Advanced Blood Bank Procedures Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course offers an in-depth exploration of advanced techniques and protocols in blood banking, focusing on the theory and practice of complex pretransfusion testing, antibody identification, and component preparation. Students will develop skills in the interpretation of serological findings, troubleshooting transfusion reactions, and investigating hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn. Emphasis is placed on quality assurance, regulatory requirements, and the application of molecular methods in immunohematology, preparing students for leadership roles in transfusion service laboratories.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Blood Banking and Transfusion Practices 3rd Edition by Kathy
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16 Chapters
465 Verified Questions
465 Flashcards
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D.
Chapter 1: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38804
Sample Questions
Q1) In a lymphocytotoxicity test,cells that take on the dye:
A)do not recognize a human leukocyte antigen.
B)recognize a red cell antibody.
C)are not affected by complement.
D)are recognized by a specific antibody.
Answer: D
Q2) In order to enhance the reaction of an antibody in vitro,it may be necessary to adjust which of the following?
A)Temperature above 37° C
B)Speed of the centrifuge above the calibrated settings
C)Increase the concentration of red cells in the test system
D)Increase the incubation time in the incubator
Answer: D
Q3) Opsonization is a term to describe what process?
A)Lysis of cells
B)Binding to cells or antigens
C)Ingestion of cells
D)Phagocytosis
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rouleaux is a false-positive reaction that would not likely be observed during which of the following tests?
A)Immediate spin antibody screen
B)Weak D test
C)Reverse typing in the ABO test
D)ABO forward typing
Answer: B
Q2) Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patient's red cells
A)Panel cells
B)Screening cells
C)A<sub>1 </sub>and B cells
D)ABO antisera
E)Lectins
Answer: D
Q3) Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in:
A)vitro.
B)vivo.
C)laboratory animals.
D)humans.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most blood group systems are inherited as:
A)autosomal recessive.
B)autosomal dominant.
C)sex-linked recessive.
D)autosomal codominant.
Answer: D
Q2) Of the following markers that can be used to test for paternity,which marker provides the most useful statistical value?
A)Human leukocyte antigen typing
B)D antigens
C)ABO system antigens
D)The Kidd system (Jk<sup>a</sup>,Jk<sup>b</sup>)
Answer: A
Q3) Parents who are both phenotyped as group A cannot have a group O child.
A)True
B)False
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Abo and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The subgroup of A with the least amount of A antigen is:
A)A<sub>3</sub>.
B)A<sub>x</sub>.
C)A<sub>2</sub>.
D)A<sub>el</sub>.
Q2) Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which class?
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgE
D)IgG
Q3) What substances are found in the saliva of a group A person who also inherited the secretor gene?
A)A,H
B)H
C)A,Se
D)A,B,H
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Chapter 5: Rh Blood Group System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-D reagent and the Rh control were tested with red cells.Both tests were 2+ agglutination reactions.What is the interpretation of the results?
A)D-positive
B)D-negative
C)Unable to interpret without further testing
D)D-positive if the sample is from a patient
Q2) Most Rh system antibodies are of which immunoglobulin class?
A)IgM
B)IgG
C)IgA
D)IgE
Q3) The inheritance of the Rh antigens are:
A)X-linked recessive.
B)X-linked dominant.
C)autosomal recessive.
D)codominant.
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) System associated with resistance to malaria
A)Cartwright
B)MNSs
C)Kidd
D)Vel
E)Xg<sup>a</sup>
F)Sd<sup>a</sup> antigen
G)Chido/Rodgers
H)Kell
I)Duffy
Q2) System associated with glycophorin A and B
A)Cartwright
B)MNSs
C)Kidd
D)Vel
E)Xg<sup>a</sup>
F)Sd<sup>a</sup> antigen
G)Chido/Rodgers
H)Kell
I)Duffy
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Chapter 7: Antibody Detection and Identification
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All screening cells 2+ at antihuman globulin phase,DAT positive,IgG 2+
A)Alloantibody,IgG
B)Alloantibody,IgM
C)Autoantibody,IgM
D)Autoantibody or transfusion reaction,IgG
Q2) Which of the following medications is most likely to cause the production of autoantibodies?
A)Tetracycline
B)Cephalothin
C)Methyldopa
D)Acutane
Q3) In the process of identifying an antibody,the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel at the immediate spin phase.These reactions disappeared following incubation at 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C and the antihuman globulin phase of testing.The antibody most likely to be responsible is:
A)anti-E.
B)anti-D.
C)anti-I.
D)anti-Le<sup>a</sup>.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Compatibility Testing
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your blood bank mistakenly released a D-positive red blood cell unit that subsequently transfused to a patient who was typed as D-negative.The patient had no history of a previous transfusion or pregnancy.Antibody detection testing was negative in pretransfusion testing.The crossmatch in this case was:
A)compatible at immediate spin.
B)incompatible at immediate spin only.
C)not necessary to perform.
D)incompatible at antihuman globulin only.
Q2) How many units of red blood cells are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70-kg nonbleeding adult man from 24% to 30%?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q3) To what does the abbreviation "MSBOS" refer?
A)Monthly surgical blood order schedule
B)Minimum surgical blood order staffing
C)Maximum blood order schedule
D)Minimum safe blood order schedule
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Chapter 9: Blood Bank Automation for Transfusion Services
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before implementing new automation technology into the transfusion service setting,which of the following is required?
A)Validation
B)Training
C)Written procedures
D)All of the above
Q2) A smooth layer of cells in the bottom of the well is interpreted as a/an _____ reaction when the solid phase testing is completed for the antiglobulin test:
A)positive
B)negative
C)indeterminate
D)mixed field
Q3) A negative reaction in the MTS Gel test would appear as a:
A)pellet of cells at the bottom of the column.
B)layer of cells at the top of the column.
C)cells evenly distributed throughout the column.
D)cells distributed only in the bottom half of the column.
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11
Chapter 10: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of only male donors as a source of plasma for transfusion is a method to reduce the risk of:
A)allergic reactions
B)circulatory overload.
C)TRALI.
D)febrile reactions.
Q2) Ten days after the transfusion of 2 units,a patient had a 2 g/dL drop in hemoglobin and was slightly jaundiced.No evidence of bleeding was found.What tests would be helpful in determining whether the patient is experiencing a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A)Culture the donor unit.
B)Compare pretransfusion and posttransfusion ABO and D typing.
C)Perform hepatitis B surface antigen test.
D)Perform an antibody screen on the current posttransfusion sample.
Q3) A hemolytic reaction to red blood cells can be caused by which of the following nonimmune mechanisms?
A)Incompatible intravenous solutions mixed with the unit
B)Improper storage of the unit
C)Bacterial contamination of the unit
D)All of the above
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38814
Sample Questions
Q1) What immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta?
A)IgA
B)IgG
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q2) Select the true statement regarding ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.
A)It is frequently seen in group A mothers with group O infants.
B)It cannot occur during prima gravida (first pregnancy).
C)Bilirubin levels often exceed 15 mg/dL in the affected infants.
D)The frequency of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is greater than Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.
Q3) Amniotic fluid analysis showed a marked increase into zone III of the Liley graph.Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratios indicated that the fetal lungs were not mature.Select the most appropriate decision regarding medical intervention.
A)No immediate need for intervention
B)An intrauterine transfusion
C)Delivery by cesarean section
D)None of the above
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38815
Sample Questions
Q1) 65-year-old woman taking sleep medication at night
A)Acceptable donors
B)Temporarily deferred
C)Permanently deferred
D)Indefinite deferral
Q2) A 21-year-old college student wishes to participate in the "double red" program at the local blood center by donating red blood cells collected by apheresis.What is the minimum height and weight requirement that she must meet?
A)Height: 5'1",130 lb
B)Height: 5'3",125 lb
C)Height: 5'5",150 lb
D)no height requirement,110 lb
Q3) 19-year-old woman who recently finished the three-part vaccination for hepatitis B surface antigen after starting a volunteer position at the hospital
A)Acceptable donors
B)Temporarily deferred
C)Permanently deferred
D)Indefinite deferral
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Chapter 13: Testing of Donor Blood
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If clinically significant red cell antibodies are found in donor units:
A)platelet and fresh frozen plasma cannot be transfused.
B)red blood cells can be used if the antibody interpretation is indicated on the label.
C)the unit must be discarded and the donor permanently deferred.
D)red blood cells must be washed before transfusion.
Q2) A thorough donor history is the only way to prevent:
A)syphilis.
B)human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I.
C)cytomegalovirus.
D)malaria.
Q3) Chagas disease is caused by:
A)Treponema pallidum.
B)Trypanosoma cruzi.
C)cytomegalovirus.
D)Plasmodium vivax.
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15
Chapter 14: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Irradiated
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
Q2) Deglycerolized
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
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16
Chapter 15: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used in the treatment of hemophilia B?
A)Factor VIII concentrate
B)Factor XIII concentrate
C)Platelets
D)Fresh frozen plasma
Q2) Avoid graft-versus-host disease
A)Cryoprecipitated AHF
B)Fresh frozen plasma
C)Red blood cells
D)Platelets
E)Leuko-reduced blood components
F)Washed red blood cells
G)Albumin/plasma protein fraction
H)Factor concentrates
I)Plasma,cryoprecipitate reduced
J)Irradiated blood products
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17
Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood
Industry and Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38819
Sample Questions
Q1) A laboratory technologist decided she would like to bring her lab coat home for laundering because it had too many wrinkles when it was returned by the laboratory's laundry service.Is this acceptable?
A)Yes,if she uses 10% bleach
B)Yes,if she clears it with her supervisor
C)Yes,as long as she removes the coat and does not wear it home
D)No,because the laboratory is a biosafety level 2,and lab coats may not be removed
Q2) Personal protective equipment includes:
A)safety glasses.
B)splash barriers.
C)masks.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following organizations are involved in the regulation of blood banks?
A)The Joint Commission
B)AABB
C)College of American Pathologists
D)Food and Drug Administration
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