In managing the pregnant patient,avoiding elective dental treatment is best until the third trimester.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Although opioids appear in breast milk when analgesic doses are administered,the small amounts appear have an insignificant effect on the nursing infant.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: Substance Use Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Enabling is an inappropriate behavior that requires family therapy because it involves the actions that family or friends take to supply the addict with the drug.

A)Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B)Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related.

C)The statement is correct,but the reason is not.

D)The statement is not correct,but the reason is correct.

E)Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q2) Which agent has a withdrawal syndrome characterized by yawning,rhinorrhea,and chills that alternate with excessive sweating?

A)Amphetamine

B)Diazepam

C)Nicotine

D)Heroin

Q3) Prescribing _____ for analgesia is best when treating a dental patient who abuses opioids.

A)Tylenol #3 with codeine

B)Vicodin

C)Percocet

D)nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Naturalherbal Products and Dietary Supplements

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Q1) The FDA has performed much of the research and advanced the knowledge about herbal products and supplements.The German Federal Health Agency established the German Commission E to review and analyze world literature on plant-based products.

A)Both statements are true.

B)Both statements are false.

C)The first statement is true,the second is false.

D)The first statement is false,the second is true.

Q2) Each of the following is true of the FDA Food Safety and Modernization Act of 2010 EXCEPT one.Which is the EXCEPTION?

A)It provides the FDA with mandatory recall authority for all foods.

B)It requires the FDA to issue New Dietary Ingredients guidance.

C)It expands the facility registration obligations.

D)It requires the manufacturer to prove that an herbal product is safe and effective.

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Chapter 25: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment

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Sample Questions

Q1) A decrease in vertical dimension is thought to contribute to angular cheilitis.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The majority of cases of osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ)are associated with patients taking corticosteroids.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Long-term exposure of the lip to _____ can cause irreversible tissue changes known as actinic cheilitis.

A)lipstick or lip gloss

B)the sun

C)alcohol

D)cold wind

Q4) Approximately _____% of the adult population has been exposed to herpes simplex virus (HSV).

A)10

B)20 to 30

C)50 to 60

D)80 to 90

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Chapter 26: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a recent clinical trial,an essential oil mouth rinse plus brushing and flossing was A)not found to be effective in reducing interproximal bleeding.

B)found to be effective in reducing interproximal pocket depths.

C)found to produce similar results to chlorhexidine at the end of 3 months of therapy.

D)found to produce similar results to chlorhexidine at the end of 6 months of therapy.

Q2) Topical NaF 2% is recommended for patients with porcelain or composite restorations.APF 1.23% is not recommended for patients with porcelain or composite restorations.

A)Both statements are true.

B)Both statements are false.

C)The first statement is true,the second is false.

D)The first statement is false,the second is true.

Q3) Experts recommend that fluoride applications remain in place for A)30 seconds.

B)1 minute.

C)2 minutes.

D)4 minutes.

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