Advanced Cognitive Neuroscience Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Cognitive Neuroscience explores the complex neural mechanisms underlying higher cognitive functions such as attention, memory, language, decision-making, and consciousness. The course examines the integration of behavioral research, neuroimaging techniques, electrophysiology, and computational modeling to provide a comprehensive understanding of how the brain supports cognitive processes. Students will engage with current research findings, discuss theoretical frameworks, and analyze experimental methodologies, preparing them to critically assess and contribute to cutting-edge developments in cognitive neuroscience.
Recommended Textbook
Cognitive Neuroscience 5th Edition by Michael Gazzaniga
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Brief History of Cognitive Neuroscience
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the "neuron doctrine"?
A)The nervous system consists of a fused network of interconnected fibers.
B)The brain can be subdivided into regions that are distinct in cytoarchitectonics yet functionally interactive.
C)The nervous system consists of physically distinct cells that are functionally interactive.
D)The brain can be subdivided into functionally autonomous modules.
Answer: C
Q2) Empiricism is the philosophical position that all knowledge
A)must be deduced and justified through reason.
B)originates from sensory experience.
C)must be experimentally tested.
D)is globally distributed in the cortex.
Answer: B
Q3) La reazione nera, or "the black reaction," refers to
A)a cell stain developed by Golgi.
B)a perceptual phenomenon described by the Gestalt psychologists.
C)a ganglion preparation developed by Arvanitaki.
D)a type of reinforcement-based learning described by the behaviorists.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Q1) In which of the following diseases is myelin damaged or lost?
A)Alzheimer's
B)Parkinson's
C)schizophrenia
D)multiple sclerosis
Answer: D
Q2) The role of calcium ions (Ca² ) in synaptic transmission is to
A)bind neurotransmitter molecules to the postsynaptic membrane.
B)mediate the release of neurotransmitter molecules from the presynaptic neuron.
C)repolarize the postsynaptic cell after transmission has been completed.
D)increase the activity of the sodium-potassium pumps in the presynaptic cell.
Answer: B
Q3) The value of the membrane potential to which an axon must be depolarized to initiate an action potential is called the ________ potential for that neuron.
A)graded
B)resting
C)threshold
D)refractory
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Methods of Cognitive Neuroscience
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of computer modeling?
A)Creating a simulation leads researchers to be completely explicit in the modeled operations.
B)Some models have homunculus-like teachers, just like those of biological organisms.
C)Such models can lead to testable predictions.
D)Models can be "lesioned" to see how their performance changes when they are altered.
Answer: B
Q2) Resecting or removing regions of cortex and cutting the corpus callosum are techniques that are usually used to
A)alleviate severe chronic epilepsy.
B)reduce the symptoms of depression.
C)increase the functioning of dopaminergic cells in people with Parkinson's disease.
D)relieve imbalances in neurotransmitter levels that can lead to Alzheimer's disease.
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Hemispheric Specialization
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Q1) Drawings of hierarchical figures by people with left-hemisphere lesions are likely to focus on local elements while missing global structure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Assessment of the visual processing carried out by each hemisphere in split-brain patients usually involves the brief simultaneous presentation of different stimuli to each visual field while the participant fixates on a central point in space. Why is it necessary to ensure that stimulus presentation is brief?
A)If the stimuli were presented over longer intervals, information would be transferred between the hemispheres through the corpus callosum.
B)Brief presentation prevents participants from focusing attention on the stimuli.
C)The short presentation time is necessary to prevent eye movements, which would redirect information across the visual fields.
D)Increasing the presentation time increases task difficulty for split-brain patients.
Q3) Describe how modularity plays a role in consciousness.
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Chapter 5: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) Different parts of the body are represented in the primary somatosensory cortex in proportion to their size.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a patient has a unilateral lesion in area V5, which of the following disruptions is the patient MOST likely to experience?
A)A selective loss of motion perception.
B)A disorder of color perception.
C)An agnosia.
D)A subtle deficit in motion perception.
Q3) Simple cells in the primary visual cortex selectively respond to visual stimuli based on
A)direction of stimulus motion.
B)stimulus color.
C)stimulus orientation.
D)distance of the stimulus from the viewer.
Q4) How do we know that somatosensory cortex is plastic? Describe the method and results of at least one experiment to support your answer.
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Chapter 6: Object Recognition
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Q1) When a picture of a hammer is placed in front of Patient H, she is unable to identify it. How can you determine if her difficulty is in recognizing the object or in simply remembering its name?
A)Ask her to demonstrate its use rather than identifying it.
B)Ask her to close her eyes before attempting to name it.
C)Ask her to copy the picture of the object instead of naming it.
D)Ask her to trace the outline of the object instead of naming it.
Q2) A major source of evidence against the idea that faces are processed in a special neural region in humans is that the candidate region
A)is used to process a variety of perceptual stimuli in nonhuman primates.
B)is also involved in processing highly familiar places.
C)is recruited when people have to make discriminations among highly familiar stimuli.
D)varies significantly in location from person to person.
Q3) Prosopagnosia is to alexia as ________ is to ________.
A)face recognition; reading
B)reading; face recognition
C)writing; reading
D)reading; writing
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Chapter 7: Attention
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Q1) What is the neurological syndrome known as neglect? Describe the typical symptoms and associated brain regions. How does complete neglect differ from extinction?
Q2) The observation that extinction is worse when identical, rather than different, stimuli are simultaneously presented to the ipsilesional and contralesional sides of the visual field indicates that
A)neglected stimuli do not undergo perceptual processing in the absence of focused attention.
B)neglected stimuli undergo perceptual processing in the absence of focused attention.
C)neglected stimuli can capture attention involuntarily.
D)neglected stimuli are often confused with stimuli that are successfully attended.
Q3) The P1 ERP is associated most closely with the
A)direction of attention to the spatial location of a visually presented object.
B)pop-out of feature-based visual targets in visual search.
C)direction of attention to the specific ear through which a particular signal is presented.
D)increased activity of cells in the primary and secondary auditory cortex.
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Chapter 8: Action
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of a process related to basal ganglia influence/striatal disinhibition?
A)The striatum receives a dopamine signal that produces different results when dopamine binds D1 as opposed to D2 receptors.
B)Striatal disinhibition can affect a wide range of motor behavior, including eye movements.
C)Neurons in the internal segment of the globus pallidus have a relatively high baseline firing rate, and the direct path of the striatum inhibits them.
D)Inhibition of the internal segment of the globus pallidus dampens cortical activity to decrease motor output.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a part of the basal ganglia?
A)the putamen
B)the claustrum
C)the caudate
D)the globus pallidus
Q3) Single axons of the corticospinal tract can extend for more than one meter.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Memory
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Q1) Which of the following best describes a component of the multiple trace theory?
A)The hippocampus plays a temporary role in the consolidation of long-term memories.
B)Episodic memory relies on the hippocampus for retrieval.
C)Short-term memory stores rely solely on the neocortex.
D)Semantic memory relies on the hippocampus for retrieval.
Q2) One finding that supports the idea that information in working memory is represented by an acoustic (auditory) code rather than a semantic (meaning-based) code is that when participants are given a list of words to learn and then are immediately tested for recall, performance is ______ when the list contains items that are similar in _______.
A)worse; meaning
B)better; meaning
C)worse; sound
D)better; sound
Q3) Most forms of classical conditioning can be considered declarative memory.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the BIC model. Describe an experiment that supports the model.
Q5) Define each of the three major stages of learning.
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Chapter 10: Emotion
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Q1) Patient S.M., who had damage to the amygdala, had difficulty recognizing sadness in the expressions of other people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In some of the fear-conditioning experiments described in your text, simple shapes like a blue square are used as the conditioned stimulus (CS).
A)True
B)False
Q3) A common conditioned stimulus (CS) in fear-conditioning experiments is an electric shock.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Emotions are ________ responses to external or internal stimuli.
A)observable
B)experienced
C)perceivable
D)valenced
Q5) Are there hemispheric differences in emotional regulation? Describe evidence to support your answer.
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Chapter 11: Language
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe Hagoort's model of language, including its three functional components and the brain areas to which they relate.
Q2) Language errors in which a person substitutes words that are related in meaning for one another are called
A)lemma confusions.
B)syntactic substitutions.
C)semantic paraphasias.
D)orthographic intrusions.
Q3) What is a semantic paraphasia? What does this tell us about the way in which words are organized in the mental lexicon?
Q4) A normal adult speaker has passive knowledge of about 50,000 words.
A)True
B)False
Q5) You receive a text message that reads "My steak eaten up by the broccoli." Which word would lead to a P600 for you?
A)steak
B)eaten
C)the
D)broccoli
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Chapter 12: Cognitive Control
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Q1) The key function of the inferior temporal lobe is to evaluate response conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Working memory has been called the ________ of the mind.
A)blackboard
B)bookshelves
C)filing cabinet
D)staple gun
Q3) The idea that the prefrontal cortex filters out and inhibits irrelevant information is supported by the ERP findings of Knight and Grabowecky (1995), who found that patients with prefrontal lesions produced ________ in response to ignored tones during a listening task.
A)smaller evoked potentials
B)larger evoked potentials
C)evoked potentials that were longer in duration
D)evoked potentials that were briefer in duration
Q4) Describe the supervisory attentional system. What brain area is thought to be involved? Describe neuroimaging studies that support your view.
Q5) Is there more than one decision system? Provide evidence to support your view.
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Chapter 13: Social Cognition
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Q1) Phineas Gage, who suffered injury to the orbitofrontal cortex, experienced changes in all of the following areas as a result of his injury EXCEPT
A)inhibition of inappropriate social behavior.
B)performance on cognitive tests.
C)planning of complex behaviors.
D)personality and temperament.
Q2) In a teasing experiment, people with orbitofrontal injuries and control participants were asked to make up nicknames for an experimenter whom they did not know well. What were the results?
A)The control participants chose flattering nicknames, whereas the people with orbitofrontal injuries chose unflattering ones.
B)The people with orbitofrontal injuries chose flattering nicknames, whereas the control participants chose unflattering ones.
C)The control participants refused to perform the task, finding the idea socially inappropriate.
D)The people with orbitofrontal injuries refused to perform the task, finding the idea socially inappropriate.
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Chapter 14: The Consciousness Problem
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Q1) Discuss, in the context of consciousness, Darwin's statement, "The difference in mind between man and the higher animals, great as it is, is certainly one of degree and not of kind."
Q2) Evidence suggests that chimpanzees are unable to understand false beliefs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT thought to be an evolutionary pressure that gave rise to access-consciousness?
A)cost of space
B)cost of time
C)cost of resources
D)cost of prey
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a form of unconscious processing?
A)autonomic responses
B)motor control
C)language processing
D)short-term memory
Q5) How can mental states go on to affect brain processing? Include at least one experimental result in your answer.
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