Adult Health Nursing Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing is designed to provide students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills related to the care of adult patients experiencing a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. The course emphasizes the application of the nursing process, critical thinking, and evidence-based practices to promote optimal health outcomes in diverse adult populations. Topics include assessment, pharmacology, pathophysiology, disease management, health promotion, and patient education, with a strong focus on collaborating within interdisciplinary healthcare teams. Through lectures, simulations, and clinical experiences, students will develop the competencies needed to deliver safe, effective, and compassionate nursing care to adults in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Critical Care Nursing Diagnosis and Management 8th Edition by Linda D. Urden
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41 Chapters
1210 Verified Questions
1210 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2075
Page 2
Chapter 1: Critical Care Nursing Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41299
Sample Questions
Q1) What considerations are taken into account in evidence-based nursing practice?
A) Clinical expertise of the nurse
B) Availability of staff and facility equipment
C) Research evidence on the topic
D) Patient knowledge of the disease
E) Patient preference regarding care
Answer: A,C,E
Q2) The concept of diversity encompasses what thoughts and actions?
A) Sensitivity to ethnic differences
B) Openness to different lifestyles
C) Openness to different values
D) Reticence to different beliefs
E) Lack of concern regarding different opinions
Answer: A,B,C
Q3) What is the systematic decision-making model used by nurses termed?
A) Nursing diagnosis
B) Nursing interventions
C) Nursing evaluations
D) Nursing process
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Ethical Issues
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's wife has been informed by the practitioner that her spouse has permanent quadriplegia.The wife states that she does not want anyone to tell the patient about his injury.The patient asks the nurse about what has happened.Based on which ethical principles does the nurse answer the patient's questions?
A) Veracity
B) Justice
C) Autonomy
D) Nonmaleficence
Answer: C
Q2) What is the difference between ethics and morals?
A) Ethics is more concerned with the "why" of behavior.
B) Ethics provides a framework for evaluation of the behavior.
C) Ethics is broader in scope than morals.
D) Ethics concentrates on the right or wrong behavior based on religion and culture values.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Legal Issues
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse fails to recognize an intubated patient's need for suctioning.The endotracheal tube becomes clogged,and the patient has a respiratory arrest.What type of negligence may be present?
A) Assessment failure
B) Planning failure
C) Implementation failure
D) Evaluation failure
Answer: A
Q2) The ability to practice as a licensed professional nurse is a privilege granted by what entity?
A) Employee contract
B) State legislature
C) State boards of nursing
D) Congress
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Genetic Issues
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process that is used to make polypeptide chains that constitute proteins can be written as:
A) RNA DNA protein.
B) DNA RNA protein.
C) Protein RNA DNA.
D) Protein DNA RNA.
Q2) A family pedigree is used to determine whether a disease has a genetic component.What does a proband indicate in a family pedigree?
A) The disease being mother related or father related
B) The first person in the family who was diagnosed with the disorder
C) Who in the family is the xy band
D) The disease genotype including locus
Q3) Which patients would be candidates for genetic testing for long QT syndrome (LQTS)?
A) Patients with prolonged QT interval during a cardiac and genetic work-up
B) Family history of positive genotype and negative phenotype
C) Patients diagnosed with torsades de pointes
D) Family history of sudden cardiac death
E) Family history of bleeding disorders
F) Family history of obesity
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Chapter 5: Patient and Family Education
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the teaching-learning process?
A) It follows the distinct order of the nursing process, with each step of the process separate and without repetition.
B) It requires formal blocks of learning time that are planned during the shift.
C) It is a continuous activity that occurs during hospitalization and beyond.
D) It ends at the point of discharge.
Q2) Which intervention can support a learning environment in the critical care unit?
A) Providing a variety of caregivers to enhance the availability of different information
B) Allowing frequent uninterrupted rest periods to enhance obtaining structured sleep
C) Providing the patient lists of facts that can enhance understanding of the disease
D) Teaching according to a structured plan to enhance comprehension
Q3) What does the first step of the teaching-learning process involve?
A) Gathering data to assist in the assessment of learning needs
B) Identifying major learning needs for the patient
C) Identifying learning needs related to medical diagnosis
D) Evaluating the effects of prior teaching
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Chapter 6: Psychosocial and Spiritual Alterations and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells his family,"I don't know why I was placed on this earth just to suffer from cancer all my life.I just want to die." What psychosocial issue is the patient experiencing?
A) Lost control
B) Spiritual distress
C) Anxiety
D) Powerlessness
Q2) Which nursing intervention can help family members who are extremely upset?
A) Encouraging the family to visit as much as possible
B) Conveying what the patient is experiencing to the family
C) Supporting the family members away from the bedside
D) Assuring the family that the staff will take care of the technical aspects of the patient's care
Q3) What outcomes do psychosocial and spiritual interventions have the power to employ in a patient?
A) Hope
B) Fear
C) Will to survive
D) Energy
E) Ability to meet life's challenges.
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Chapter 7: Nutrition Alterations and Management
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient on mechanical ventilation is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN).Which statement is true?
A) Excessive calorie intake can cause an increase in PaCO .
B) The patient's head should remain elevated at 45 degrees to avoid aspiration.
C) Lipid intake should be maintained at greater than 2 g/kg/day.
D) TPN is preferred over the use of enteral feeding to avoid the complication of aspiration.
Q2) Which signs would alert the nurse to possible nutritional alterations?
A) Impaired wound healing
B) Edema
C) Nail growth
D) Muscle atrophy
E) Diaphoresis
Q3) How would a person with a BMI of 28 be classified?
A) Obese
B) Overweight or preobese
C) Normal weight
D) Underweight
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9
Chapter 8: Pain and Pain Management
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).The patient's spouse asks about the advantages of using this type of pain management therapy.What should the nurse say to the spouse?
A) "The method allows the patient to act preemptively by administering a bolus of medication when pain begins."
B) "This method allows the patient to choose between an opioid and a nonopioid medication to control pain."
C) "This method decreases the risk of respiratory depression and other side effects."
D) "This method allows for the rise and fall of the blood level of the opioid."
Q2) C fibers are small-diameter,unmyelinated fibers that transmit what type of pain?
A) Aching
B) Sharp
C) Prickling
D) Concentrated
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Chapter 9: Sedation,Agitation,and Delirium Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering propofol over an extended period,what laboratory value should the nurse routinely monitor?
A) Serum triglyceride level
B) Sodium and potassium levels
C) Platelet count
D) Acid-base balance
Q2) A patient is admitted with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).The patient has been intubated and is mechanically ventilated.The patient had become very agitated and required some sedation.After the patient's agitation is controlled,which medications would be most appropriate for long-term sedation?
A) Morphine 2 mg/h continuous IV drip
B) Haloperidol 15 mcg/kg/min continuous IV infusion
C) Propofol 5 mcg/kg/min by IV infusion
D) Lorazepam 0.01 to 0.1 mg/kg/h by IV infusion
Q3) What are the risk factors for delirium?
A) Hypertension, alcohol abuse, and benzodiazepine administration
B) Coma, hypoxemia, and trauma
C) Dementia, hypertension, and pneumonia
D) Coma, alcohol abuse, hyperglycemia
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Page 11
Chapter 10: End-Of-Life Care
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a powerful influence when the decision-making process is dealing with recovery or a peaceful death?
A) Hope
B) Religion
C) Culture
D) Ethics
Q2) Which of the following are considerations when making the decision to allow family at the bedside during resuscitation efforts?
A) The patient's wishes
B) Experience of the staff
C) The family's need to participate in all aspects of the patient's care
D) State regulatory issues
E) Seeing the resuscitation may confirm the impact of decisions made or delayed
Q3) Disagreement and distress among practitioners,nurse practitioners,and critical care nurses can lead to what issue?
A) Moral indignation
B) Ethical resentment
C) Moral distress
D) Interprofessional anguish
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Anatomy and Physiology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with right- and left-sided heart failure.The nurse's assessment reveals that the patient has 3+ pitting edema on the sacrum,blood pressure of 176/98 mm Hg,and bilateral crackles in the lungs.The patient is experiencing shortness of breath and chest discomfort.Increased afterload is probably present related to the patient's blood pressure.Which therapeutic measure will most likely decrease afterload in this patient?
A) Administration of vasodilators
B) Placement in high Fowler position
C) Elevation of extremities
D) Increasing intravenous fluids
Q2) Why do many patients with very high heart rates frequently have chest pain and shortness of breath?
A) Patients with heart disease frequently have an anxiety disorder as well.
B) The rapid pounding of the heart in the chest wall causes the physical pain.
C) The heart muscle gets tired from the increased work.
D) The decreased diastolic time decreases oxygen delivery to the myocardium.
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13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular Clinical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a history examination,a patient tells the nurse,"The cardiologist says I have a leaking valve." The nurse documents that the patient has a history of what condition?
A) Acute mitral regurgitation
B) Aortic insufficiency
C) Chronic mitral regurgitation
D) Pericarditis
Q2) An 82-year-old patient is admitted into the critical care unit with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure related to mitral stenosis.Physical assessment findings reveal tachycardia with an S3 and a 3/6 systolic murmur.Which of the following descriptions best describes the murmur heard with mitral stenosis?
A) High-pitched systolic sound
B) Medium-pitched systolic sound
C) High-pitched diastolic sound
D) Low-pitched diastolic sound
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14
Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Diagnostic Procedures
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74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What major clinical finding present in a patient with ventricular fibrillation (VF)?
A) Hypertension
B) Bradycardia
C) Diaphoresis
D) Pulselessness
Q2) A patient with a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L may exhibit what type of electrocardiographic changes?
A) A prominent U wave
B) Tall, peaked T waves
C) A narrowed QRS
D) Sudden ventricular dysrhythmias
Q3) A patient becomes unresponsive.The patient's heart rate is 32 beats/min in an idioventricular rhythm; blood pressure is 60/32 mm Hg; SpO is 90%; and respiratory rate is 14 breaths/min.Which intervention would the nurse do first?
A) Notify the physician and hang normal saline wide open.
B) Notify the physician and obtain the defibrillator.
C) Notify the physician and obtain a temporary pacemaker.
D) Notify the physician and obtain a 12-lead ECG.
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the acute phase after ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI),fibrinolytic therapy is used in combination with heparin to recanalize the coronary artery.What dosage is the initial heparin bolus?
A) 60 units/kg maximum 5000 units
B) 30 units/kg maximum 3000 units
C) 25 units/kg maximum of 2500 units
D) 12 units/kg maximum of 1000 units
Q2) Which laboratory value indicates a heightened risk for the development of coronary artery disease (CAD)?
A) Total cholesterol level of 170 mg/dL
B) HDL cholesterol level of 30 mg/dL
C) Triglyceride level of 120 mg/dL
D) LDL cholesterol level >190 mg/dL
Q3) Which classification of dysrhythmia is most common with an inferior wall infarction in the first hour after ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?
A) Sinus tachycardia
B) Multifocal PVCs
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Sinus bradycardia
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Cardiovascular Therapeutic Management
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which dosage of dopamine results in stimulation of beta1 receptors and increased myocardial contractility?
A) 1 mcg/kg/min
B) 5 mcg/kg/min
C) 15 mcg/kg/min
D) 20 mcg/kg/min
Q2) Nursing interventions after angioplasty would include which of the following?
A) Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees
B) Hydration as a renal protection measure
C) Assessing pedal pulses on the involved limb every 15 minutes for the first 2 hours after the procedure
D) Monitoring the vascular hemostatic device for signs of bleeding
E) Educating the patient on the necessity of staying supine for 1 to 2 hours after the procedure
Q3) Adenosine is an antidysrhythmic agent that is given primarily what reason?
A) To convert supraventricular tachycardias
B) To suppress premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
C) To treat second and third degree AV blocks
D) To coarsen ventricular fibrillation so that defibrillation is effective
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pulmonary Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in diabetic ketoacidosis would exhibit what alteration to the pulmonary system?
A) Breathe faster to increase pH
B) Breathe slower to increase pH
C) Breathe faster to decrease pH
D) Breathe slower to decrease pH
Q2) If a patient sustained an injury to the apneustic center in the lower pons area,in which area should the nurse most expect the patient to exhibit problems?
A) Respiratory rate
B) Triggering exhalation
C) Respiratory rhythm
D) Depth of respiration
Q3) Which nerve stimulates movement of the diaphragm?
A) Musculocutaneous nerve
B) Phrenic nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Axillary nerve
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18
Chapter 17: Pulmonary Clinical Assessment
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with acute lung failure secondary to emphysema.Percussion of the lung fields will predictably exhibit which tone?
A) Resonance
B) Hyperresonance
C) Tympany
D) Dullness
Q2) The nurse is performing a pulmonary assessment on a patient with a pleural effusion.Which finding is unexpected?
A) Increased diaphragmatic excursion
B) Decreased tactile fremitus
C) Dull percussion tones
D) Pleural friction rub
Q3) When auscultating a patient's lungs,the nurse notes breath sounds that sound like popping in the small airways.What should the nurse document in the patient's record?
A) Sonorous wheezes
B) Crackles
C) Sibilant wheezes
D) Pleural friction rub
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Chapter 18: Pulmonary Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe coughing and shortness of breath during a thoracentesis are indicative of what complication?
A) Re-expansion pulmonary edema
B) Pleural infection
C) Pneumothorax
D) Hemothorax
Q2) Place the steps for analyzing arterial blood gases in the proper order.
1)Assess HCO ¯ level for metabolic abnormalities
2)Assess PaO for hypoxemia
3)Examine PaCO for acidosis or alkalosis
4)Re-examine pH to determine level of compensation
5)Examine pH for acidemia or alkalemia
A) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
B) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
D) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major hemodynamic consequence of a massive pulmonary embolus?
A) Increased systemic vascular resistance leading to left heart failure
B) Pulmonary hypertension leading to right heart failure
C) Portal vein blockage leading to ascites
D) Embolism to the internal carotids leading to a stroke
Q2) Which nursing intervention should be used to optimize oxygenation and ventilation in the patient with acute lung failure?
A) Provide adequate rest and recovery time between procedures.
B) Position the patient with the good lung up.
C) Suction the patient every hour.
D) Avoid hyperventilating the patient.
Q3) Patients with left-sided pneumonia may benefit from placing them in which position?
A) Reverse Trendelenburg
B) Supine
C) On the left side
D) On the right side
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21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes the effects of positive-pressure ventilation on cardiac output?
A) Positive-pressure ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure, which increases venous return and cardiac output.
B) Positive-pressure ventilation decreases venous return, which increases preload and cardiac output.
C) Positive-pressure ventilation increases venous return, which decreases preload and cardiac output.
D) Positive-pressure ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return and cardiac output.
Q2) A patient was taken to surgery for a left lung resection.The patient returned to the unit 30 minutes ago.Upon completion of the assessment,the nurse notices that the chest tube has drained 150 mL of red fluid in the past 30 minutes.The nurse contacts the physician and suspects that the patient has developed what complication?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Hemorrhage
C) Acute lung failure
D) Bronchopleural fistula
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Chapter 21: Neurologic Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lobe of the brain deals primarily with sensory function?
A) Frontal lobe
B) Temporal lobe
C) Occipital lobe
D) Parietal lobe
Q2) Which type of hematoma results from traumatic injury involving the middle meningeal artery?
A) Subdural
B) Epidural
C) Subarachnoid
D) Intercerebral
Q3) What is the tissue that adheres directly to the brain called?
A) Dura mater
B) Arachnoid mater
C) Pia mater
D) Blood-brain barrier
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Chapter 22: Neurologic Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic
Procedures
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being prepared for a neurologic work-up.The practitioner is getting ready to perform a lumbar puncture.What is the best position for the nurse to place the patient in for the procedure?
A) Prone
B) Reverse Trendelenburg
C) High Fowler
D) Lateral recumbent position with knees and head slightly tucked.
Q2) What sites can be used for monitoring intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A) Intraventricular space
B) Epidural space
C) Jugular veins
D) Subdural space
E) Parenchyma
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with an intracranial pressure-monitoring device that provides access to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)for sampling.What type of device does the patient have?
A) Subarachnoid bolt
B) Epidural catheter
C) Intraventricular catheter
D) Fiber-optic catheter
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Neurologic Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an object is placed in the hand of a patient with neurologic impairment during assessment,the patient is unable to recognize the placement.What is this complication called?
A) Homonymous hemianopsia
B) Aphasia
C) Agnosia
D) Apraxia
Q2) Appropriate therapy for ischemic stroke depends on rapid completion of which diagnostic study?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging
B) Noncontrast computed tomography
C) Contrast computed tomography
D) Lumbar puncture
Q3) What is one cause of metabolic coma?
A) Trauma
B) Ischemic stroke
C) Drug overdose
D) Intracerebral hemorrhage
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Chapter 24: Kidney Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted with acute kidney injury.Which serum laboratory values would the nurse expect to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?
A) Sodium and potassium
B) Creatinine and calcium
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatine
D) Potassium and magnesium
Q2) What is the functional unit of the kidney called?
A) Bowman capsule
B) Glomerulus
C) Nephron
D) Distal tubule
Q3) Maintaining a normal range of serum potassium is important for what physiologic process?
A) Fluid regulation
B) Acid-base buffering
C) Nervous impulse conduction
D) Triggering antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release
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26
Chapter 25: Kidney Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic
Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes the presence of myoglobin in urine?
A) Bleeding
B) Traumatic damage to the skeletal muscle
C) Asthmatic attack
D) Rhabdomyolysis
E) Cocaine abuse
Q2) Which findings may be present in the patient with significant fluid volume overload?
A) S3 or S4 may develop.
B) Distention of the hand veins will disappear if the hand is elevated.
C) When testing the quality of skin turgor, the skin will not return to the normal position for several seconds.
D) Tachycardia with hypotension may be present.
E) Dependent edema may be present.
Q3) As serum osmolality rises,intravascular fluid equilibrium will be maintained by the release of what substance?
A) Ketones
B) Glucagon
C) Antidiuretic hormone
D) Potassium
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Chapter 26: Kidney Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) To remove fluid during hemodialysis,a positive hydrostatic pressure is applied to the blood and a negative hydrostatic pressure is applied to the dialysate bath.What is this process called?
A) Ultrafiltration
B) Hemodialysis
C) Reverse osmosis
D) Colloid extraction
Q2) A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI)has been started on continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD).The nurse understands the patient should be closely monitored for what patient-related complications of the therapy?
A) Air embolism, access failure, and blood leaks
B) Decreased inflow pressure, air bubbles, and power surge
C) Infection, hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances
D) Catheter dislodgement, decreased outflow pressure, and acid-base imbalances
Q3) What is the dose for low-dose dopamine?
A) 1 to 2 mcg/kg/min
B) 1 to 2 mg/kg/min
C) 2 to 3 mcg/kg/min
D) 2 to 3 mg/kg/min
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ lies obliquely beneath the cardiac sphincter and above the pyloric sphincter?
A) Esophagus
B) Stomach
C) Duodenum
D) Ileum
Q2) The pancreas has both exocrine and endocrine properties.Which substances are produced by the exocrine function?
A) Gastrin
B) Trypsin
C) Amylase
D) Lipase
E) Insulin
Q3) Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system produces which effect on the gastrointestinal system?
A) Decreased peristalsis
B) Increased secretion of watery saliva
C) Decreased colonic activity
D) Increased release of gastrointestinal hormones
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Chapter 28: Gastrointestinal Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was admitted with pancreatitis.Which laboratory value would the nurse expect the practitioner order to confirm this diagnosis?
A) Bilirubin
B) Amylase
C) Lactate dehydrogenase
D) Ammonia
Q2) Which anatomic structures are found in the right upper quadrant?
A) Duodenum
B) Portion of the transverse colon
C) Liver
D) Stomach
E) Cecum
Q3) A patient was admitted with pancreatitis.The nurse is auscultating the patient's abdomen.How long must the nurse listen to be able to accurately chart that bowel sounds are absent?
A) 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 3 minutes
D) 5 minutes
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Chapter 29: Gastrointestinal Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was admitted with severe epigastric pain and has been diagnosed with cancer.The patient is scheduled for an esophagectomy.The patient asks about the procedure.What would be an appropriate response from the nurse?
A) "This procedure is usually performed for cancer of the proximal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction."
B) "This procedure is usually performed for cancer of the distal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction."
C) "This procedure is usually performed for cancer of the pancreatic head."
D) "The procedure is usually performed for varices of the distal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction."
Q2) An older patient reports taking cimetidine for several years.The nurse knows that this medication can cause central nervous system side effects.For what side effect would the nurse monitor the patient?
A) Tremors
B) Dizziness
C) Confusion
D) Hallucinations
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Chapter 30: Endocrine Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased insulin and increased glucagon result in what physiologic process?
A) Increased glycogenolysis
B) Decreased fat mobilization
C) Decreased ketosis
D) Increased glycogen storage
Q2) A patient with thyrotoxicosis has been admitted.What effect of increased T and T levels might the nurse expect to see in this patient?
A) Increased oxygen consumption
B) Decreased basal metabolic rate
C) Decreased cardiac output
D) Increased calcium levels
Q3) A patient has been admitted after a craniotomy.The patient starts to exhibit changes in the level of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).The nurse knows that ADH works primarily affects which organ?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Stomach
D) Kidneys
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Chapter 31: Endocrine Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with a traumatic brain injury.Yesterday the patient weighed 62 kg and today the patient weighs 60 kg.How much fluid loss does this change in weight reflect?
A) 1 L
B) 2 L
C) 4 L
D) 10 L
Q2) A nurse is initiating a patient teaching plan for a patient with hypothyroidism.The patient is currently taking salicylates,lithium,and sulfonamides.It is important that the nurse tell the patient that these medications influence thyroid levels.How are thyroid levels affected by these medications?
A) They increase T
B) They increasing T
C) They decrease T
D) They decrease T
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Chapter 32: Endocrine Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes is admitted.He is very lethargic and hypotensive.A diagnosis of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS)is given.Which findings support this diagnosis?
A) Decreased serum glucose and increased serum ketones
B) Increased urine ketones and decreased serum osmolality
C) Increased serum osmolality and increased serum potassium
D) Increased serum osmolality and increased serum glucose
Q2) A patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).The nurse knows that the dehydration associated with DKA results from which pathophysiologic mechanism?
A) Increased serum osmolality and urea
B) Decreased serum osmolality and hyperglycemia
C) Ketones and potassium shifts
D) Acute renal failure
Q3) Which nursing intervention should be initiated on all patients with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
A) Placing the patient on an air mattress
B) Forcing fluids
C) Initiating seizure precautions
D) Applying soft restraints
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Chapter 33: Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with a C5-C6 subluxation fracture.He is able to move his legs better than he can move his arms.The nurse suspects the patient may have which type of injury?
A) Posterior cord syndrome
B) Brown-Séquard syndrome
C) Diffuse axonal injury
D) Central cord syndrome
Q2) The nurse understands that certain trauma patients are at risk for developing fat embolism syndrome.Which group of patients is a high risk for this complication?
A) Patients with liver trauma
B) Patients with burns
C) Patients with orthopedic trauma
D) Patients with spleen trauma
Q3) An unresponsive trauma patient has been admitted to the emergency department.Which statement regarding opening the airway is accurate?
A) Airway assessment must incorporate cervical spine immobilization.
B) Hyperextension of the neck is the only acceptable technique.
C) Flexion of the neck protects the patient from further injury.
D) Airway patency takes priority over cervical spine immobilization.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Shock,sepsis,and Multiple-Organ Dysfunction Syndrome
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Q1) A patient has been admitted with septic shock due to urinary sepsis.The practitioner inserts a pulmonary artery (PA)catheter.Which hemodynamic value would the nurse expect to note to support this diagnosis?
A) Cardiac output (CO) of 8 L/min
B) Right atrial pressure (RAP) of 17 mm Hg
C) Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 23 mm Hg
D) Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of 1100 dyne/s/cm-5
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient in septic shock due secondary to pneumonia.The nurse knows that evidence-based guidelines for the treatment of septic shock include which interventions?
A) Administer norepinephrine to maintain mean arterial pressure of 65 mm Hg.
B) Administer low-dose dopamine to maintain urine output greater than 30 mL/h.
C) Start enteral nutrition within the first 48 hours after diagnosis of septic shock.
D) Administer 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate greater than or equal to 4 mmol/L.
E) Perform an adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test to identify patients who need hydrocortisone
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department after a house fire.He fell asleep with a lit cigarette,and the couch ignited.Total body surface area (TBSA)burn is estimated at 25% deep partial-thickness burns to areas of the chest,back,and left arm and 20% full-thickness burns to the right arm,right upper leg,and areas on the face.The patient's weight is estimated at 85 kg.What is the initial plan for fluid replacement?
A) 5950 mL of Lactated Ringer (LR) solution for the first 8 hours; then 5950 mL of LR over the next 16 hours
B) 2868 mL of normal saline (NS) for the first 8 hours; then 5737 mL of hypertonic NS over the next 16 hours
C) 11,900 mL of dextran evenly divided over the first 24 hours
D) 11,475 mL of LR evenly divided over the first 24 hours
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department with extensive burns after a house fire.What is an important nursing intervention for this patient during the resuscitation phase?
A) Intravenous opiates and assessment of pulses in both arms
B) Oral antiinflammatory drugs and preparation for insertion of an arterial line
C) Measurement of sedimentation rate and systemic antibiotics
D) Application of splints and initiation of total parenteral nutrition
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Chapter 36: Organ Donation and Transplantation
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Q1) Which statement would indicate that a patient who has received an organ transplant understands the teaching about immunosuppressive medications?
A) "My drug dosages will be lower because the medications enhance each other."
B) "I will be less prone to side effects because I will be taking more than one drug."
C) "Lower doses of these medications put me at greater risk for infection."
D) "Taking more than one medication will put me at risk for developing allergies."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient after a heart transplant.Which finding would the nurse anticipate after cardiac transplantation?
A) Two P waves on the electrocardiogram (ECG)
B) High cardiac output
C) Anginal pain
D) Resting heart rate of 60 to 70 beats/min
Q3) Who determines the medical suitability of the patient for organ donation?
A) The organ procurement organization (OPO) coordinator
B) The patient's family
C) The admitting health care provider
D) The transplant team
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Chapter 37: Hematologic and Oncologic Emergencies
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Q1) A patient has been admitted with immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP).Which sign and symptoms would the nurse expect to note to support this diagnosis?
A) Gingival bleeding
B) Retinal hemorrhage
C) Fluid retention
D) Muscle cramps
E) Petechial hemorrhages on legs
Q2) What is the primary mechanism in the development of tumor lysis syndrome?
A) Destruction of platelets by lymphocytic antibodies
B) Destruction of malignant cells through radiation or chemotherapy
C) Formation of heparin antibodies
D) Damage to the endothelium
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with type 2 heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).The nurse knows that pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of HIT.Which findings would alert the nurse to the presence of this complication?
A) Blanching of fingers and toes and loss of peripheral pulses
B) Chest pain, pallor, and confusion
C) Headache, impaired speech, and loss of motor function
D) Dyspnea, pleuritic pain, and rales
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Page 39
Chapter 38: The Obstetric Patient
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Q1) The treatment plan for management of an obstetric patient with peripartum cardiomyopathy (PPCM)includes which interventions?
A) Oxygen therapy, pain management, and preload enhancement
B) Walking exercises, diuretics, and anticoagulants
C) Diuretics, digoxin, and anticoagulation
D) Fluid resuscitation, beta-blockers, and vasoconstrictors
Q2) The mnemonic "tone,tissue,trauma,and thrombosis" refers to potential causes of which disorder?
A) Hypoxia
B) Abruptio placentae
C) Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)
D) Trauma
Q3) A patient has been admitted with severe preeclampsia.The nurse knows that the patient's treatment plan would include which goals?
A) Prevention of seizures
B) Decreasing arterial spasms
C) Prompt delivery of the fetus
D) Support of hypotension
E) Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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Page 40
Chapter 39: The Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the normal cerebral perfusion pressure values for a child?
A) 30 to 50 mm Hg
B) 40 to 60 mm Hg
C) Values are unknown
D) 60 to 100 mm Hg
Q2) A 4-year-old child is admitted to the critical care unit with fever,chills,headache,vomiting,lethargy,photophobia,and nuchal rigidity.The patient has been unable to eat,and tube feedings are to be initiated.What is the preferred method for determining the insertion length of the nasogastric tube?
A) Measure from the naris to ear to xiphoid process.
B) Measure from the ear to the umbilicus.
C) Measure from the naris to the xiphoid to ear.
D) Measure from the naris to ear to a point between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus.
Q3) Central cyanosis is associated with which phenomena?
A) Decreased peripheral blood flow
B) Desaturation of arterial blood
C) Reduced hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
D) Permanent cerebral hypoxia
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Page 41
Chapter 40: The Older Adult Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older patient is admitted to the hospital with a hip fracture.Which nursing intervention would be a priority?
A) Encourage frequent deep breathing.
B) Administer stool softeners.
C) Perform neurologic checks.
D) Frequently offer liquids to drink.
Q2) An 82-year-old patient was admitted after an inferior myocardial infarction.Why would the nurse need to provide increased attention to the patient's skin integrity?
A) There is thickening of the epidermal skin layer.
B) There is a loss of sebaceous glands.
C) There is loss of subcutaneous tissue.
D) There is decreased melanocyte production.
Q3) A 78-year-old patient was admitted after an inferior myocardial infarction.The patient awakens during the night confused and disoriented.The nurse suspects the patient may be developing what condition?
A) Stroke
B) Neurocognitive decline
C) Delirium
D) Dementia
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Page 42
Chapter 41: The Perianesthesia Patient
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Q1) The nurse suspects that a patient has aspirated.What action would the nurse take immediately?
A) Raise the head of the bed to a 45- to 90-degree angle.
B) Lower the bed and turn the head to the side.
C) Notify the physician and prepare to intubate the patient.
D) Call for chest radiography to verify aspiration.
Q2) Which stage of general anesthesia begins with the initiation of an anesthetic agent and ends with loss of consciousness?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q3) The coughing maneuver in which a patient takes a deep breath and then performs multiple coughs on exhalation of that breath is known as what type of cough?
A) Serial
B) Cascade
C) Sustained maximal
D) Deep
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