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Advanced Biological Psychology Exam Questions - 2642 Verified Questions

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Advanced Biological Psychology

Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Advanced Biological Psychology explores the complex relationships between biological processes and psychological functions. This course examines the structure and function of the nervous system, neurochemical communication, and the biological bases of behavior, cognition, and emotion. Emphasis is placed on current research in neurobiology, psychopharmacology, neurodevelopment, and the neurobiological underpinnings of mental health disorders. Students will engage with topics such as neural plasticity, brain imaging techniques, and the effects of genetics and environment on psychological processes, developing a nuanced understanding of how biological mechanisms influence behavior and mental processes.

Recommended Textbook

Discovering Behavioral Neuroscience An Introduction to Biological Psychology 4th Edition by Laura

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16 Chapters

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Chapter 1: What Is Behavioral Neuroscience?

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Sample Questions

Q1) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) requires

A) stronger magnets than those used in MRI.

B) the injection of radioactive substances into the participant.

C) larger numbers of gamma cameras than in MRI.

D) multiple images taken in a short period of time.

Answer: D

Q2) Microdialysis is used to

A) assess the chemicals present in a very small area of the brain.

B) apply chemicals directly to the brain.

C) produce lesions.

D) identify the function of a small area of the brain.

Answer: A

Q3) Examination of a body after death is known as

A) autopsy.

B) phrenology.

C) microdialysis.

D) optogenetics.

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The limbic system includes all of the following brain structures EXCEPT the A) hypothalamus.

B) thalamus.

C) cingulate cortex.

D) amygdala.

Answer: B

Q2) The first animals with simple nerve nets probably evolved about _________ years ago.

A) 4.5 billion

B) 3.5 billion

C) 700 million

D) 250 million

Answer: C

Q3) Alcohol interferes with skilled movements primarily through its action on the A) reticular formation.

B) hypothalamus.

C) cerebellum.

D) medulla.

Answer: C

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions of the

Cells of the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A von Economo neuron is a special type of _________ neuron

A) unipolar

B) bipolar

C) multipolar

D) sensory

Answer: B

Q2) While Dr. Jackson is recording the activity of a squid axon, he finds that a larger depolarizing shock is necessary on occasion in order to produce a new action potential. What is the most likely explanation for Dr. Jackson's observations?

A) The squid axon is such an artificial laboratory preparation, it cannot be expected to respond like an axon in a living animal.

B) Dr. Jackson's second shock probably occurs during a relative refractory period.

C) Dr. Jackson's second shock probably occurs during an absolute refractory period.

D) The squid axon in the laboratory does not have functioning sodium-potassium pumps.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Psychopharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following neurochemicals is a byproduct of the energy molecule ATP?

A) glycine

B) GABA

C) glutamate

D) adenosine

Q2) When the body's compensation for a drug cancels out most of the drug's effects, ________ occurs, and when the compensatory effects occur alone, ________ occurs.

Q3) Jessica is worried about the impact of her smoking habit on her health. After studying biological psychology, she knows that nicotine would have an effect on

A) her peripheral nervous system only.

B) her central nervous system only.

C) both her peripheral and central nervous systems.

D) neither her peripheral nor central nervous systems, because she only smokes a couple of cigarettes with friends during weekend parties.

Q4) Describe the action of MDMA (ecstasy) at the synapse, and relate this mode of action to the behavioral effects of the drug.

Q5) Alcohol produces its effects by acting on the ______ receptor.

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Chapter 5: Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) In humans, myelination is not complete until A) the beginning of the fetal period of prenatal development.

B) birth.

C) two years of age.

D) early adulthood.

Q2) ______ is programmed cell death.

A) Fasciculation

B) Apoptosis

C) Anterograde degeneration

D) Retrograde degeneration

Q3) Which of the following substances appears to enhance adult neurogenesis in rats?

A) antidepressant medications

B) sonic hedgehog

C) alcohol

D) marijuana

Q4) Studies of schizophrenia indicate that this condition correlates with

A) increased cortical thickening during young adulthood.

B) increased cortical thickening during adolescence.

C) abnormally large amounts of cortical thinning during young adulthood.

D) abnormally large amounts of cortical thinning during adolescence.

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Chapter 6: Vision

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the approximate ratio of on-center bipolar cells to off-center bipolar cells in the human retina?

A) 1:1

B) 2:1

C) 5:1

D) 10:1

Q2) Francesca is working on a project where she was tasked to design a hypothetical new visual system. She suggested that the visual system detect ultraviolet (UV) light. Why might this be a bad idea?

A) It passes through objects rather than reflecting from them.

B) It is too abundant at the surface of the earth.

C) Most UV light is blocked by the earth's atmosphere.

D) It travels at too slow a speed.

Q3) The process by which active photoreceptors and horizontal cells limit the activity of neighboring, less active cells is known as ________ inhibition.

A) lateral

B) proximal

C) rostral

D) caudal

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Chapter 7: Nonvisual Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most common form of synaesthesia seems to be

A) "hearing" motion of objects.

B) "seeing" sounds.

C) "tasting" sounds.

D) "hearing" different tastes.

Q2) Hairlike cilia extend from

A) inner hair cells only.

B) outer hair cells only.

C) both inner and outer hair cells.

D) neither inner nor outer hair cells.

Q3) The range of human hearing

A) is the same as all other mammals.

B) is similar to many animals but is unique to our species.

C) is the same as all other animals, with the exception of mice and bats.

D) covers a much narrower spectrum than other mammals.

Q4) Pain information travels to the brain along

A) Alpha-alpha fibers and C fibers.

B) Alpha-beta fibers and C fibers.

C) A-delta fibers and C fibers.

D) C fibers only.

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Chapter 8: Movement

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Sample Questions

Q1) Intrafusal muscle fibers

A) are found in muscle spindles.

B) are responsible for muscle contractions.

C) provide feedback regarding muscle contractions.

D) are located at the junction between a muscle and tendon.

Q2) Describe the basal ganglia and the role it plays in initiating movement.

Q3) Yesterday morning, Naomi accidentally touched a hot part of her toaster. She avoided major injury by quickly removing her hand thanks to A) reciprocal inhibition.

B) a monosynaptic reflex.

C) an extensor reflex.

D) a flexor reflex.

Q4) The basal ganglia inhibit the activity of the thalamus.

A)True

B)False

Q5) A single motor unit usually contains a motor neuron and A) one muscle fiber.

B) both fast- and slow-twitch fibers.

C) either fast-twitch or slow-twitch fibers but not a mixture of the two types.

D) a muscle spindle.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward

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Sample Questions

Q1) The "rule" that says humans should drink eight cups of plain water per day is

A) a good one, because that is about the right amount of fluids everybody needs.

B) not so good, because we need about twice that much fluid for good health and skin.

C) unnecessary, because we take in all the fluids we need from our foods.

D) unnecessary, because we take in about half the fluid we need from our foods.

Q2) Renin is released by the

A) pituitary glands in response to ADH.

B) kidneys in response to ADH.

C) pituitary glands in response to angiotensin II.

D) kidneys in response to angiotensin II.

Q3) Adrian is at risk for heat stroke because

A) he is wearing heavy clothing and engaging in strenuous activity.

B) his pyrogens were released by disease-causing organisms.

C) his genetic predispositions cause him to sweat too much.

D) he has been drinking large quantities of fluid.

Q4) Under normal circumstances, the only energy source for the brain is glucose.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are the mechanisms for satiety?

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Chapter 10: Sexual Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The quantity of androgens produced by adult females is about _________ percent of the quantity produced by males.

A) 10

B) 25

C) 33

D) 50

Q2) _____ is associated with mobilization and vigilance, while _____ is associated with immobility without fear.

A) Vasopressin; oxytocin

B) Oxytocin; vasopressin

C) Testosterone; vasopressin

D) Oxytocin; testosterone

Q3) Secondary sex characteristics in humans develop

A) about six weeks after conception.

B) about three months after conception.

C) at birth.

D) at puberty.

Q4) Sexually dimorphic structures have been identified in the human brain.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Sleep and Waking

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Sample Questions

Q1) Great Aunt Mary has always been a "lark," getting up early, working busily during the day, and then going to bed relatively early. She recently had a slight stroke, and the only thing that seems different about her is that her normal periods of sleeping and waking have changed. Now, you never know when she will get up or when she will go to bed, and she is often up half the night but sleeping during the day. Given what you have learned about sleep and waking, which one of the following brain areas might have been affected by her stroke?

A) the rubrospinal tract

B) the retinohypothalamic pathway

C) the mesolimbicstriatal pathway

D) the thalamopituitary pathway

Q2) The body's internal "master clock" is

A) the pons.

B) the occipital cortex.

C) the thalamus

D) the suprachiasmatic nucleus.

Q3) Discuss the possible causes of and contributing factors to SIDS.

Q4) Describe the symptoms, prevalence, and treatments for major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern.

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Chapter 12: Learning and Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mossy fibers in the hippocampus connect

A) input from the rhinal cortex to the dentate gyrus.

B) the dentate gyrus and CA3.

C) CA3 and CA1.

D) CA1 and the hypothalamus.

Q2) Kayla is presenting a business plan to her bank, hoping to get a loan. As her stress levels increase, it is likely that her performance will A) continue to increase.

B) become steadily worse.

C) decrease at first, but after her stress reaches a certain point, she will overcome it enough to improve.

D) increase at first, but after her stress reaches a certain point, she will begin to perform more poorly.

Q3) Purkinje cells in the cerebellum receive direct input from A) mossy fibers and climbing fibers.

B) climbing fibers and parallel fibers.

C) mossy fibers and parallel fibers.

D) mossy, climbing, and parallel fibers.

Q4) Summarize the role of the amygdala in the classical conditioning of fear.

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Chapter 13: Cognition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ronald is experiencing reduced sensation and difficulty moving his right arm. His neurologist is likely to look for damage in which of the following places?

A) The sensory and motor cortical areas of the left hemisphere.

B) The sensory and motor cortical areas of the right hemisphere.

C) The sensory cortical areas of the right hemisphere and the motor cortical areas of the left hemisphere.

D) The sensory cortical areas of the left hemisphere and the motor cortical areas of the right hemisphere.

Q2) For most people, which part(s) of the brain contribute(s) to the interpretation of prosody?

A) the left hemisphere only.

B) the right hemisphere only.

C) the right hemisphere and the left orbitofrontal cortex.

D) the right hemisphere and both the right and left orbitofrontal cortices.

Q3) Describe the major features of dyslexia.

Q4) What are the major features of Wernicke's aphasia?

Q5) Summarize the language model proposed by Dronkers, Pinker, and Damasio.

Q6) Describe the brain structures associated with the valuation of choices.

Q7) Discuss the implications of lateralization on musical abilities and learning.

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Chapter 14: Emotion, Aggression, and Stress

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Yerkes-Dodson Law suggests that for simple tasks, _________ levels of arousal are associated with optimum performance.

A) moderate

B) low

C) greater

D) varying

Q2) Charles Darwin concluded that emotions must have evolved after studying the A) facial expressions of humans and other primates.

B) emotional behavior of insects.

C) genetic contributions to the autonomic nervous system.

D) varying emotional behaviors of animals found in the Galapagos Islands.

Q3) Living in a highly competitive environment, such as a prison,

A) does not affect testosterone levels in males.

B) may increase testosterone levels in males.

C) may decrease testosterone levels in males.

D) increases testosterone levels in submissive males but decreases testosterone levels in aggressive males.

Q4) Describe the lateralization of emotion in the cerebral cortex.

Q5) Summarize the components of an emotion.

Q6) Describe the strategies people use in emotion regulation.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A thrombosis is

A) a blockage resulting from material that doesn't move from its point of origin.

B) a blockage resulting from material that travels to smaller diameter blood vessels until it has to stop.

C) bleeding in the brain.

D) an area of dead neurons.

Q2) Paroxysmal depolarizing shifts are seen in the EEG of patients experiencing A) partial seizures.

B) tonic-clonic seizures.

C) absence seizures.

D) migraine headaches.

Q3) Tumors that are contained within their own membrane are unlikely to recur following removal are known as

A) infiltrating.

B) malignant.

C) benign.

D) metastatic.

Q4) Summarize the symptoms and treatment of HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND).

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Chapter 16: Psychopathology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Genetics appear to

A) predispose individuals to specific anxiety disorders.

B) predispose individuals to anxiety disorders in general but not to a specific type.

C) predispose individuals to some types of anxiety disorders but not all.

D) play no causal role in anxiety disorders.

Q2) Severe cases of OCD might respond positively to A) deep brain stimulation of the basal ganglia.

B) lesions of the globus pallidus (pallidotomy).

C) repeated transcranial magnet stimulation (rTMS).

D) ECT.

Q3) The concordance rate in identical twins for autism spectrum disorder is between _________ percent.

A) 10 and 17

B) 23 and 41

C) 53 and 65

D) 76 and 88

Q4) Discuss the correlations between brain activity and antisocial behavior.

Q5) Ellsworth has been diagnosed with ADHD. If his brain were to be examine, what sorts of changes would doctors likely find?

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