Advanced Accounting Information Systems
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Advanced Accounting Information Systems explores the design, implementation, and management of complex accounting information systems within organizations. The course covers topics such as database management, internal controls, enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems, cybersecurity risks, data analytics, and the integration of new technologies in financial reporting. Students will analyze real-world case studies and apply software tools to design and evaluate systems that support efficient financial processes, ensure data integrity, and meet regulatory requirements. The course emphasizes both conceptual frameworks and hands-on skills to prepare students for advanced roles in accounting and information systems management.
Recommended Textbook
Accounting Information Systems 14th GLOBAL Edition by Marshall B. Romney
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Chapter 1: Conceptual Foundations of Accounting Information Systems
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Q1) Data must be converted into information to be considered useful and meaningful for decision making.There are seven characteristics that make information both useful and meaningful.If the same information can be reproduced by two independent and knowledgeable people,it is representative of the characteristic of A)reliability.
B)relevance.
C)verifiability.
D)truthful.
Answer: C
Q2) Transaction cycles can be summarized on a high level as "give-get" transactions.An example of "give-get" in the revenue cycle would be
A)give cash, get goods.
B)give goods, get cash.
C)give cash, get labor.
D)give cash, get cash.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Overview of Transaction Processing and Enterprise Resource Planning Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of source data automation?
A)a utility bill
B)POS (point-of-sale)scanners in retail stores
C)a bill of lading
D)a subsidiary ledger
Answer: B
Q2) When the sum of all entries in the subsidiary ledger equals the balance in the corresponding general ledger account,it is assumed that
A)the recording processes were accurate.
B)all source documents were recorded.
C)adjusting entries are not required.
D)no errors exist in the subsidiary ledger.
Answer: A
Q3) What is the final step in the data processing cycle?
A)output
B)storage
C)processing
D)input
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Systems Documentation Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent an invoice sent to a customer?
A)#2
B)#6
C)#1
D)#3
Answer: C
Q2) In a data flow diagram of the vendor payment process,"Vendor" will appear above or in
A)a square.
B)a circle.
C)two horizontal lines.
D)none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) More than one arrow is needed between symbols on a DFD if A)data elements always flow together.
B)data elements flow at different times.
C)data elements flow to different locations.
D)there is no guideline on use of single or multiple arrows.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Relational Databases
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Q1) Describe the reason why it is acceptable to have null foreign key,but it is unacceptable to have a null primary key.Use the concept of entity integrity rule and referential integrity rule in your answer.
Q2) Describe the different schemas involved in a database structure.What is the role of accountants in development of schemas?
Q3) Emma Kolb is a system analyst at a manufacturing company located in the Midwest.She has been asked to analyze the company's accounting information system and to recommend cost-effective improvements.After noting that the several key managers do not have access to the production and sales information,she recommends that they should be uploaded to the company's internal network and be made available for search.Implementation of her recommendation would benefit the company by contributing to
A)data independence.
B)data integration.
C)reduce data redundancy.
D)increase data sharing.
Q4) Explain the two advantages semantic data modeling has over normalization when designing a relational database.
Q5) What is the difference in logical view and physical view?
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Chapter 5: Computer Fraud
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Q1) Describe at least four ways a company can make fraud less likely to occur.
Q2) How does the U.S.Justice Department define computer fraud?
A)As any crime in which a computer is used.
B)As any act in which cash is stolen using a computer.
C)As an illegal act in which a computer is an integral part of the crime.
D)As an illegal act in which knowledge of computer technology is essential.
Q3) What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of fraud perpetrators?
Q4) Researchers have compared the psychological and demographic characteristics of white-collar criminals,violent criminals,and the general public.They found that
A)few differences exist between white-collar criminals and the general public.
B)white-collar criminals eventually become violent criminals.
C)most white-collar criminals invest their illegal income rather than spend it.
D)most white-collar criminals are older and not technologically proficient.
Q5) Which characteristic of the fraud triangle often stems from the belief that "the rules do not apply to me" within an organization?
A)Pressure
B)Opportunity
C)Rationalization
D)Concealment
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Chapter 6: Computer Fraud and Abuse Techniques
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Q1) Listening to private voice or data transmissions is called A)masquerading.
B)bluebugging.
C)eavesdropping.
D)podslurping.
Q2) What is social engineering? Provide an example.
Q3) Acting under false pretenses to gain confidential information is called A)superzapping.
B)tabnapping.
C)pretexting.
D)piggybacking.
Q4) Megan has purchased a brand new laptop about three months ago.Recently,she feels that her computer is operating much more slowly and sluggishly than before.Since purchasing the computer,Megan had been accessing the Internet and had installed a variety of free software.The problem is mostly likely to be
A)a zero-day attack.
B)a virus.
C)a spoof.
D)a sluggishness infection.
Q5) Describe at least six computer attacks and abuse techniques.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Control and Accounting Information Systems
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Q1) The SEC,PCAOB,and FASB are best described as external influences that directly affect an organization's
A)hiring practices.
B)philosophy and operating style.
C)internal environment.
D)methods of assigning authority.
Q2) The first step of the risk assessment process is generally to
A)identify controls to reduce all risk to zero.
B)estimate the exposure from negative events.
C)identify the threats that the company currently faces.
D)estimate the risk probability of negative events occurring.
Q3) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)applies to
A)all companies with gross annual revenues exceeding $500 million.
B)publicly traded companies with gross annual revenues exceeding $500 million.
C)all private and public companies incorporated in the United States.
D)all publicly traded companies.
Q4) Describe the steps in the development of a company's risk assessment and response strategy.
Q5) Describe the five components of the COSO's Internal Control Model.
Q6) Describe the differences between general and specific authorization.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Controls for Information Security
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Q1) ________ is/are an example of a detective control.
A)Physical access controls
B)Encryption
C)Emergency response teams
D)Log analysis
Q2) Identify a party below who was involved with developing the Trust Services Framework.
A)FASB
B)COSO
C)AICPA
D)PCAOB
Q3) All employees of E.C.Hoxy are required to pass through a gate and present their photo identification cards to the guard before they are admitted.Entry to secure areas,such as the Information Technology Department offices,requires further procedures.This is an example of a(n)
A)authentication control.
B)authorization control.
C)physical access control.
D)hardening procedure.
Q4) Describe the steps in the security life cycle.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Privacy Controls
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Q1) An electronic document that certifies the identity of the owner of a particular public key.
A)Asymmetric encryption.
B)Digital certificate.
C)Digital signature.
D)Public key.
Q2) If an organization asks you to disclose your social security number,yet fails to properly dispose of your private information once it has fulfilled its purpose,the organization has likely violated which of the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles?
A)Management.
B)Notice.
C)Choice and consent.
D)Use and retention.
Q3) Identify the type of information below that is least likely to be considered confidential by an organization.
A)Audited financial statements.
B)Legal documents.
C)Top executives' salaries.
D)New product development plans.
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Chapter 10: Processing Integrity and Availability Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) The batch processing data entry control that sums a non-financial numeric field is called
A)record count.
B)financial total.
C)hash total.
D)sequence check.
Q2) Cancellation and storage of documents is one example of a(n)
A)output control.
B)processing control.
C)input control.
D)data entry control.
Q3) A ________ tests a numerical amount to ensure that it does not exceed a predetermined value.
A)completeness check
B)limit check
C)range check
D)sign check
Q4) According to COBIT 5,what should be the common features for locating and designing data centers housing mission-critical servers and databases?
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Chapter 11: Auditing Computer-Based Information Systems
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Q1) Marking transactions with a special code,recording them and their master file records before and after processing,and storing the data to later verify that all processing steps were properly executed is an example of A)integrated test facility.
B)snapshot technique.
C)system control audit review file.
D)audit hooks.
Q2) Assessing the quality of internal controls,the reliability of information,and operating performance are all part of A)audit planning.
B)collection of audit evidence.
C)communication of audit results.
D)evaluation of audit evidence.
Q3) What role should an auditor play in system development?
A)an independent reviewer only
B)a developer of internal controls
C)an advisor and developer of internal control specifications
D)A and B above
Q4) Explain the differences between each type of audit risk.
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Chapter 12: The Revenue Cycle: Sales to Cash Collections
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Q1) It has been discovered that credit sales have been made to customers with a poor credit rating.If this continues,the company will face increasing uncollectible receivables and losses due to bad debts.Separation of duties between ________ and ________ should help resolve the problem.
A)shipping; billing duties
B)credit approval; marketing
C)billing; credit approval
D)marketing; accounts receivable
Q2) Which of the following controls can minimize the threat of incomplete/inaccurate orders?
A)Separation of billing and shipping functions.
B)Use of cash registers.
C)Bar-code and RFID technology.
D)Restriction of access to master data.
Q3) Define and describe benefits of a CRM system.
Q4) A picking ticket is generated by the A)shipping process.
B)sales order entry process.
C)packing process.
D)billing process.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Expenditure Cycle: Purchasing to Cash
Disbursements
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Q1) Ngai Nhung is the sales manager at Hung Technologies.At lunch with the company CEO,Ngai proudly announced that he had negotiated a(n)________ with a client that represented the customer's long-term commitment to buy components from Hung.
A)purchase order
B)evaluated receipt settlement
C)voucher
D)blanket purchase order
Q2) Once a vendor is selected for a product,the vendor's identity is recorded in the A)purchase requisition transaction file.
B)purchase requisition master file.
C)inventory transaction file.
D)inventory master file.
Q3) Comparing quantities on a vendor invoice to quantities on the receiving report would not prevent or detect which of the following situations?
A)receiving and accepting inventory not ordered
B)theft of inventory by receiving department employees
C)update of wrong inventory items due to data entry error
D)order for an excessive quantity of inventory
Q4) Define and describe the EOQ approach to inventory management.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Production Cycle
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Q1) MRP-II is to MRP,as lean manufacturing is to A)EOQ.
B)JIT.
C)push manufacturing.
D)reorder point.
Q2) How can CAD software help improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the product design process?
A)It can eliminate the costs associated with creating and destroying physical prototypes.
B)It can simulate how new products will be manufactured.
C)It can store all the data associated with all products.
D)All of the above
Q3) The best control procedure for accurate data entry is A)the use of on-line terminals.
B)an access control matrix.
C)passwords and user IDs.
D)automation of data collection.
Q4) Discuss two measures that can address the threats of inefficiencies and quality controls problems.
Q5) Identify and discuss the two common methods of production planning.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Human Resources Management and Payroll Cycle
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Q1) A report of income paid to independent contractors is called A)form W-2.
B)form W-3.
C)form 1099-Misc.
D)form 941.
Q2) Discuss the various types and sources of input into the HRM/payroll cycle.
Q3) The average annual management salary at Iyov Management is $100,000.If the average turnover rate for employees is six per year,what is the approximate average annual cost of turnover?
A)$100,000.
B)$400,000
C)$600,000.
D)$900,000.
Q4) Knowledge management systems (KMS)permit organizations to A)store employee solutions to specific problems in a shared database.
B)learn from individuals external to the organization.
C)perform background checks on potential employees.
D)gain competitive business intelligence on competitors.
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Q5) Explain benefits to companies and to employees using electronic direct deposit for payroll.
Chapter 16: General Ledger and Reporting System
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Q1) Which of the following are appropriate controls for the general ledger and reporting system?
A)Using well-designed documents and records.
B)Online data entry with the use of appropriate edit checks.
C)Prenumbering documents and accounting for the sequence numbers.
D)All of the above are appropriate.
Q2) A major way in which IFRS differs from GAAP that will affect the design of a company's general ledger and reporting system is an IFRS principle known as A)componentization.
B)monetization.
C)securitization.
D)centralization.
Q3) Which item below is not considered a major input to the general ledger and reporting system?
A)summary entries from the major subsystems
B)reports from managers
C)adjusting entries
D)financing and investing activities
Q4) Discuss the value and role of budgets as managerial reports.
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Chapter 17: Database Design Using the Rea Data Model
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Q1) Describe an REA data model.
Q2) What is the minimum number of agents that must participate in each REA event?
A)0
B)2
C)1
D)3
Q3) Identify the item below that would be classified as an agent by the REA data model.
A)An IOU from a customer.
B)The customer.
C)A customer sale.
D)A loan from a vendor.
Q4) Identify the notation often used to represent cardinality information.
A)Dotted lines.
B)Greek characters.
C)Crow's feet.
D)Color coding.
Q5) Describe what is a E-R diagram and provide an example.
Q6) Define minimum and maximum cardinalities.
Q7) What is Cardinalities?
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Chapter 18: Implementing an Rea Model in a Relational Database
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Q1) In an REA-based relational database,the information normally found in a ________ is contained in the tables used to record data about ________.
A)journal; events
B)journal; resources
C)ledger; events
D)ledger; resources
Q2) Which of the statements below is false with respect to enterprise-wide REA diagrams?
A)Merging two or more REA diagrams that contain the same resource entity does not require any changes to the cardinality pairs in the individual diagrams.
B)Merging two or more diagrams that contain a common event entity, however, often requires changing the minimum cardinalities associated with the other events to 0, to reflect the fact that the merged event may be connected to any one of several different events, but not to all of them simultaneously.
C)The minimum cardinalities associated with agents may also have to be changed to 0.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) What are the advantages of the REA data model over the traditional AIS model?
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Chapter 19: Special Topics in Rea Modeling
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Q1) In an REA diagram for the HR/Payroll cycle,the ________ relationship between Skills and Recruiting reflects the fact that one specific advertisement may list several specific skills and,over time,there may be several advertisements for one specific skill.
A)1:1
B)1:N
C)M:N
D)1:M
Q2) While not required,connecting the Time Used entity to specific business events enables
A)evaluating performance at a very detailed level.
B)general performance evaluation.
C)evaluating the quality of the services received.
D)determining productivity of employees, such as how many customer calls were made, or how many sales were made.
Q3) Describe the four main events of interest included in a typical production cycle REA diagram.
Q4) Give an example of an M:N Agent-Event relationship.
Q5) Why is the event Issue Debt often modeled as a separate event entity?
Q6) Why might an REA diagram show relationships between agents?
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Systems Development and Systems Analysis
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Q1) Which of the following about planning for systems development is false?
A)Project plans are developed for each new system and each system modification. Then, these project plans are combined together to form the master plan.
B)A project development plan includes an economic feasibility analysis and a schedule of activities.
C)The master plan identifies system goals, who will develop the system, and the resources that will be needed.
D)The master plan includes details about organizational goals, existing systems and resources, projects being conducted, and predictions of future needs and requirements.
Q2) Who prepares a systems analysis report?
A)Computer analysts.
B)Management.
C)The project development team.
D)The steering committee.
Q3) Describe the physical design stage of the systems development life cycle.
Q4) Describe the four strategies used to determine AIS requirements.
Q5) Describe the four primary objectives of a systems survey conducted during systems analysis.
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Chapter 21: Ais Development Strategies
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Q1) Which of the following about end-user computing is true?
A)System users know best what they need, so should be able to create their own applications.
B)End-users, while knowledgeable about their job, are not trained to create systems applications, and should not be allowed to do so.
C)It is inefficient and costly to ask the IS department to create basic applications that only a few users need to use.
D)In most companies, the IS department doesn't want end-users to create their own applications, for fear IS won't have enough work to do.
Q2) Carmie Iria,the director of a systems project committee,has received management approval for the implementation of a new accounting information system.After sending out an RFP to multiple vendors,the committee settled on purchasing a system from Sysys,a vendor who will provide a standard software package and post-sale technical support.Carmie's committee has decided to go with A)canned software.
B)a turnkey system.
C)an outsourced system.
D)an end-user developed system.
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Chapter 22: Systems Design, implementation, and Operation
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Q1) Ghassan in Marketing received an e-mail from Asif at regional headquarters."Ghassan,I just reviewed the annual sales report for your district.You blew your sales goal away again,you top gun!" What type of report did Asif use?
A)Scheduled report.
B)Special-purpose analysis report.
C)Triggered exception report.
D)Demand report.
Q2) Describe the approaches to system conversion.
Q3) Post implementation review is conducted to
A)determine whether a new system meets its planned objectives.
B)determine how well the project team performed in developing the new system.
C)prioritize future modifications to the system.
D)provide external auditors assurance that a new system has been placed into service.
Q4) A(n)________ system test uses copies of real transaction and file records.
A)acceptance test
B)debugging test
C)test data processing
D)walk-through
Q5) Describe the standards that should be used to evaluate design alternatives.
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