Advanced Coding and Classification Systems
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Advanced Coding and Classification Systems is a comprehensive course designed to deepen students understanding of sophisticated coding frameworks and standardized classification systems used in health information management and related fields. The course explores advanced coding concepts, including the accurate assignment of diagnostic and procedural codes using the latest versions of ICD, CPT, and HCPCS systems, as well as specialized coding for complex cases. Students will gain expertise in interpreting clinical documentation, resolving ambiguities, and applying ethical practices in coding. Emphasis will be placed on regulatory compliance, reimbursement methodologies, auditing processes, and the integration of technology in coding workflows to ensure data quality and support healthcare analytics.
Recommended Textbook
ICD 10 CM PCS Coding Theory and Practice 2017 Edition 1st Edition by Karla R. Lovaasen
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26 Chapters
1611 Verified Questions
1611 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Rationale for and History of Coding
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organization is NOT responsible for the maintenance of ICD-10-CM?
A)National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS)
B)American Academy of Professional Coders (AAPC)
C)American Hospital Association (AHA)
D)American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA)
Answer: B
Q2) Personal health information be shared with ____.
A)those who have a need to know
B)people requesting information on the phone
C)your neighbors
D)all of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Procedures for processing claim rejections should be included in a coding compliance plan.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) WHO stands for __________.
Answer: World Health Organization
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Chapter 2: The Health Record As the Foundation of Coding
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does AHQA stand for?
Answer: American Health Quality Association
Q2) The patient history and physical need to be performed and documented within ___________ hours of admission for an inpatient encounter.
Answer: 24
Q3) If the condition of a patient is being clinically evaluated,the coder would expect to see ____.
A)an admission date
B)letters
C)clinical observations
D)an operative report
Answer: C
Q4) One of the most important aspects of developing an effective query form is the manner in which the form is worded.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Which report should be written or dictated immediately following a procedure. Answer: Operative report
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Chapter 3: ICD-10-Cm Format and Conventions
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bolded subterm in the diagnostic statement aspiration pneumonia is a(n)____ modifier.
A)essential
B)nonessential
Answer: A
Q2) "__________" is used in the Alphabetic Index to provide guidance when two conditions are related or have a causal relationship. Answer: Due to or with
Q3) There are manifestation codes that DO NOT have "in diseases classified elsewhere" in the title.For such codes a "use additional code" note will still be present at the etiology code and a "code first" note at the manifestation code and the rules for sequencing still apply.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A block in ICD-10-CM is a range of categories. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Basic Steps of Coding
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient displays a symptom that could represent a variety of diagnoses
A)Tabular List
B)See also
C)Subterms
D)Discharge summary
E)Coding Clinic
F)ER
G)Differential diagnosis
H)Chief complaint
I)The first basic step in coding the principal diagnosis
J)Nonessential modifiers
Q2) The first step in coding the principal diagnosis is to ____.
A)identify the diagnosis and the principal procedure
B)identify main term(s)in the Alphabetic Index
C)review the medical record
D)review any subterms under the main term in the Index
Q3) To be sure you have the correct diagnosis code,it is very important to go to the Alphabetic Index first and then to the Tabular List.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: General Coding Guidelines for Diagnosis
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the diagnosis code(s)for thoracolumbar scoliosis (neuromuscular)due to past history of poliomyelitis?
Q2) What is the diagnosis code(s)for memory deficit due to previous cerebral infarction?
Q3) What is the diagnosis code(s)for posttraumatic osteoarthritis due to previous left femoral neck fracture (hip)?
Q4) Codes for symptoms,signs,and ill-defined conditions are NOT to be used as a principal diagnosis when a related definitive diagnosis has been established. A)True B)False
Q5) What is the diagnosis code(s)for acute and chronic bronchitis?
Q6) A patient is admitted to the hospital with vomiting,diarrhea,and an inability to eat or drink.IV fluids are administered,and the patient is put on bowel rest.The following day the patient is discharged with a diagnosis of gastroenteritis and dehydration.What is the principal diagnosis?
Q7) A patient who is a known diabetic is admitted for treatment of an ulcer of the left great toe.What is the principal diagnosis?
Q8) What is the diagnosis code(s)for acute and chronic renal failure?
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Chapter 6: Introduction to ICD-10-PCS
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Percutaneous chest tube insertion for drainage of pleural cavity,left side
Q2) Open excisional biopsies of liver and pancreas
Q3) ____________________ examinations and procedures are performed with an instrument that examines any cavity of the body with the use of a rigid or a flexible scope.
Q4) Who is responsible for the maintenance of ICD-10-PCS?
A)AHIMA
B)AMA
C)NCHS
D)CMS
Q5) Cutting out or off,without replacement,a portion of a body part is called ____.
A)resection
B)excision
C)destruction
D)extraction
Q6) The omentum is in what body system?
Q7) The terminology used in ICD-10-PCS is such that multiple meanings can be used for the same term.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: General Coding Guidelines for Other Medicaland
Surgical-Related Procedures and Ancillary Procedures
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109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Casting of nondisplaced left tibial fracture
Q2) In utero repair of cardiovascular system,laparoscopic approach
Q3) When a fifth character stands for duration,this specifies the duration of the procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pheresis is a type of extracorporeal therapy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) External is the only root operation that can be used in the osteopathic section. A)True
B)False
Q6) In the mental health section,characters five,six,and seven are for qualifiers.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Mechanical respiratory ventilation longer than 96 hours
Page 9
Q8) The fourth character is the body part that is the focus of the radiation therapy.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Coding Medical and Surgical Procedures
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Root operation to remove solids/fluids/gases from a body part
A)Drainage
B)Excision
C)Occlusion
D)Release
E)Removal
F)Reposition
Q2) ____________________ is the removal of tissue for pathologic examination to establish a precise diagnosis.
Q3) Ureteroscopy that was unsuccessful for stone removal,left ureter
Q4) When a diagnostic procedure is performed for the principal diagnosis and a procedure for definitive treatment is performed for a secondary diagnosis,the procedure for definitive treatment is the principal procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Closed reduction of right radial fracture
Q6) Cutting out or off,without replacement,a portion of a body part is called ____.
Q7) Placement of central venous catheter with the tip at the cavoatrial junction
Q8) Open endarterectomy of right internal carotid artery
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Chapter 9: Symptoms, signs, and Abnormal Clinical and Laboratory
Findings Not Elsewhere Classified, and Z Codes
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Encounter for blood alcohol test: __________
Q2) Subjective evidence of a disease or of a patient's condition as perceived by the patient
A)A primary circumstance for using Z codes
B)Symptom
C)Screening exam
D)Is a main term in the Alphabetic Index
E)Sign
Q3) Principal diagnosis is documented as right upper quadrant abdominal pain due to cholecystitis versus peptic ulcer disease: __________
Q4) Which of the following is a category of Z codes?
A)Contact/exposure
B)Inoculations and vaccinations
C)Status
D)All of the above
Q5) A ________________ is subjective evidence of a disease or of a patient's condition as perceived by the patient.
12
Q6) Impending stroke with dizziness and facial weakness: __________
Q7) List one reason why a screening code would not be necessary.
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Chapter 10: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is HIV positive and is currently being treated for Burkitt's lymphoma of inguinal region.
A)Z21,C83.74
B)Z21,C83.75
C)B20,C83.74
D)B20,C83.75
Q2) Jock itch is coded to ____.
A)B35.9
B)B35.8
C)B35.6
D)B35.4
Q3) Name an AIDS-defining illness that usually attacks an immunocompromised individual.
Q4) Clostridium difficile usually is tested for in ____ when physicians suspect an infection.
A)saliva
B)blood
C)a stool specimen
D)none of the above is correct
Q5) Assign the code for chickenpox.
13
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Chapter 11: Neoplasms
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neutropenic fever with neutropenia due to chemotherapy for acute lymphocytic leukemia.
A)C91.00,T45.1x5A,C91.00
B)T45.1x5A,D70.1,R50.81,C91.00
C)D70.1,T45.1x5A,R50.81,C91.00
D)R50.81,T45.1x5A,D70.1,C91.00
Q2) A patient has a malignancy in the right upper outer quadrant of the breast.There is another primary malignancy in the right lower outer quadrant.She will be scheduled for a mastectomy soon.
A)C50.421,C50.422
B)C50.411,C50.511
C)C50.811
D)C50.821,C79.81
Q3) CDC stands for ____________________.
Q4) Preventive or ____________________ surgery is performed to remove tissue that has the potential to become cancerous.
Q5) What is the abbreviation for non-small-cell lung cancer?
Q6) Lymphangioendothelioma: __________
Q7) What is the abbreviation for small-cell lung cancer?
Q8) Benign neoplasm of Cowper's gland: __________
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Chapter 12: Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming
Organs and Certain Disorders Involving the Immune
Mechanism
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71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient has anemia,thrombocytopenia,and neutropenia: __________
Q2) When looking up anemic conditions in the code book,you should look up ____.
A)anemia first and then the various subterms
B)the type of anemia first and then "anemia" as a subterm C)the symptoms that have presented D)none of the above
Q3) What is the function of leukocytes (WBCs)?
Q4) Platelets are also called thrombocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pancytopenia due to myelodysplastic syndrome.
A)D46.9
B)D61.818,D46.9
C)D46.9,D61.818
D)D46.Z
Q7) Anemia due to gastric cancer: __________ Page 15
Q6) A(n)____________________ is a blood test used to evaluate your overall health and detects a variety of disorders.
Q8) ____________________ is a breakdown in the clotting process of the blood.
Q9) Familial erythrocytosis: __________
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Chapter 13: Endocrine, nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) TLS stands for ____________________.
Q2) An adult patient was seen in the clinic for dietary counseling for dysmetabolic syndrome X.The patient is obese with a BMI of 35 and has hypertriglyceridemia and hypertension.
A)Z71.3,E88.81,E66.9,Z68.35,E78.1,I10
B)Z71.9,E88.81,E66.3,Z68.35,E78.1,I10
C)E88.81,E66.9,Z68.35,E78.1,I10,Z71.3
D)E66.9,E88.81,Z68.35,E78.1,I10,Z71.3
Q3) A patient is admitted for care of a diabetic ulcer on the left midfoot.The patient also has chronic kidney disease,stage 3,resulting from diabetes.
A)E13.621,E13.22,N18.9
B)E10.621,E10.22,N18.3
C)E11.621,L97.429,E11.22,N18.3
D)E11.621,L97.429,E11.22,N18.9
Q4) When blood sugar becomes abnormally high,this is called ____.
A)hyperglycemia
B)hypoglycemia
C)hyperpituitarism
D)hypopituitarism
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Chapter 14: Mental, behavioral, and Neuro developmental Disorders
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old man was brought to the ER by a friend who stated that the patient had been acting bizarrely.The patient has been irritable,pacing the apartment,and talking nonstop.He was admitted to the psychiatric unit for management of his manic symptoms.
Final Diagnosis: Bipolar affective disease.
Severe manic phase.Recurrent episode with psychosis.
A)F31.2
B)F31.73
C)F31.74
D)F31.10
Q2) The chronic,exaggerated worry,tension,and irritability that may be without cause or is more intense than in some situations
A)Sexual problems
B)PTSD-posttraumatic stress disorder
C)Phobias
D)Panic disorder
E)Generalized anxiety disorder
F)Mood disorders
G)Schizophrenia
Q3) Korsakoff's alcoholic psychosis due to alcohol dependence: __________
Page 18
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Chapter 15: Diseases of the Nervous System, diseases of
the Eye and Adnexa, and Diseases of the Ear and Mastoid Process
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with trigeminal neuralgia and a history of migraine headaches is admitted for an open rhizotomy.A day after the procedure,the patient develops a severe headache diagnosed as a migraine.
A)G50.0,G43.901,008M3ZZ
B)G50.0,G43.909,008K0ZZ
C)G50.0,G43.901,008K0ZZ
D)G50.0,G43.909,008K4ZZ
Q2) Only the brain is covered by bone;the spinal cord is not.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patient comes to the ER with high fever and headache.Meningitis is suspected.A lumbar puncture is performed and reveals bacterial meningitis.
A)G00.8,009Y00X
B)G00.8,009Y0ZX
C)G00.9,R51,R50.9,009U3ZX
D)G00.9,009U3ZX
Q4) The central nervous system is made up of the ____________________ and ____________________.
Q5) Arcus senilis of the left eye: __________ Page 19
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Page 20
Chapter 16: Diseases of the Circulatory System
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65 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient was admitted to have a drug-eluting stent inserted into the left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD)for coronary atherosclerosis.Procedure was performed percutaneously.
A)I25.110,027144Z
B)I25.10,027034Z
C)I25.10,027134Z
D)I25.110,027034Z
Q2) Enlarged twisted veins that usually occur in legs and may require surgical treatment are called ____________________.
Q3) Family history of stroke
A)Z82.3
B)Z94.1
C)Z95.811
D)Z95.9
E)Z76.82
Q4) Stenosis of bilateral carotid arteries: __________
Q5) The normal heart rate of a healthy adult is between _____ and _____ beats per minute.
Q6) Prinzmetal angina: __________
Q7) MI is the abbreviation for ____________________.
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Chapter 17: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) History of tobacco use
A)Z82.5
B)Z83.6
C)Z87.891
D)Z85.22
E)Z48.24
F)Z77.090
G)Z93.0
Q2) What is the definition of infection?
Q3) Patient is admitted with shortness of breath and fever that has been present for 2 to 3 weeks and has gotten progressively worse.CT scan showed evidence of bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP).Patient was started on prednisone and discharged when symptoms had resolved.
Final Diagnoses: BOOP.
A)J84.89
B)J84.03
C)J84.2
D)J84.81
Q4) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis: __________
Q5) Retropharyngeal abscess: __________
22
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Chapter 18: Diseases of the Digestive System
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lingua villosa nigra: __________
Q2) Patient with known alcoholic cirrhosis of the liver is admitted with ascites and acute spontaneous bacterial peritonitis due to Staphylococcus aureus.Patient is a recovering alcoholic who has been in remission for 2 years.
A)K65.9,K70.30,F10.21,B95.62
B)K65.2,K70.31,F10.20,B95.61
C)K65.2,K70.31,F10.21,B95.61
D)K65.9,K70.31,F10.20,B95.62
Q3) Symptoms of gastric ulcers may include pain when eating,vomiting,and tarry bowel movements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the term for degeneration of the liver tissue that causes blockage of the blood through the liver and inhibits its function?
Q5) Name one purpose of the small intestine.
Q6) Assign the code for choledochoduodenal fistula: __________
Q7) What are the three parts of the small intestine?
Q8) What is the abbreviation for esophagogastroduodenoscopy?
Q9) What is mastication?
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What usually causes hives?
Q2) The functions of the integumentary system include all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A)protection
B)temperature regulation
C)sensory reception
D)vitamin A synthesis
Q3) The skin is composed of ____________________ layers.
Q4) Dermatitis from gold ring: __________
Q5) Diseases of the skin and subcutaneous tissues are coded ____.
A)G00-G99
B)M00-M99
C)L00-L99
D)C00-D49
Q6) The organism responsible for a furuncle is Staphylococcus,which enters the body through ____________________.
Q7) What are the three types of glands located in the skin?
Q8) What are two accessory organs of the integumentary system?
Q9) What is excisional debridement?
Q10) Nail horn,left thumb: __________
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spinal fusion is the creation of a solid bone bridge between two or more adjacent vertebrae to create stability between levels of the spine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Subacute osteomyelitis of sacrum with decubitus sacral ulcer,stage
3.Staphylococcus aureus is the causative organism.
A)M46.28,L89.153,B95.61
B)M46.28,L89.153,B95.62
C)B95.61,M46.28,L89.153
D)M46.27,L89.152,B95.62
Q3) The position of the body or an organ relative to the vertical axis of the body
A)Medial
B)Cranial
C)Ventral
D)Superior
E)Caudal
F)Dorsal
G)Lateral
Q4) What does the abbreviation SLE stand for?
Page 25
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient has ESRD on dialysis with a M,W,F schedule but has been noncompliant with hemodialysis sessions.Patient admitted for fluid overload,which was treated with multiple sessions of dialysis.Patient takes medication for hyperparathyroidism of renal origin.
A)E87.70,N18.6,N25.81,Z91.15,5A1D60Z
B)N18.6,E87.70,Z99.2,N25.81,5A1D60Z
C)N18.6,Z91.15,E21.1,5A1D00Z
D)Z99.2,N18.6,N21.1,5A1D00Z
Q2) Vesicoperineal fistula: __________
Q3) Leukoplakia of vulva: __________
Q4) A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute renal failure due to dehydration.The patient is treated with IV fluids.
A)E86.0,N18.6
B)E87.1,N17.9
C)N17.9,E86.0
D)N17.9,E87.1
Q5) Benign hyperplasia of the prostate with nocturia times three: __________
Q6) Male patient with intrinsic sphincter deficiency with urinary stress incontinence with insertion of artificial bladder neck sphincter via open approach: __________
Page 26
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Chapter 22: Pregnancy, childbirth, and the Puerperium
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted at 37 weeks in labor,and she delivers a 7-pound baby boy.After vaginal delivery,she hemorrhages.The physician documents that the hemorrhage is due to a retained placenta accreta.
A)O43.213,Z38.00,O72,Z3A.37,10E0XZZ
B)O80,O72.0,Z37.0,Z3A.37,10E0XZZ
C)Z38.00,O72.0,Z3A.37,10E0XZZ
D)O72.0,O43.213,Z37.0,Z3A.37,10E0XZZ
Q2) The process of milk production is ______________________.
Q3) A 40-week primigravida patient comes to the hospital in labor.Labor progresses,and she delivers a normal 7.6-pound infant.An episiotomy is performed and repaired.The patient had a UTI during the fourth month of pregnancy that was treated with antibiotics.She suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum early in the pregnancy.She is discharged on day 2 with no complaints.What codes are applicable? __________
Q4) The organs of the female reproductive system include the ovaries,fallopian tubes,uterus,vagina,and cervix.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Missed abortion: __________
Q6) Mother with mastitis due to nursing.Delivered 8 days ago: __________
Page 27
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Chapter 23: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal
Period and Congenital Malformations, deformations, and
Chromosomal Abnormalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) A baby is born via C-section.Apgars are 5 at 1 minute and 7 at 5 minutes.Because of the mother's fever during labor,sepsis workup is performed.Antibiotics are discontinued when cultures return negative and sepsis is ruled out.What codes are applicable?
Q2) What is the most common treatment for infants with moderate jaundice?
Q3) Cesarean delivery at term of baby;hypothermia (not environmental)noted on admit to nursery: __________
Q4) A code from category A41,septicemia,should not be used on a(n)____ record. A)newborn
B)child
C)teenager
D)adult
Q5) Vaginal delivery at term of baby with fractured right clavicle due to birth injury:
Q6) Achondroplasia: __________
Q7) Congenital conditions are always present,well defined,and diagnosed at birth. A)True B)False Page 28
Q9) Congenital pigeon chest: __________
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Chapter 24: Injuries and Certain Other Consequences of
External Cases and External Causes of Morbidity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In ICD-10-CM,if a fracture is not specified,it is coded to displaced.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When air or gas bubbles get into the bloodstream,what is one thing that can happen?
Q3) The patient was the driver in an ATV rollover.The patient was intoxicated at the time of the accident and was not wearing a helmet.There was no LOC.CT of the head revealed a small subdural hemorrhage.The patient was observed closely for any change in mental status,and neurology was consulted.There was no need for operative intervention at this time.The patient was stable and was given instructions for follow-up.
A)S06.300A,F10.129,V86.59xA
B)S06.5x0D,F10.129,V86.53xD
C)S06.5x0S,F10.129,V86.59xS
D)S06.5x0A,F10.129,V86.59xA
Q4) An injury to the brain that results from a significant blow to the head is called a(n)____________________.
Q5) A(n)____________________ fracture causes injury to the surrounding tissues.
Q6) Name some diagnostic tools used to diagnose injuries.
Q7) Sprained left ankle,initial encounter: __________
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Chapter 25: Burns, Adverse Effects, and Poisonings
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43724
Sample Questions
Q1) Patient admitted for a suicide attempt with multiple medications,including Naproxen,Keppra,and acetaminophen mixed with beer.Patient was somnolent on arrival in the ER.
A)T39.312S,T42.6x2S,T51.0x2S
B)T39.312A,T42.6x2A,T39.1x2A,T51.0x2A,R40.0
C)R40.0,T39.312A,T42.6x2A,T51.0x2A
D)T39.312D,T42.6x2D,T51.0x2D,R40.0
Q2) Battered spouse syndrome: Confirmed abuse by her husband: __________
Q3) A patient has SIRS due to an accidental burn from the flames from a single-family house fire.The patient has full-thickness skin loss burns of the legs (11%)with second-degree burns of the trunk (4%).
A)T24.302A,T24.301A,T21.20xA,R65.10,T31.11,X00.0xxA,Y92.019
B)T24.302S,T24.301S,T21.20xS,R65.11,T31.11,X00.0xxS,Y92.019
C)T24.302D,T24.301D,T21.20xD,R65.10,T31.11,X00.0xxD,Y92.019
D)T24.302A,T21.20xA,R65.11,T31.11,X00.0xxA,Y92.019
Q4) Patient has itching due to oxycodone,which was taken as prescribed: __________
Q5) What are the four major types of abuse?
Q6) First- and second-degree burn of face due to gas flame from stove in kitchen at patient's house while cooking: __________
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Chapter 26: Complications of Surgical and Medical Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43725
Sample Questions
Q1) A growth made up of a bundle of nerve fibers
A)Malunion
B)Nonunion
C)Neuroma
D)Extravasation
E)Contracture
F)Necrosis
Q2) Patient had an outpatient ERCP for extraction of a common bile duct stone.The patient developed acute abdominal pain and was admitted to rule out post ERCP pancreatitis.
Impression: Post ERCP pancreatitis.
A)K91.89,K80.50,K85.90,Y83.8,0FC98ZZ
B)K86.1,K80.51,K91.89,Y83.9,0FC98ZZ
C)K85.10,K80.60,Y84.9,0F998ZZ
D)K85.90,K80.61,Y84.8,0F798ZZ
Q3) Codes under subcategory T86 are used ____.
A)only for complications of transplanted organs
B)only for rejection of transplanted organs
C)for both complications and rejection of transplanted organs
D)for none of the above reasons
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