Advanced Assessment in Allied Health Question Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of advanced assessment techniques used within allied health professions. Students will develop critical skills in patient evaluation through advanced methods of history-taking, physical examination, and the integration of diagnostic tools. Emphasis is placed on clinical reasoning, evidence-based practice, and interprofessional collaboration, allowing students to interpret complex findings and make informed clinical decisions. The curriculum prepares allied health students to address diverse populations and complex health conditions across various clinical settings, equipping them with the expertise needed to excel in specialized roles.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations Assessment of Respiratory Disease 6th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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42 Chapters
580 Verified Questions
580 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interviewing technique called silence is used:
A) to prompt the patient to ask a question.
B)after a direct question.
C)after an open-ended question.
D)to allow the patient to review his/her history.
Answer: C
Q2) The physical setting for the interview should include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) minimize or prevent interruptions.
B)ensure privacy during discussions.
C)interviewer is the same sex as the patient to prevent bias.
D)be comfortable for the patient and interviewer.
Answer: C
Q3) To have the most productive interviewing session, the respiratory therapist must avoid all of the following types of verbal messages EXCEPT: A) confrontation.
B)giving advice.
C)using avoidance language.
D)distancing.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing an unconscious patient, you observe that her breathing becomes progressively faster and deeper and then progressively becomes slower and more shallow. After that, there is a period of apnea before the cycle begins again. This breathing pattern would be identified as:
A) Cheyne-Stokes.
B)tachypnea.
C)Kussmaul.
D)hyperventilation.
Answer: A
Q2) Your 50-year-old patient would be said to have hypotension when her:
A) blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg.
B)blood pressure is 85/55 mm Hg.
C)heart rate is 55 bpm.
D)pulse pressure is 40 mm Hg.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of the peak expiratory flow rate test EXCEPT:
A) it is effort dependent.
B)it is taken from the FVC test results.
C)it is taken from the MVV test results.
D)it assesses large upper airways.
Answer: C
Q2) Total lung capacity is composed of all of the following EXCEPT: A) IRV.
B)IC.
C)ERV.
D)RV.
Answer: A
Q3) Pulmonary function studies are done for all of the following measurements EXCEPT: A) the patient's carbon monoxide level.
B)lung volumes and capacities.
C)pulmonary diffusion capacity.
D)forced expiratory flow rates.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be a normal person's venous oxygen pressure (PaO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 35 to 45 mm Hg
B)45 to 80 mm Hg
C)80 to 100 mm Hg
D)100 to 120 mm Hg
Q2) Which of the following would be a normal person's arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 25 to 35 mm Hg
B)35 to 45 mm Hg
C)45 to 60 mm Hg
D)60 to 80 mm Hg
Q3) Which of the following would be found in a stable patient with longstanding obstructive lung disease?
A) Low bicarbonate level and low carbon dioxide level
B)Low bicarbonate level and high carbon dioxide level
C)High bicarbonate level and low carbon dioxide level
D)High bicarbonate level and high carbon dioxide level
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has a chronic respiratory disorder and vasoconstriction of her pulmonary vascular system. What is the chief control over this vasoconstriction?
A) Low PAO<sub>2</sub>
B)Low PaO<sub>2</sub>
C)High PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D)High pH
Q2) A sample of blood has been taken from a patient's pulmonary artery. What mixed venous oxygen saturation value (SvO<sub>2</sub>) would indicate that the patient is normal?
A) 40 mm Hg
B)95 mm Hg
C)75%
D)97%
Q3) When a sample of arterial blood is analyzed for the pressure of oxygen (PaO<sub>2</sub>) and carbon dioxide (PaCO<sub>2</sub>) the value comes from the:
A) blood plasma.
B)leukocytes.
C)hemoglobin.
D)erythrocytes.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be caused by:
1) hypokalemia.
2) intrinsic myocardial disease.
3) hypoxemia.
4) acidemia.
A)1
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be identified by which of the following?
1) There is no P wave.
2) The QRS is wide.
3) The QRS looks normal.
4) The heart rate is altered.
A)1
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) A PET/CT scan can provide all of the following:
1) Early detection of cancer metastasis
2) Accurate staging of cancer
3) Radiation treatment of the cancer
4) Activation of chemotherapy drugs within the tumor
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following are steps used in the evaluation of a chest radiograph?
1) Evaluation of the bony structures
2) Evaluation of exposure quality
3) Evaluation of the heart shadow
4) Evaluation of the tracheobronchial tree
A)4
B)1, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a normal differential white blood cell (WBC) count, which of the following would have the highest number?
A) Neutrophils
B)Basophils
C)Eosinophils
D)Lymphocytes
Q2) A 14-year-old patient has had a serious asthma attack. Her white blood cell count can be expected to show:
A) decreased neutrophils.
B)decreased erythrocytes.
C)increased eosinophils.
D)increased monocytes.
Q3) Culture and sensitivity tests:
A) stain a microorganism as Gram-positive or Gram-negative.
B)determine the shape of the organisms present.
C)identify the DNA of organisms present in the sputum.
D)determine the antibiotic(s) best suited for combating an infection.
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10
Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Care Practitioner
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient required mechanical ventilation for apnea after an accidental drug overdose. She is now awake. According to the mechanical ventilation protocol, what should be done to initially assess her readiness to be weaned from the ventilator?
A) 1-Minute spontaneous breathing trial
B)30-Minute spontaneous breathing trial
C)Assessment on CPAP
D)Consultation with the physician
Q2) When performing a therapist-driven protocol (TDP), the severity assessment refers to:
A) the frequency of performing a treatment modality.
B)how sick the patient is.
C)the Department of Homeland Security's threat level.
D)how urgently the physician wants the patient treated.
Q3) Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration are part of what TDP?
A) Hyperinflation therapy
B)Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy
C)Mechanical ventilation
D)Oxygen therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who had pneumonia, and her family, are suing the hospital, physician, and respiratory therapist. How can the patient's medical care and treatment be proved?
A) Care is documented in the chart.
B)The patient's testimony
C)The physician's testimony
D)The respiratory therapist's testimony
Q2) Many respiratory therapists now use portable devices for bedside computer charting. These units are referred to as:
A) point-of-care systems.
B)laptop computers.
C)i-pods.
D)MP3 players.
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, all of the following would be found in the O area EXCEPT:
A) hemodynamic data.
B)patient's admission complaint.
C)blood pressure.
D)sputum production.
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Chapter 11: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which stage of COPD does the patient usually first seek medical attention because of worsening symptoms?
A) Stage I
B)Stage II
C)Stage III
D)Stage IV
Q2) Which of the following terms is/are commonly applied to a patient with emphysema?
1) Pink puffer
2) Blue bloater
3) Type A COPD
4) Type B COPD
A)1
B)2
C)1, 3
D)2, 4
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13
Chapter 12: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a respiratory therapist, you are performing a chest assessment. What findings would be common in a patient during an asthma attack?
1) Inverse I:E ratio
2) Decreased vocal fremitus
3) Increased vesicular breath sounds
4) Hyperresonant percussion note
A)1, 4
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A sputum sample from a suspected asthmatic patient has been sent to the laboratory for analysis. Which of the following findings would confirm the diagnosis?
A) Increased IgE level
B)Increased erythrocytes
C)Increased leukocytes
D)Decreased IgE level
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14
Chapter 13: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient with bronchiectasis to reduce the risk of his/her condition worsening, which of the following should be done?
1) Avoid air pollution.
2) Get an influenza vaccination.
3) Take an antibiotic every day.
4) Avoid smoking.
A)3, 4
B)1, 2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Mechanical ventilation would be justified in the management of a patient with bronchiectasis under the following circumstances:
A) Patient has a reversible lung problem
B)To prevent atelectasis
C)To provide supplemental oxygen
D)To help to mobilize secretions
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15
Chapter 14: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common chest assessment findings in a patient with cystic fibrosis include:
1) tracheal deviation.
2) breath sounds reveal crackles and rhonchi.
3) dull percussion note.
4) hyperresonant percussion note.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following pulmonary function findings would be expected in a patient with moderate to severe cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) increased FVC.
B)increased RV.
C)decreased PEFR.
D)decreased FEF 50%.
Q3) All of the following can be used in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) an elevated potassium level in the sweat.
B)an elevated chloride level in the sweat.
C)genetic testing of the patient and/or parents.
D)chronic lung infections from an early age.
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Chapter 15: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that develops:
A) between 24 and 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.
B)more than 48 to 72 hours after endotracheal intubation.
C)less than 24 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
D)more than 48 to 72 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
Q2) The most commonly prescribed aerosolized antibiotic used against Pneumocystis carinii is:
A) penicillin (Penicillin G).
B)tobramycin (TOBI).
C)tetracycline (Achromycin).
D)pentamidine isethionate (NebuPent).
Q3) The following pulmonary infection is most commonly seen in patients with AIDS: A) anaerobic.
B)Pneumocystis carinii.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae (Diplococcus pneumoniae).
D)Legionella pneumophila.
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Chapter 16: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a lung abscess is seen on a chest radiograph, a distinguishing factor is the:
A) solid mass.
B)air bronchograms.
C)consolidation of the affected segment or lobe.
D)air-fluid level in the cavity.
Q2) Your patient has aspirated. This can result in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) fungal pneumonia.
B)anaerobic bacterial pneumonia.
C)chemical pneumonitis.
D)Both B and C
Q3) During the early stages of a lung abscess, the pathological process is the same as that of:
A) pulmonary edema.
B)bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
C)pneumonia.
D)pulmonary fibrosis.
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Chapter 17: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical manifestations that are associated with TB?
1) Dull percussion note
2) Bronchospasm
3) Hyperresonant percussion note
4) Crackles
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) Pulmonary function testing results on a patient with an advanced case of TB will display all of the following EXCEPT:
A) increased RV.
B)decreased IRV.
C)decreased VC.
D)decreased TLC.
Q3) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is most readily transmitted through:
A) drinking milk from or the milking of infected cows.
B)shaking hands and then rubbing your eye.
C)coughing.
D)accidental direct inoculation.
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Chapter 18: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the midwestern part of the United States, what is the most common fungal infection of the lungs?
A) Cryptococcosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Blastomycosis
D)Coccidioidomycosis
Q2) Anatomic alterations found in the lungs of patients with a fungal infection include:
1) fibrosis of lung parenchyma.
2) alveolar-capillary destruction.
3) hyperinflation.
4) mucosal edema.
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 4
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are considered noncardiogenic cause(s) of increased capillary permeability?
1) Therapeutic lung radiation
2) Cigarette smoke
3) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
4) Inhaled phosgene
A)1
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient with pulmonary edema is cyanotic and complaining of difficulty breathing. What should be recommended by the respiratory therapist?
A) Provide supplemental oxygen.
B)Begin mechanical ventilation.
C)Have the patient use pursed-lip breathing.
D)Begin bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy.
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21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Embolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is now fully recovered from the condition that caused her to have a pulmonary embolism. As a precaution, the physician will have her take which of the following anticoagulant medications for a few months at home?
A) High-molecular-weight heparin
B)Low-molecular-weight heparin
C)Alteplase
D)Warfarin
Q2) Your patient's D-dimer blood test results show a value of 250 ng/mL. How should these results be interpreted?
A) The patient does not have a pulmonary embolism.
B)The patient's anticoagulant level is acceptable.
C)The patient has a pulmonary embolism.
D)The patient has a deep vein thrombosis.
Q3) All of the following are associated with the formation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) EXCEPT:
A) blood vessel injury.
B)age greater than 40 years.
C)hypercoagulability.
D)venous stasis.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient has a flail chest, what happens during the ventilatory cycle?
A) The I:E ratio becomes inverse.
B)Air leaks out through the flail area.
C)Air leaks in through the flail area.
D)Air is shunted from one lung to the other.
Q2) Your flail chest patient requires supplemental oxygen. What is the usual cause of hypoxemia in a flail chest patient?
A) Myocardial contusion
B)Hemorrhage
C)Pulmonary edema
D)Alveolar atelectasis
Q3) Causes of a flail chest include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) blast injury.
B)motor vehicle accident.
C)split sternum for open heart surgery.
D)fall from high altitude.
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23
Chapter 22: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following chest assessment findings would be expected in a patient with a tension pneumothorax?
A) Tracheal shift toward the pneumothorax
B)Dull percussion note
C)Tracheal shift away from the pneumothorax
D)Hyperresonant breath sounds
Q2) An iatrogenic pneumothorax may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
B)pleural biopsy.
C)subclavian vein cannulation.
D)endotracheal intubation.
Q3) Treatment of a 30% pneumothorax may include:
1) endotracheal intubation.
2) giving the patient supplemental oxygen.
3) placing a chest tube into the pleural space.
4) placing a chest tube into the pericardial space.
A)1, 3
B)2, 3
C)2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 23: Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is:
A) pulmonary fibrosis.
B)separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.
C)adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.
D)pulmonary edema.
Q2) Usual chest radiograph findings on a patient with a large pleural effusion include:
1) blunting of the costophrenic angle.
2) fluid level on the affected side.
3) mediastinal shift to the unaffected side.
4) mediastinal shift to the affected side.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q3) Your patient has a large pleural effusion. It will act as a/an:
A) restrictive lung disorder.
B)obstructive lung disorder.
C)obstructive > restrictive lung disorder.
D)restrictive > obstructive lung disorder.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Kyphoscoliosis
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Q1) A patient with severe kyphoscoliosis and chronic ventilatory failure with hypoxemia will have all of the following laboratory findings, EXCEPT:
A) increased PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
B)increased hematocrit.
C)normal pH.
D)increased pH.
Q2) Your patient has a 45-degree curvature of her spine. The physician is most likely to recommend which of the following?
A) Surgery for rod instrumentation
B)Observation checkup in about 3 months
C)Milwaukee or other brace
D)Surgery for spinal fusion
Q3) General conditions associated with kyphoscoliosis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) age-based scoliosis.
B)neuromuscular scoliosis.
C)congenital scoliosis.
D)idiopathic scoliosis.
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Chapter 25: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Q1) Your patient has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) of the lungs. What is the most commonly found pulmonary complication of SLE?
A) Bronchospasm
B)Pleurisy
C)Atelectasis
D)Diaphragmatic dysfunction
Q2) What medication group is commonly administered to patients with interstitial lung disease?
A) Antibiotics
B)Mucolytics
C)Corticosteroids
D)Diuretics
Q3) Your patient with mild to moderate ILD has hypoxemia and will be given oxygen therapy. All of the following are possible causes of hypoxemia EXCEPT:
A) hypoventilation.
B)capillary shunting.
C)alveolar thickening.
D)fibrosis.
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Chapter 26: Cancer of the Lung
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Q1) Your patient with a lung tumor in his right lower lobe is going to need surgery. He is otherwise healthy and has good respiratory reserve. What is the preferred surgical method?
A) lobectomy
B)wedge resection
C)segmentectomy
D)pneumonectomy
Q2) Chest radiograph findings indicating lung cancer include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) a large irregular mass.
B)an enlarged heart.
C)a coin lesion.
D)a pleural effusion.
Q3) A patient has gone to see her physician after recently developing hoarseness and difficulty swallowing. What does this indicate?
A) Mediastinal cancer
B)Gastroesophageal reflux
C)Stomach cancer
D)Salivary gland cancer
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Chapter 27: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Commonly heard breath sounds in a patient with ARDS include:
1) vesicular.
2) bronchovesicular.
3) crackles.
4) bronchial.
A)4
B)1, 2
C)3, 4
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient has a prolonged case of ARDS. What will happen to his alveolar cells?
A) Multiplication of the type I cells
B)Influx of macrophages
C)Hyperplasia and swelling of the type II cells
D)Development of emphysema
Q3) A chest radiograph finding indicative of ARDS is:
A) "ground-glass" appearance.
B)pleural effusion.
C)lung hyperinflation.
D)tracheal deviation.
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Chapter 28: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Q1) The diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome is based on all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) urinalysis shows elevate blood urea nitrogen.
B)abnormal electromyography results.
C)cerebrospinal fluid shows elevated protein level.
D)clinical history.
Q2) The major pathologic or structural changes of the lungs associated with ventilator failure accompanying Guillain-Barré syndrome include:
1) alveolar consolidation.
2) airway distortion and dilation.
3) mucosal edema.
4) atelectasis.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 29: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) The major pathologic or structural changes of the lungs associated with ventilatory failure accompanying myasthenia gravis include:
1) bronchospasm.
2) airway obstruction.
3) mucus accumulation.
4) alveolar dilation.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is/are signs and symptoms associated with myasthenia gravis?
1) Double vision
2) Weakness of neck muscles
3) Drooping of eyelids
4) Difficulty speaking
A)2
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 30: Sleep Apnea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical disorders associated with central sleep apnea include:
1) awakening with dry mouth and sore throat.
2) depression.
3) encephalitis.
4) brain stem infarction.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) Signs and symptoms associated with obstructive sleep apnea include: 1) insomnia.
2) excessive daytime sleepiness.
3) hypothyroidism.
4) metabolic alkalosis.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 31: Newborn and Early Childhood Respiratory Disorders
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Q1) The most recent arterial blood gas results on your premature neonatal patient show that the PaO<sub>2</sub> is low. All of the following are possible causes of this, EXCEPT:
A) fatigue.
B)PPHN.
C)hyperventilation.
D)pulmonary shunting.
Q2) Your neonatal patient has PPHN. What may develop as a consequence of this?
A) Cardiomegaly
B)Pulmonary embolism
C)Mucosal edema
D)Cardiac tamponade
Q3) Your neonatal patient is having expiratory grunting. What physiologic effect does this produce?
A) Increased vital capacity.
B)Increased PAO<sub>2</sub>.
C)Decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
D)Closes the ductus arteriosus.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) Risk factors for the development of MAS include:
1) being post-term.
2) a mother who is hypertensive.
3) a mother who is toxemic.
4) being the first twin born.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q2) An infant with MAS will show what clinical manifestations associated with the more negative intrapleural pressures needed during inspiration?
1) Seesaw breathing movement
2) Breath sounds reveal rhonchi and crackles
3) Expiratory grunting
4) Cyanosis of the dependent thoracic areas
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 33: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) The causes of TTN include:
1) the mother having cystic fibrosis.
2) infant's hypoxemia.
3) mother's hypoxemia.
4) inadequate inspiratory effort.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q2) All of the following are usually performed in the general management of a patient with TTN, EXCEPT:
A) close monitoring.
B)give a diuretic medication.
C)proper stabilization.
D)rule out of other serious conditions.
Q3) Initially, TTN will have a clinical presentation similar to:
A) the early stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
B)the late stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
C)bronchial pneumonia.
D)meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS).
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Chapter 34: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) The respiratory pattern of a neonate with RDS will have these characteristics:
1) Respiratory rate of about 50/min
2) Respiratory rate of >60/min
3) Cyclical breathing pattern
4) Hard and deep breaths
A)1
B)2, 3
C)1, 4
D)2, 4
Q2) The neonate with RDS would have a phosphatidylglycerol (PG) level that is A) present.
B)absent.
C)above normal.
D)below normal.
Q3) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) primarily affects infants who are:
A) pre-term with insufficient surfactant.
B)full-term.
C)post-term with too much surfactant.
D)pre-term with too much surfactant.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) Your patient has developed pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE). How can this affect her lung function?
1) Increased airway resistance
2) Decreased lung compliance
3) Increased lung compliance
4) Development of persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
A)4
B)1, 2
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 4
Q2) What pulmonary condition can be identified by a change in the point of maximum impulse (PMI)?
A) Pneumothorax
B)PIE
C)Pneumomediastinum
D)Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
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Chapter 36: Respiratory Syncytial Virus Infection
Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis
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Q1) What can be given to a premature baby in order to prevent an RSV infection?
A) An inhaled corticosteroid agent
B)Ribavirin (Virazole)
C)Palivizumab (Synagis)
D)A sympathomimetic agent
Q2) During the early stages of RSV in a young child, what respiratory rate is commonly found?
A) Under 30/min
B)Between 30 and 60/min
C)well over 60/min
D)rapid, then up to a 10-second period of apnea
Q3) Anatomic alterations related to an RSV infection can lead to all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) pneumomediastinum.
B)partial airway obstruction.
C)decreased airway lumen.
D)complete airway obstruction.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) If your mechanically ventilated patient develops stress fractures of the capillary endothelium and adjacent tissues, what can happen?
A) Fluid leakage into alveolar spaces
B)Mucosal edema
C)Pulmonary embolism
D)Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
Q2) It is thought that a neonatal patient has Stage IV BPD with emphysematous lung changes. What pulmonary function test findings would confirm this?
1) Normal Vt
2) Increased FRC
3) Decreased VC
4) Increased RV
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 38: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) You are assisting in the delivery room when a neonate with a CHD is born. What should be done to help the patient?
1) Give oxygen.
2) Begin bag and mask manual ventilation.
3) Intubate and ventilate the neonate.
4) Put the neonate in Trendelenburg position.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) Your neonatal patient with a CDH will be placed on a mechanical ventilator. What initial settings should be recommended?
1) 2 to 3 cm water positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
2) 100% oxygen
3) Low peak airway pressure
4) Rapid respiratory rate
A)2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) Most cases of LTB occur during which season(s) of the year?
1) Spring
2) Summer
3) Fall
4) Winter
A)1
B)4
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q2) The diagnosis of epiglottitis is made by:
1) laying the patient down and observing the throat with a tongue blade.
2) visualization of the throat during tracheal intubation.
3) observing if the patient can swallow.
4) observing how the patient holds his/her tongue.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 40: Near Drowning
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Q1) Favorable prognostic factors in cold-water near-drowning include:
1) greater effort to reach the surface.
2) alcohol in the victim.
3) colder water.
4) younger age.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) What water temperature has been shown to be a favorable prognostic factor in near drowning?
A) Higher than 104° F
B)98.6° F
C)Between 98° F and 70° F
D)Less than 70° F
Q3) Many adult drowning victims have been shown to have:
A) used alcohol.
B)had a stroke.
C)eaten just before swimming.
D)had a heart attack.
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Chapter 41: Smoke Inhalation and Thermal Injuries
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Q1) The long term effects of a smoke inhalation injury are:
A) obstructive lung disease.
B)restrictive lung disease.
C)obstructive and restrictive lung disease.
D)neither, there is normally complete healing.
Q2) A patient who inhaled low water solubility gases (hydrogen chloride and phosgene) will have effects in what area(s)?
A) Distal airways and alveoli
B)Pulmonary vascular bed
C)Upper airway
D)Pulmonary lymphatic system
Q3) Clinical signs that a patient has a thermal injury to the upper airway include: 1) wheezing.
2) inspiratory stridor.
3) pulmonary edema.
4) painful swallowing.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 42: Postoperative Atelectasis
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Q1) A patient with atelectasis is being monitored by bedside spirometry. What findings would correspond with atelectasis?
1) Decreased IC
2) Increased PEFR
3) Decreased VC
4) Increased DLCO
A)2
B)1, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) After surgery, your patient must lie supine in bed. Because of this, atelectasis is thought to have developed. What chest radiograph finding would confirm this?
A) Depression of the hemidiaphragms
B)Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE)
C)Increased density in both upper lobe areas
D)Increased density in both posterior lower lobe areas
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44