Advanced Abnormal Psychology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Abnormal Psychology provides an in-depth exploration of the complexities of psychological disorders, focusing on their etiology, diagnosis, and treatment. The course examines major categories of psychopathology, such as mood, anxiety, psychotic, personality, and neurodevelopmental disorders, using contemporary research and advanced theoretical frameworks. Emphasis is placed on the interplay between biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors in the manifestation of abnormal behavior, as well as the application of DSM-5 criteria. Students engage with current debates, ethical considerations, and case studies to deepen their understanding and critical thinking skills essential for advanced study or clinical practice in mental health disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology Perspectives 5th Edition by David J.A. Dozois
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19 Chapters
1924 Verified Questions
1924 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts of Abnormality Throughout History
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The idea that both mental and physical disorders were caused by problems in the body was held by
A) Soranus.
B) Aristotle.
C) Plato.
D) the Greek physician Aretaeus.
E) Hippocrates.
Answer: A
Q2) The term "bedlam" originated from
A) a method of treatment used in early asylums.
B) the lack of beds that was common in early asylums.
C) the bizarre behaviour known as St. Vitus' dance.
D) moments of frenzy among mad people.
E) behaviour of the patients in deplorable early European asylums.
Answer: E
Q3) Philippe Pinel was responsible for bringing moral therapy to North America.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Theoretical Perspectives on Abnormal Behaviour
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freud believed that girls desired their fathers to gain what they strongly desire - a penis. Freud referred to this desire for the father as the A) Phallic complex.
B) Displacement complex.
C) Libido complex.
D) Electra complex.
E) Pandora complex.
Answer: D
Q2) Freud's concept of the Oedipal complex is based upon a play by the Greek tragedian, Sophocles. In this play, the character Oedipus
A) kills his father and marries his mother.
B) kills his brother and marries his mother.
C) kills his mother and marries his sister.
D) kills his brother and marries his sister.
E) kills his father and marries his sister.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Classification and Diagnosis
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your little brother constantly disobeys your parents, talks back to them, and refuses to acknowledge what they say. What DSM-IV-TR category would fit his symptoms?
A) Oppositional Defiant Disorder
B) Separation Anxiety Disorder
C) Disorders usually First Diagnosed in Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence
D) Adjustment Disorders
E) Conduct Disorder
Answer: C
Q2) An increase in reliability results in an increase in validity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Cultural biases are generally not problematic in the DSM because regardless of where you come from, the symptoms for any one disorder will be similar.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Describe the five axes of the DSM-IV-TR.
Answer: The DSM-IV Multiaxial
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Chapter 4: Psychological Assessment and Research
Methods
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Walter Mischel argued that personality tests are flawed because A) people fail to give accurate self-reports because of the response set of social desirability.
B) people respond to demand characteristics - they respond as they feel the tester would like them to.
C) the concept of personality is an illusion.
D) the majority have been shown to have extremely low reliability. E) their flawed assumption that personality characteristics are stable.
Q2) It has been said that without _______, you cannot have ____________. A) reliability; validity
B) face validity; criterion validity
C) construct validity; face validity
D) split half reliability; face validity
E) predictive validity; face validity
Q3) Compare and contrast between actuarial vs. clinical prediction. Include advantages and disadvantages for each. Based on discussion in class, analogy from other concepts in the chapter, and/or your own creative problem solving abilities, try to identify a compromise between these approaches and/or a solution for the practitioner that reaps the best of both approaches.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Anxiety and Related Disorders
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To qualify for a diagnosis of PTSD the individual must display symptoms for longer than __________ following a traumatic event.
A) one year
B) 1 month
C) 3 months
D) 6 months
E) five years
Q2) __________ treatments of anxiety tend to have lower relapse rates.
A) Pharmacological
B) Cognitive-behavioural
C) Humanistic
D) Existential
E) Psychoanalytic
Q3) __________ has a prevalence rate comparable to unipolar depression.
A) Social phobia
B) PTSD
C) Generalized anxiety disorder
D) OCD
E) Panic disorder
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Dissociative and Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important distinction within the category hypochondriasis - one that will be recognized by DSM-5 - appears to be
A) those with physical symptoms (80%) vs. those without (20%).
B) those with physical symptoms (20%) vs. those without (80%).
C) those with derealization symptoms (80%) vs. those without (20%).
D) those with derealization symptoms (80%) vs. those without (20%). E) those with conversion symptoms (80%) vs. those without (20%).
Q2) Patients with conversion disorder tend to be quite anxious about their symptoms. A)True
B)False
Q3) Recently, experts have suggested that conversion disorder might best be viewed as a form of A) pain disorder.
B) somatization disorder.
C) dissociative amnesia.
D) factitious disorder.
E) dissociative disorder.
Q4) Briefly define malingering and factitious disorders, and distinguish them from somatoform disorders in general.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Psychological Factors Affecting Medical Conditions
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the clinician believes that a psychological factor is affecting a medical condition, s/he indicates this by
A) listing the factor on Axis 3.
B) listing the condition on Axis 3.
C) placing a specific code on Axis 1.
D) placing a specific code on Axis 3.
E) placing the factor and the condition on Axis 1.
Q2) Explain the process of cellular immunity.
Q3) Cardiovascular reactivity refers to
A) the relationship between cardiovascular function and arherosclerosis.
B) that relationship between psychosocial stressors and cardiovascular disease.
C) the relationship between hypertension and psychosocial stressors.
D) how much a person's cardiovascular function changes in response to a psychologically significant stimulus.
E) how much hypertension is caused by a psychosocial stressor.
Q4) Name and define the three general psychosocial factors that have been shown to influence disease. For each, and in one sentence, summarize the link that research has supported between the psychosocial factor and physical disease.
Q5) Outline the differences between signs and symptoms.
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Chapter 8: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Canadian psychodynamic theorist Sidney Blatt discusses two personality patterns: _____________ and ______________ which have been shown to be predictors of depression in the face of stress.
A) dependency and self-criticism
B) aggression-hostility; obsessionality
C) pessimism; listlessness
D) brooding; critical / blaming
E) gloominess; listlessness
Q2) Smaller hippocampal volume in depressed individuals has been linked to A) cortisol hypersecretion.
B) reduced cortisol secretion.
C) positive feedback excitation of the HPA axis.
D) acute stress.
E) reduced ACTH secretion from the pituitary gland.
Q3) A number of studies have reported a significant association between hopelessness and suicide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the techniques of TMS and VNS and their effectiveness in treating depression.
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Chapter 9: Schizophrenia
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bleuler, in his early descriptions of schizophrenia, gave great emphasis on A) disorganized speech and thought disorder.
B) visual hallucinations.
C) delusions.
D) hallucinations.
E) delusions of grandeur.
Q2) A person with schizophrenia displaying flattened affect
A) withdraws socially.
B) does not express emotion.
C) does not experience physiological arousal.
D) laughs at inappropriate moments.
Q3) Identify the best practice in terms of treatment of schizophrenia. In your answer, choose three of the following treatment components: pharmacotherapy; CBT, cognitive remediation; social skills training; family therapy; early intervention. Back up your recommendations using research findings on the effectiveness and what aspects of the disorder are improved.
Q4) Negative symptoms tend to become more prominent after an individual has suffered from schizophrenia for several years.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Eating Disorders
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99 Verified Questions
99 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Due to the fact that only small distinctions often separate individuals with different eating disorders, it has been suggested that
A) eating disorders are really a subset of mood disorders.
B) eating disorders should be considered as one disorder, existing on a continuum of severity.
C) eating disorders are not a valid category in the DSM-IV-TR.
D) the category of eating disorders should be abandoned altogether, with a new one to replace it.
E) a greater variety of subtypes need to be introduced.
Q2) Anorexia and bulimia are similar in that both involve weight and shape as a primary source of self-evaluation, have low self-esteem, and involve some type of behavior aimed at affecting or controlling weight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People with anorexia usually develop a list of "feared" foods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa and specify the two subtypes.
Q5) Discuss the medical consequences of eating disorders.
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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114 Verified Questions
114 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eating only in restaurants that serve alcohol is an example of psychological dependence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sylvia finds that having a few drinks doesn't really affect her very much, but she got extremely dizzy and nauseous after drinking wine when she'd taken an aspirin. These effects resulted because
A) the combination of the two drugs had a greater effect than one alone.
B) Sylvia hadn't yet developed a tolerance for the drugs.
C) Sylvia was displaying withdrawal symptoms.
D) she had forgotten to eat before drinking.
E) Sylvia was exhibiting an impairment of control.
Q3) Antagonist drugs block the effects of psychoactive drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The nausea and headache associated with a hangover result from the accumulation of acetylaldehyde.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the long-term physical effects of alcohol.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Personality Disorders
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several researchers have suggested that the diagnostic criteria for some personality disorders are
A) culture-biased.
B) neither gender- nor culture-biased.
C) both gender- and culture-biased.
D) age-biased.
E) gender-biased.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of schizotypal personality disorder?
A) The long-term prognosis for those suffering from the disorder is moderate to good.
B) Researchers have placed most emphasis on the schizophrenic-like features.
C) Low doses of antipsychotic drugs somewhat relieve cognitive problems.
D) Many family members of schizophrenics exhibit symptoms of schizotypal personality disorder.
E) Antidepressants have been somewhat helpful in relieving symptoms.
Q3) Many people with personality disorders do not themselves believe that they have a problem.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 13: Sexual and Gender Identity Disorders
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following events take place during the excitement phase EXCEPT
A) swelling of the genital tissues.
B) rapid, shallow breathing.
C) elevation of the testes.
D) muscles tense.
E) increased heart rate.
Q2) The technology used to measure men's erectile responses to different types of stimuli is called
A) phallometry.
B) the squeezing technique.
C) pornography.
D) sensate focus.
E) penile arousal assessments.
Q3) The idea that conditioning is the basis of acquired preferences motivating men to engage in deviant or unusual sexual practices has received strong empirical support.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how Freund's (1990) courtship disorder theory might explain sexual offending.
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Chapter 14: Developmental Disorders
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106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the effects of phenylketonuria (PKU)? How is it detected and treated?
Q2) Diagnosis of mental retardation requires
A) significant deficits in IQ.
B) significant deficits in adaptive functioning.
C) significant deficits in IQ and one area of adaptive functioning.
D) significant deficits in IQ and two areas of adaptive functioning.
E) significant deficits in IQ and daily living skills.
Q3) Karen is taking her son David for an assessment concerning a potential diagnosis of autism. They are most likely to be assessed by a A) speech and language specialist.
B) psychiatrist.
C) multidisciplinary team.
D) social worker.
E) psychologist.
Q4) In general, biological treatments of autism have not been found to be effective. A)True B)False
Q5) In sex-linked inheritance, the abnormal gene is carried on the X chromosome. A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: Behaviour and Emotional Disorders of
Childhood and Adolescence
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113 Verified Questions
113 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common fears reported by children and adolescents include all of the following except
A) agoraphobia.
B) heights.
C) weather.
D) animals.
E) accidents.
Q2) Cunningham's Community Parent Education Program (COPE) is a large-group, community-based version of __________.
A) family therapy
B) problem-solving skills training
C) functional family therapy
D) parent training
E) contingency management
Q3) Describe the diagnostic criteria for separation anxiety disorder (SAD), and the difference between SAD and GAD.
Q4) Leo Kanner wrote the first text on child psychiatry in 1935.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how fear conditioning may result in anxiety disorders in children.
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Chapter 16: Mental Disorders and Aging
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114 Verified Questions
114 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since 1977, suicide rates among all groups of people have been higher in Canada than in the U.S.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The average course from diagnosis to death for individuals with AD is about 10 years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two myths concerning mental disorders and aging are that mental illness is common among older people and that treatment is not beneficial.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following statements are true about sleep apnea EXCEPT
A) the disorder results in hypoxemia.
B) sufferers often have difficulty remembering things.
C) sleep apnea is more common in men, especially with age.
D) sufferers often fall asleep during meetings, concerts, movies, etc.
E) episodes of cessation of breathing occur that last 10 seconds and occur approximately twice per night.
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18
Chapter 17: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recent research finds that the risk of adverse outcomes in older adults is greater for SSRIs than with _________ and yet, with all factors considered, Canadian guidelines continue to recommend SSRIs as first line medication for depression in older adults.
A) monoamine oxidase inhibitors
B) benzodiazepines
C) stimulants
D) SNRIs
E) tricyclics
Q2) Electroconvulsive therapy is used for disorders like schizophrenia, mood disorders, and anxiety disorders, especially when medication does not work.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Couples treatment has been found effective for problems such as depression or alcoholism in adults and conduct disorder in children.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What types of therapy have been found effective in treating anxiety disorders?
Q5) Discuss the use of Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in treating disorders.
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Chapter 18: Prevention and Mental Health Promotion in the Community
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Early Infancy Prenatal Program, nurse-visited women showed all of the following EXCEPT
A) improvement in the quality of their diets.
B) fewer kidney infections.
C) fewer preterm deliveries.
D) abusive behaviour toward their children.
E) more informal support and greater use of community services.
Q2) Compare and contrast the high-risk vs. the universal approach to promotion/prevention programs.
Q3) Community psychology had its roots in
A) clinical psychology.
B) sociological medicine.
C) organizational psychology.
D) developmental psychology.
E) ecological perspective.
Q4) The only way to reduce the impact of a risk factor is to remove that risk factor from the individual's environment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly outline future directions for prevention and promotion.
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Chapter 19: Mental Disorder and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although Canadian involuntary civil commitment criteria vary from province to province, similar elements do exist. List these and indicate how involuntary civil commitment in Canada differs from the conviction for a criminal offence.
Q2) Persons deemed Unfit to stand trial are specifically, on account of mental disorder, unable to do each of the following EXCEPT
A) understand the nature of the proceeding.
B) clearly relate the important facts about their offence to a judge.
C) understand the possible consequences of the proceeding.
D) communicate with counsel.
E) understand the object of the proceeding.
Q3) The five general ethical principles stated in the Code of Ethics include all of the following EXCEPT
A) principle of beneficence.
B) principle of autonomy.
C) principle of fidelity.
D) principle of science.
E) principle of nonmaleficence.
Q4) What specific type of mental disorder can result in a person being acquitted, or NCRMD?
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