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Advanced Cardiopulmonary Care is an in-depth course designed to enhance students understanding and clinical proficiency in the management of complex cardiac and pulmonary conditions. Focusing on the integration of advanced assessment tools, evidence-based interventions, and critical decision-making strategies, the course covers concepts such as advanced airway management, hemodynamic monitoring, interpretation of diagnostic tests, and the use of pharmacological and non-pharmacological therapies. Students will engage with real-world case studies, simulations, and collaborative learning activities to develop the skills necessary for diagnosing and treating critically ill patients in acute and chronic care settings.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Cardiopulmonary Pharmacology 3rd Edition by Bruce J. Colbert
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15 Chapters
833 Verified Questions
833 Flashcards
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell that becomes less responsive to a drug after exposure over time is a condition called:
A)Tolerance.
B)Desensitization.
C)Dependence.
D)Low therapeutic index.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following terms explains why a patient may require an increased amount of a drug after repeated use to produce the same therapeutic effect?
A)Dependence
B)Selectivity
C)Tachyphylaxis
D)Tolerance
Answer: D
Q3) Biotransformation occurs when drugs are converted to a ____________ form for elimination.
Answer: water-soluble
Q4) Drugs administered directly to the lungs are given via the ____________ route. Answer: inhalation route
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The method used to convert between the English and metric systems is referred to as the factor-label method.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) You receive an order for 16 gtt of Mucomyst.How many milliliters of drug would you be administering to the patient?
A)0.5 ml
B)1 ml
C)1.5 ml
D)5 ml

Answer: B
Q3) The International System is the system of measure used in health care. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The metric system of measurement is based on the __________________. Answer: powers of 10
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following explain the function of the somatic nervous system except:
A)Skeletal muscle movement.
B)Conduction of sensory information.
C)Involuntary control.
D)Voluntary movement.
Answer: C
Q2) The action of norepinephrine is terminated by a process called ________________.
Answer: reuptake
Q3) A parasympatholytic drug would cause a/an ____________in heart rate and cause the bronchial airways to ____________.
Answer: increase/dilate
Q4) Agents that inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase cause which of the following effects on the PNS?
A)Bradycardia and hypotension
B)Overstimulation of the sympathetic branch of the PNS
C)None
D)Bronchodilation
Answer: A
Answer: vasoconstriction/bronchodilation Page 5
Q5) Sympathomimetic drugs are used for ________________ or
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nebulizer that is most efficient in reducing the amount of wasted medication during exhalation is:
A)An MDI.
B)An SVN.
C)A BAN.
D)A DPI.
Q2) Mucolytics can be administered by nebulization and by ____________.
Q3) A nebulizer should be placed ________________ back from the patient wye of the ventilator circuit.
Q4) Which of the following factors will improve aerosol particle size and increase aerosol delivery to the patient?
I)Flow rates of 6-8 liters/min
II)A dead volume of 3-6 ml
III)A fill volume of 4-6 ml
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I,II and III
Q5) What are the advantages of SVNs?
Q6) Aerosol particles are measured in ________________.
Page 7
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapeutic range for theophylline is ____________.
Q2) Selective beta<sub>2</sub>-agonists that are used for continuous nebulization during severe acute episodes of bronchospasm include ____________ and
Q3) Which of the following anticholinergic bronchodilators is available as a dry powder inhaler?
A)Ipratropium bromide
B)Atropine sulfate
C)Combivent
D)Tiotropium bromide
Q4) At the synapse where the neuron meets the muscle,sympathetic fibers release acetylcholine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Methylxanthines are believed to cause bronchodilation by which of the following mechanisms?
A)Inhibiting phosphodiesterase
B)Decreasing cyclic AMP
C)Increasing cyclic GMP
D)Inhibiting COMP
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering breathing treatments to patients who are on sodium-restricted diets,the diluent of choice is ________________.
Q2) Repeated,prolonged exposure to irritants causes all of the following changes to occur in the airways except:
A)Increased size of bronchial glands.
B)Decreased ciliary action.
C)Increased number of bronchial glands.
D)Decreased mucous production.
Q3) The role of goblet cells and clara cells is to produce about 100 ml of mucus each day.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the benefit and risk of direct instillation of normal saline into the respiratory tract.
Q5) Antitussives are indicated for which of the following conditions?
A)Dry,hacking,nonproductive cough
B)Accumulation of thick secretions leading to shortness of breath
C)Fulminant pulmonary edema
D)Bronchospasm accompanied by frequent cough
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by immunotherapy?
Q2) Drugs that are time dependent and should not be used for acute reversal of bronchospasm include which of the following:
I)Nedocromil
II)Montelukast
III)Fluticasone
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I,II,and III
Q3) Which of the following anti-inflammatory agents are available in MDI form?
I)Hydrocortisone
II)Flunisolide
III)Triamcinolone
IV)Solu-Medrol
A)I and II
B)II,III,and IV
C)II and III
D)I,II,and IV
Q4) The most commonly produced immune system antibody is the

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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug used to treat postherpetic neuralgia is:
A)Zanamivir
B)Amantadine
C)Acyclovir
D)Virazole
Q2) An antifungal used to treat candida albicans is:
A)Azole.
B)Diflucan.
C)Monistat.
D)Nystatin.
Q3) A patient is admitted with respiratory infection associated with cystic fibrosis.He is to receive an aerosolized antimicrobial.Which of the following medications would you recommend?
A)Ampicillin
B)Streptomycin
C)Ribavirin
D)Tobramycin
Q4) How do microorganisms develop resistance to anti-infective agents?
Q5) ________________ and ________________ are classified as protein-synthesis inhibitors.
11
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common supraventricular arrhythmia is:
A)Torsade de pointes.
B)Atrial fibrillation.
C)Premature ventricular contractions.
D)Ventricular fibrillation.
Q2) In heart failure,all of the following conditions can occur except:
A)Enlarged heart.
B)Ankle edema.
C)Increased fluid removal by the kidneys.
D)Pulmonary edema.
Q3) The QRS complex represents repolarization of the ventricles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Diabetic care includes monitoring of all of the following except:
A)Glucose levels.
B)Potassium levels.
C)Triglycerides.
D)Cholesterol.
Q5) When electrical stimulation occurs outside the normal conduction pathway,it is referred to as ________________.
12
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Q1) Patients in _______________ blood pressure should be considered for two-drug combination therapy.
Q2) The biggest complication from the administration of fibrinolytics is
Q3) Diuretics work by not allowing ________________ to be reabsorbed back into the peritubular capillary system.
Q4) Cardiotonic agents cause all of the following effects to occur except:
A)Vasoconstriction.
B)Increased cardiac contraction.
C)Increased heart rate.
D)Increased blood pressure.
Q5) Hypertension in the majority of patients that occurs for unknown causes is referred to as ________________.
Q6) The constriction of arterioles causes an increase in afterload and systemic vascular resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q7) When injury or trauma occurs to a blood vessel,the clotting mechanism begins with the formation of ________________.
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Q8) When is hypertension considered an emergency,and how should it be treated?

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Sample Questions
Q1) A local anesthetic works by binding to a membrane site and preventing the neurons from ________________.
Q2) Local anesthetic medications are divided chemically into which of the following types?
I.Caine
II.Amide
III.Ester
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I,II,and III
Q3) All of the following statements concerning Precedex are true except:
A)Precedex can be used for sedation of mechanically ventilated patients.
B)Precedex has a lower incidence of delirium.
C)Precedex stimulates central alpha<sub>2</sub> receptors.
D)Precedex has a high incidence of causing hypertension.
Q4) Inhaled anesthetics are used to rapidly induce a state of unconsciousness in a predictable way.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical responses to conditions causing acute hypoxemia include all the following except:
A)Tachycardia.
B)Tachypnea.
C)Polycythemia.
D)Hypertension.
Q2) Oxygen-induced hypercapnia can be avoided in COPD patients by maintaining their PaO<sub>2</sub> in which of the following ranges?
A)40 to 50 mmHg
B)50 to 60 mmHg
C)60 to 70 mmHg
D)70 to 80 mmHg
Q3) ________________ oxygen systems provide enough flow to meet all of the patient's ventilatory demands.
Q4) The body's response to a condition of hypoxemia causes _______________ and ________________ vasodilation,and ________________ vasoconstriction.
Q5) The inhalation of helium does not cause any reaction within the body.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Inhaled corticosteroids should always be administered with a
Q2) Agents that are most effective for long-term control of asthma are methylxanthines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The major causative factor in chronic bronchitis is ________________.
Q4) Benefits of nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)include all except which of the following?
A)Carcinogens are not being delivered to the lungs.
B)NRT can be adjusted to substitute partially for inhaled nicotine.
C)NRT decreases the cravings when the smoker's blood levels of nicotine drop.
D)Blood levels of nicotine from NRT are not as consistent as with smoking.
Q5) Emphysemic patients exhale through ______________ to maintain airway pressure and prevent airway collapse.
Q6) Alpha<sub>1</sub>-antitrypsin augmentation therapy is administered on a ________________ basis.
Page 16
Q7) Why is it recommended to use nicotine replacements with Zyban?
Q8) Leukotriene inhibitors have no established use in patients with
Q9) The most effective agents for long-term control of asthma are ______________.
Q10) The primary cause of COPD is ________________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ________________ provides culture results from a facility's laboratory,including types of organisms,number of strains,and a comparison of the most effective antibiotics.
Q2) Vancomycin is reserved for resistant or severe infections and is not prescribed for routine antimicrobial treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first-line empiric antibiotic choice for treatment of community-acquired pneumonia is penicillin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Treatment of bronchiolitis with ribavirin should be reserved for severely ill patients with serious underlying disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Antimicrobial regimens for sinusitis should continue _______________days after signs and symptoms improve.
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Q6) Antibiotics that should be avoided in children are ________________ and

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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations would digoxin be administered?
A)Atrial fibrillation
B)Symptomatic bradycardia
C)Ventricular fibrillation
D)Pulseless arrest
Q2) All except which of the following drugs can be safely administered via the endotracheal tube during a resuscitation?
A)Atropine
B)Epinephrine
C)Oxygen
D)Sodium bicarbonate
Q3) Which of the following drugs would not be considered for an asthmatic patient who requires treatment for atrial fibrillation?
A)Atenolol
B)Esmolol
C)Metoprolol
D)Propranolol
Q4) The term that describes a heart rate in the normal range when tachycardia would be expected is _______________.
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