Adult Health Nursing Test Preparation - 1873 Verified Questions

Adult Health Nursing Test Preparation

Course Introduction

Adult Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of adult patients experiencing acute and chronic health conditions. The course covers the principles and practices of nursing interventions, critical thinking, patient assessment, clinical decision-making, and the implementation of evidence-based strategies to promote, restore, and maintain health. Emphasis is placed on cultural sensitivity, patient safety, interprofessional collaboration, and ethical considerations in caring for adults across diverse settings. Students will also explore the impact of health disparities, the role of patient education, and effective communication to enhance patient outcomes.

Recommended Textbook

Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition

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82 Chapters

1873 Verified Questions

1873 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a 60-year-old man who experienced a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The nurse works with the client to prevent aspiration when eating. This is an example of A) epidemiologic prevention.

B) primary prevention.

C) secondary prevention.

D) tertiary prevention.

Answer: D

Q2) During a nursing history before a physical exam, a nurse identifies a client as being in a violent relationship. The most important intervention by the nurse at this time is to A) ask the physician to order a series of x-rays to look for old broken bones.

B) call the police if the abusive partner is in the waiting room.

C) help the woman develop an individual plan to diminish future abuse.

D) refer her to the local battered women's shelter.

Answer: C

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3

Chapter 2: Health Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the preparation of a nursing care plan relative to the client's mental status, the least helpful data would be those resulting from

A) client's overall response to the interview.

B) formal psychological tests.

C) notation of appropriateness of affect.

D) observation of nonverbal behavior.

Answer: B

Q2) Auscultation

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Answer: B

Q3) To assess precipitating factors, the nurse interviewer would ask

A) "Do you remember the first time you had this problem?"

B) "How many times has the problem been related to activity?"

C) "What measures relieve this problem for you?"

D) "What were you doing when you first noticed the problem?"

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Critical Thinking

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse with 6 year's labor and delivery experience is floated to the intensive care unit. In this situation, the nurse would most likely function at the level of

A) advanced beginner.

B) competent.

C) novice.

D) proficient.

Answer: C

Q2) A nurse who is alert to changes, confident, open-minded, proactive, and questioning is displaying which characteristics?

A) Alfaro's Attitudes and Characteristics of a Critical Thinker

B) Benner's Five Levels of Competency in Nurses

C) Hawk's Model of Critical Thinking in Registered Nurses

D) Universal Intellectual Standards

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine, complementary medicine is

A) prescribed and overseen by a medical physician.

B) treatment of a physical illness by a spiritual intervention.

C) used in place of conventional medicine.

D) used together with conventional medicine.

Q2) Of the many complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) modalities available in the United States, the most rapidly growing area is A) acupressure.

B) acupuncture.

C) dietary supplementation.

D) meditation.

Q3) Because of the repetitive, slow, controlled movement involved, the nurse suggests that a client with arthritis may benefit from the CAM therapy of A) Ayurveda.

B) biofeedback.

C) Reiki.

D) Tai Chi.

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6

Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ambulatory care center nurse assures a dubious client that she has been certified as an ambulatory nurse by

A) application to the Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care.

B) membership in the National Committee for Quality Assurance.

C) passing a specialized examination.

D) working as an ambulatory care nurse for 5 years.

Q2) The nurse-manager explains to a new nurse at the ambulatory clinic that the service for which the telephone nursing practice is not feasible is

A) assessing a client's needs based on the nurse's perception.

B) developing a collaborative plan of care with a client.

C) evaluating outcomes of practice and care.

D) prioritizing the urgency of a client's needs.

Q3) Ambulatory care centers include

A) care available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.

B) care for short-term medical-surgical procedures.

C) services for those unable to provide self-care after a procedure.

D) sleeping accommodations for a family member.

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Acute Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The prepayment plan developed in 1929 is

A) Blue Cross Health Insurance.

B) Medicare Insurance.

C) Medicaid Insurance.

D) Health Maintenance Organization.

Q2) An applicant was denied employment with a health care agency because she is a recovering alcoholic. This action by the agency violates the A) Age Discrimination and Employment Act.

B) Americans with Disabilities Act.

C) Civil Rights Act.

D) Occupational Safety and Health Act.

Q3) When a nurse is able to work effectively in more than one care area (e.g., general medical-surgical, and cardiac care unit), the nurse is said to be A) cross-trained.

B) flexibly assigned.

C) nursing intense.

D) skill mixed.

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Chapter 7: Critical Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse who is acting in a manner that respects and supports the client's and family's basic rights, values, and beliefs is functioning in which professional role?

A) Advocate

B) Caregiver

C) Critical thinker

D) Manager

Q2) The population that is increasingly using critical care units and needing specialized nursing care is the population of

A) elderly.

B) middle-age adults.

C) underserved pregnant women.

D) uninsured.

Q3) Critical care units (CCUs) have been developed in almost all hospitals because such units

A) allow for concentration of expert personnel.

B) can offer special services to the family.

C) contain costs.

D) separate the seriously ill from the other clients.

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9

Chapter 8: Home Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The domain of the Omaha System that the nurse would reference in making her assessment relative to caretaking/parenting is

A) Environment.

B) Health-Related Behaviors.

C) Physiological.

D) Psychosocial.

Q2) The component that is not part of the Omaha System is

A) Intervention Scheme.

B) Problem Classification Scheme.

C) Problem Rating Scale for Outcomes.

D) Rating Scale for Client Satisfaction.

Q3) The nurse explains to a client that the person who would be most likely to receive home health care is the client who is

A) 65-years-old with a wrist fracture.

B) 68-years-old with a cataract in one eye.

C) 72-years-old with diabetes mellitus.

D) 74-years-old with a hearing impairment.

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10

Chapter 9: Long-Term Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) In 1965 the enactment of Medicare and Medicaid provided older adults and poor persons with the assurance of

A) a minimal level of health care.

B) a reasonable standard of living.

C) guaranteed housing.

D) increased food allowance funding.

Q2) In regard to nursing services in a long-term care facility, OBRA regulations include

A) a director of nursing that holds at least a master's degree in health administration.

B) availability of vocational nurses on each unit 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.

C) the presence of at least four direct caregivers on duty per unit for each shift, regardless of census.

D) the provision of nursing personnel consistent with the level of care and needs of residents.

Q3) The enactment of Social Security in 1935 afforded older adults the ability to

A) enter a city-sponsored nursing home.

B) purchase care privately.

C) receive care by a physician in the home.

D) stay in hospitals until completely well.

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11

Chapter 10: Rehabilitation

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Sample Questions

Q1) To set the stage for a successful rehabilitation experience, the rehabilitation nurse helps the client and the family conceptualize their definition of A) activity participation.

B) independence.

C) quality of life.

D) wellness.

Q2) The rehabilitation nurse ensures that teaching is (Select all that apply)

A) designed, delivered, and reinforced in ways that are meaningful.

B) designed to cover all aspects of the rehabilitation process.

C) individualized to the client and family even when standardized material is used.

D) presented in appropriate levels and formats.

E) readily available so that learning can occur when the learner is ready.

Q3) A nurse incorporating a client's psychosocial reaction to a disabling illness into the plan of care would use a staging model because the model

A) allows the nurse to group the client with peers for socializing.

B) describes the process of adaptation as a standardized process.

C) explains some common reactions to the disabling condition.

D) predicts the experience of psychosocial adaptation.

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Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances

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17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When assessing the laboratory values for an assigned client with fluid excess, the nurse finds the value that is consistent with this diagnosis to be

A) BUN 12 mg/dl.

B) hematocrit of 46%.

C) plasma osmolality of 285 mOsm/kg.

D) plasma sodium level of 129 mEq/L.

Q2) A client who regularly exercises vigorously is being discharged from the emergency department after suffering from dehydration that was corrected. The nurse would realize that the client needs additional instructions when the client says

A) "Drinking water too fast just goes through the kidneys and doesn't help."

B) "I will try to avoid exercising outside in high humidity."

C) "OK, I'll stop trying to lose weight by wearing sweats all summer long."

D) "When I get thirsty, I know to stop and drink something then."

Q3) The nurse anticipates that an order for an isotonic intravenous (IV) solution will read

A)0.45% sodium chloride.

B)0.9% sodium chloride.

C) 3% sodium chloride.

D) 5% dextrose in water.

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13

Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client who is scheduled for surgery the following day has preoperative electrolyte levels drawn. The nurse would notify the surgeon's office to report

A) a calcium level of 9.6 mg/dl.

B) a chloride level of 101 mEq/L.

C) a potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L.

D) a sodium level of 132 mEq/L.

Q2) When giving IV potassium, the nurse takes the precaution of A) agitating the bag to prevent bolus administration.

B) ensuring potassium dilution with glucose solution.

C) leaving the IV cannula inserted as long as possible.

D) using a large cannula for infusion.

Q3) A client has been admitted with hypokalemia but all treatments have failed to raise the potassium level suitably. The nurse would assess the client further and report findings of

A) chronic insomnia.

B) estrogen use.

C) laxative abuse.

D) recent leg fracture.

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14

Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance

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20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse performs Allen's test before obtaining an ABG specimen to determine

A) if an allergy to heparin is present.

B) if ulnar circulation is adequate.

C) the patency of the radial artery.

D) the presence of neuromuscular weakness.

Q2) The nurse assesses that the client admitted in respiratory acidosis has compensated when the arterial blood gas (ABG) readings are

A) carbon dioxide level of 50 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 30 mEq/L.

B) carbon dioxide level of 50 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 20 mEq/L.

C) carbon dioxide level of 30 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 30 mEq/L.

D) carbon dioxide level of 30 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 24 mEq/L.

Q3) A client has a blood pH of 7.30 and is being treated with an infusion of sodium bicarbonate. The nurse should assess this client for a possible delayed reaction of increasing levels of which component in the blood?

A) Bicarbonate

B) Calcium

C) Carbon dioxide

D) Glucose

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Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains to a client that because of alterations in liver function caused by cirrhosis, the client is predisposed to postoperative fluid shifts and wound infection related to

A) elevated creatinine phosphokinase levels.

B) elevated lactic dehydrogenase levels.

C) low albumin levels.

D) low blood urea nitrogen levels.

Q2) On the preoperative assessment, the nurse notes the suggestion of susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia during surgery in the client's statement that

A) "I frequently have numbness and tingling in my hands."

B) "I usually feel very warm and tend to perspire heavily."

C) "My mother died from anesthesia problems."

D) "On occasion I've had muscle tenderness around my jaw."

Q3) Preoperative assessment data that should be reported to the surgeon include A) complaining of mild anxiety.

B) having a sore throat.

C) potassium level within normal range.

D) using acetaminophen for headaches.

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Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse providing genetic counseling explains that when one parent has an autosomal dominant gene for an inherited disease, the chances of the child being affected are

A) 10%.

B) 25%.

C) 50%.

D) 100%.

Q2) A nurse counseling a couple about genetic disorders explains that Tay-Sachs disease is a genetically linked disorder seen in 7% of the

A) African-American ethnic group.

B) Ashkenazi Jewish ethnic group.

C) Hispanic ethnic group.

D) Northern European ethnic group.

Q3) The nurse working with clients who seek genetic testing has an important role in (Select all that apply)

A) ensuring privacy and confidentiality.

B) helping the client negotiate disruptions in family dynamics.

C) recognizing the potential for stigmatization.

D) understanding the process of informed consent.

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Page 17

Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is administering IV chemotherapy. What personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse use when doing this task?

A) A gown and gloves

B) Gloves and a mask

C) No special PPE is needed

D) Only gloves

Q2) The nurse reviewing a research report recognizes that a discussion of oncogenes will address

A) a chemotherapeutic agent that eradicates viruses that cause cancer.

B) factors in the immune system protecting the client from malignant growths.

C) risk factors in cancer development.

D) segments of DNA that transform normal cells into malignant cells.

Q3) After explaining how malignant cells differ from normal cells to a client with breast cancer, the nurse knows the client understands the characteristics of malignant cells when the client says "Malignant cells

A) are larger than normal cells and have designated purposes."

B) cannot grow if inflammation is present."

C) develop chromosomal abnormalities as they mature."

D) develop the same antigens as normal cells do."

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is developing a long-term plan for a 45-year-old client with a malignancy. The factor that would disqualify this client from receiving hospice services is

A) a life expectancy of less than 6 months.

B) an annual income of more than $30,000.

C) initiation of a course of curative chemotherapy.

D) living alone in an apartment complex.

Q2) The nurse administering granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF; Neupogen) to a client who is also receiving chemotherapy should assess the client for A) a rash.

B) bone pain.

C) fatigue.

D) muscle aches.

Q3) The nursing action that has the highest priority for a 32-year-old client with an implanted radiation source should focus on

A) assessing the client's reaction to the diagnosis and treatment.

B) preventing skin problems related to radiation.

C) promoting regular activity while confined to the room.

D) safeguarding the client and others from unnecessary radiation exposure.

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Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) To assist in the healing of a large leg ulcer, the nurse applies wet dressings to the wound to promote A) angiogenesis.

B) chemotaxis.

C) epithelialization.

D) wound contraction.

Q2) Four days after a client's surgery, the nurse assesses a collagen mass under the client's suture line as an indication of A) abscess.

B) edema.

C) healing ridge.

D) infection.

Q3) On removing a dressing from a client on the third postoperative day, the nurse notes thin, pink-colored drainage and documents this as A) serous.

B) sanguineous.

C) serosanguineous.

D) purulent.

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Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse can best instruct a client to avoid the acquisition of hookworm by A) advising the client not to eat raw pork products.

B) advising the client to drink only bottled water when traveling.

C) encouraging the client to wear shoes outdoors.

D) teaching the client good hand-washing technique.

Q2) The nurse gives diligent catheter care to the clients in a nursing home because the nurse is aware that bacteria can migrate into the bladder in A) 5 hours.

B) 10 hours.

C) 24 hours.

D) 72 hours.

Q3) The nurse caring for a client who develops a urinary tract infection during hospitalization explains that the infection is likely a A) consequence of bacteremia.

B) nidus formation.

C) nosocomial infection.

D) viral infection.

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Clients with Pain

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a client from the Mexican culture who is moaning and groaning in response to pain. The nurse plans care understanding that this response is viewed in the client's culture as

A) a means to eliminate the pain.

B) a method of expressing unmet needs.

C) a woman-like and weak response to pain.

D) an expression of acceptance of pain.

Q2) An elderly client has mild dementia and the nurse feels the client may be in pain. The best way for the nurse to assess this client for pain is by

A) asking direct questions about pain.

B) changing the way the nurse phrases the questions.

C) having the client rate pain with a 1-10 scale.

D) using the FACES pain scale.

Q3) The client with neuropathic pain develops allodynia, which A) can be relieved by daily doses of opioids.

B) is a vague pain that is difficult for the client to describe.

C) is pain due to a stimulus that does not normally cause pain.

D) responds to NSAIDs taken several times a day.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The individual(s) who are widely known for the development of hospice care in the United States is/are (Select all that apply)

A) Dame Cicely Saunders.

B) Elisabeth Kübler-Ross.

C) Florence Nightingale.

D) Florence Wald.

Q2) A nurse working with clients on a hospice service understands that a client's quality of life is often linked to

A) projections about the amount of time that the client can expect to live.

B) strength and remaining physical ability to perform self-care.

C) symptom distress and the meanings attached to these physical sensations.

D) the number of family and friends who remain as a support system.

Q3) A client near the end of life is experiencing dyspnea, which causes anxiety. To plan holistic care for this client, the best decision by the nurse would be to

A) get an order for liberal doses of anxiolytics.

B) have the family stay with the client.

C) prepare the client for a morphine infusion.

D) use an interdisciplinary approach.

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Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client with emphysema reports fatigue and non-refreshing sleep. The nurse explains that emphysema will affect sleep in that the client will have

A) a longer sleep latency period.

B) limited time spent in slow-wave sleep.

C) difficulty in maintaining slow-wave sleep.

D) difficulty in maintaining REM sleep.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a community group good sleep hygiene practices. Steps that individuals can take to improve their sleep include (Select all that apply)

A) allowing for one or two restful daytime naps per day.

B) avoiding vigorous exercise within 3 hours of bedtime.

C) establishing a regular bedtime routine associated with preparing for sleep.

D) if you wake at night, work quietly in bed and avoid getting up.

E) maintaining a regular sleep-wake pattern throughout the week.

Q3) Most sleeping time is spent in

A) REM sleep.

B) stages 1 and 2 sleep.

C) stage 4 sleep.

D) very light sleep.

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Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health

Concerns

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Sample Questions

Q1) The client begins to cry as she speaks of her several miscarriages during the last 2 years. The nurse assesses the crying as a(n)

A) emotion-focused coping mechanism.

B) inappropriate coping mechanism.

C) lack of coping mechanism.

D) problem-focused coping mechanism.

Q2) A client admitted for an asthma attack is also receiving psychiatric treatment for chronic schizophrenia. During the interview the client stops responding and says, "Why are you asking me all these questions? Why do you want to know? Are you recording this for the others?" The nurse's best response is

A) "I am asking these questions as part of your hospital admission for asthma."

B) "We cannot admit you without getting this information into our computers."

C) "We will stop for now, but I'm going to report your behavior to your doctor."

D) "Why are you asking me questions? This is part of the admission procedure."

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Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client who was admitted 2 days ago for assessment after a fall in his home has become increasingly irritable and now says there are bugs on his bed. He is diaphoretic and has a blood pressure of (200/136)mm Hg. The nurse assesses

A) alcohol-induced psychosis.

B) delirium tremens.

C) neurologic injury related to the fall.

D) post-traumatic stress reaction.

Q2) The nurse evaluates that the client has learned an important fact about cocaine use when he says

A) "Cocaine is not addictive. I can use it as a recreational drug."

B) "Cocaine withdrawal is relatively easy. There is only mild fatigue."

C) "I know a young person can have a heart attack from using cocaine."

D) "Since cocaine is a depressant, one should not drive under its influence."

Q3) The nurse teaching a client taking disulfiram (Antabuse) should focus on A) abstaining from alcohol ingestion.

B) daily exercise.

C) emotional support for the family.

D) skin care.

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Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client complains of deep aching in his lower leg. The nurse completes an assessment focusing on other indicators of A) bone cancer.

B) infection.

C) muscle strain.

D) neuromuscular impairment.

Q2) The client who has osteoarthritis describes a grating sound in the hip. The nurse explains that this bothersome manifestation is related to A) bursa enlargement.

B) joint irregularities.

C) normal findings with age.

D) the presence of fluid.

Q3) The nurse assisting with an arthrocentesis provides which intervention after the procedure is over? The nurse

A) applies a compression dressing.

B) gives the client a tetanus shot.

C) teaches the client crutch-walking.

D) wraps a heating pad around the knee.

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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing a client with osteoporosis. The finding that is consistent with the nurse's understanding of the disease is

A) a stiff posture.

B) kyphosis.

C) pain in long bones.

D) weight loss.

Q2) The nurse teaching a class on osteoarthritis (OA) stresses that this disorder is best described as

A) degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints.

B) enzymatic breakdown of tissue in non-weight-bearing joints.

C) joint destruction caused by an autoimmune process.

D) overproduction of synovial fluid, resulting in joint destruction.

Q3) The nurse is counseling a client at risk of osteoporosis that one of the most beneficial exercises is

A) cycling.

B) swimming.

C) walking.

D) water aerobics.

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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal

Trauma or Overuse

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains to a client with delayed union of a fractured femur that treatment for this complication is based on

A) finding and correcting the cause.

B) physical therapy using deep-heat modalities.

C) realigning the fracture with traction.

D) stabilizing the fracture with a metal plate.

Q2) When delegating the application of heat or cold therapies to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), the nurse should (Select all that apply)

A) allow the UAP to document the treatment and the client's response.

B) clarify the order to ensure the task can be delegated.

C) inspect the client's skin before the treatment.

D) instruct the UAP to wrap the heat or cold in a protective cover.

E) reassess the client's skin after the treatment is done.

Q3) When a 68-year-old client with a new full-leg cast exhibits bilateral pedal edema, the nurse would assess for A) compartment syndrome.

B) cardiovascular disease.

C) local leg trauma.

D) thrombophlebitis.

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Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4026

Sample Questions

Q1) A client who had a barium swallow 4 days earlier calls the nurse in the GI clinic to ask, "Is there anything I can do about my constipation? I have not had a bowel movement since the x-ray, and my stomach is so big that I look pregnant." The most appropriate response for the nurse to make is

A) "Do you normally have more frequent bowel movements?"

B) "Increase fluids in your diet to 10 glasses of water a day."

C) "Take a strong laxative immediately."

D) "You need to be examined in the clinic today."

Q2) The nurse assessing clients for nutritional status is aware that a client would need a more in-depth analysis when the client complains of frequent nutrition-related manifestations, including (Select all that apply)

A) abdominal pain.

B) changes in weight or appetite.

C) diarrhea.

D) indigestion.

E) nausea and vomiting.

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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027

Sample Questions

Q1) In the initial assessment of a client with bulimia, the nurse would inquire about

A) binge-eating episodes.

B) black, tarry stools.

C) flatulence.

D) hyperactivity.

Q2) The client manifestation noted by the nurse as inconsistent with malnutrition is A) constipation.

B) delayed wound healing.

C) fatigue.

D) postural hypotension.

Q3) A nurse is caring for several clients with small-bore feeding tubes and nasogastric (NG) tubes. Which of the following activities can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel?

A) Assessing placement of the nasoenteric feeding tube

B) Reattaching suction to a nasogastric tube after the client ambulates

C) Refilling the tube-feeding bag for a small-bore gastrostomy tube

D) Performing skin care at the exit site of a jejunostomy tube

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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders

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29 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client is being dismissed after extensive surgery for oral cancer. Teaching goals have been met and the client seems to be coping well with the diagnosis and physical changes from the operation. Which intervention by the nurse would best meet anticipated client needs at home?

A) Arrange a social worker and home health care consult.

B) Be sure to give the client written discharge instructions.

C) Make follow-up appointments for the client and provide physician phone numbers.

D) Review the teaching about caring for the tracheostomy.

Q2) A client with oral Candidiasis has the nursing diagnosis Acute Pain related to altered oral mucous membrane and ulcerations. To rinse the mouth and provide comfort, the nurse should instruct the client to use

A) a commercial mouthwash.

B) Dakin's solution.

C) half-strength peroxide.

D) saline mouth rinses.

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Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client in the emergency department is hemorrhaging from a peptic ulcer and is being prepared quickly for emergency surgery. The nurse notes that the client is crying and reaches for the nurse frequently. The best response by the nurse to this client is to

A) continue working efficiently to get the client ready for the operating room.

B) make eye contact, touch the client, and say, "This must be very scary for you."

C) send someone to find the chaplain to discuss advance directives.

D) sit by the client and say, "I have some time that I can spend with you."

Q2) A nurse is teaching health promotion measures to a support group for clients who are at high risk for gastric cancer. Important health promotion measures to advise the clients include (select all that apply)

A) avoiding alcohol.

B) eating a diet high in nitrites.

C) limiting salted fish and pickled foods.

D) quitting smoking.

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Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that a large increase of urobilinogen in the client's urine is consistent with the diagnosis of

A) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

B) cancer of the kidney or bladder.

C) gastroenteritis.

D) hepatitis or other liver disease.

Q2) A woman who delivered a baby 10 hours ago has not been able to void. She is complaining of severe abdominal pain and feels the need to urinate but cannot. The nurse should anticipate an order for

A) anti-anxiety medication.

B) antibiotics.

C) immediate catheterization.

D) sitz bath.

Q3) Percussion

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

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Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 13-year-old client with ulcerative colitis says, "I am so glad I will grow out of this disease. It's so embarrassing at school." Which action by the nurse would best address this statement?

A) Ask the client to explain what he/she means.

B) Encourage the client to become active in school activities or sports.

C) Review the pathophysiology of ulcerative colitis.

D) Tell the client about other people who live successfully with the disease.

Q2) In caring for a client who is vomiting fecal material, the nurse should place the highest priority on which action?

A) Administering parenteral fluids that contain electrolytes

B) Encouraging the client to take small sips of water

C) Giving the client frequent oral hygiene

D) Preparing the client for surgery

Q3) The nurse is instructing a client with a new colostomy on its care and notes that the stoma is large and dusky. The most appropriate nursing intervention at this time is to A) assess the client's reaction to the ostomy site.

B) assist the client to irrigate the colostomy.

C) notify the surgeon immediately.

D) reassure the client that the stoma will decrease in size.

Page 35

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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders

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30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client is being rehabilitated after surgery to create a Kock pouch. The nurse should include which information in the client's teaching plan?

A) Care of a suprapubic catheter

B) Self-catheterization technique

C) Technique for applying a permanent pouch

D) Technique for irrigating a ureteral catheter

Q2) Nursing care for a client with urinary bladder calculi should include A) checking for abdominal distention.

B) collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for calcium.

C) encouraging fluid intake up to 4000 ml/day.

D) maintaining bed rest.

Q3) In a client with a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs), the nurse would note the need for further teaching when the client says "I

A) am on an oral contraceptive."

B) often take baths instead of showers."

C) use unscented tampons during my period."

D) use a water-soluble lubricant for intercourse."

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Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders

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25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse could advise a group of employees at a work-site health fair that one health promotion measure that may help reduce the risk of renal cancer is

A) consuming a low-protein diet.

B) getting plenty of exercise.

C) limiting antibiotic use.

D) not smoking.

Q2) A client has renal cancer and is scheduled for a nephrectomy. Preoperatively, the nurse finds the client very quiet with a worried facial expression. Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?

A) "Chemotherapy has very good results when given after surgery."

B) "Don't worry; only about 35% of clients have advanced disease when diagnosed."

C) "Most people are worried before they go to surgery to remove cancer."

D) "You look concerned. Are you worried about having only one kidney?"

Q3) As part of the care plan for a client with pyelonephritis, the nurse should A) assess for manifestations of fluid overload.

B) encourage increased activity.

C) increase fluid intake to 3 to 4 L/day.

D) watch for early manifestations of anaphylaxis.

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Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) In caring for a chronic dialysis patient with an arteriovenous fistula, the nurse would

A) avoid getting the fistula site wet during the client's bath.

B) irrigate the fistula with heparin to prevent clotting.

C) not use the arm with the fistula when taking the client's BP.

D) perform dressing changes to prevent infection.

Q2) A client has been found to be an acceptable candidate for a kidney transplant. The nurse counsels the client and family that the client now faces the greatest impediment to renal transplantation, which is

A) high potential for rejection.

B) high risk for infection.

C) insufficient financial resources.

D) lack of sufficient donor organs.

Q3) The nurse assesses the client for the electrolyte imbalance that tends to occur in the earlier stages of chronic renal failure, which is A) hypercalcemia.

B) hypocalcemia.

C) hypokalemia.

D) hyponatremia.

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Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse notices that a client performing a BSE is failing to palpate her breast and axillae completely. To improve her technique, the nurse should teach the client to A) compress the nipple downward.

B) gently slide her fingers over the breast tissue.

C) palpate the breast using a systematic approach.

D) start her examination when standing.

Q2) The nurse is teaching a client to perform testicular self-examination (TSE). The nurse is aware that this procedure is an example of A) primary prevention.

B) quaternary prevention.

C) secondary prevention.

D) tertiary prevention.

Q3) When obtaining a sexual history from a female client, a nurse should first

A) ask general questions regarding current sexual activity.

B) ask the client if she would like to talk about her sex life.

C) share his or her own feelings about sexuality.

D) tell the client that she should not be embarrassed.

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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) After a transurethral resection, the nurse notices that the client's urine in the Foley catheter bag is bright red, has numerous clots, and is viscous. The priority nursing action at this time is to

A) add fluid to the balloon end of the catheter.

B) call the physician immediately.

C) force fluids for the next 8 hours.

D) irrigate the catheter with sterile saline.

Q2) A client is having a penile shaft resection for advanced penile cancer. Which nursing diagnosis would be most important for the nurse to consider when planning care?

A) Altered Body Image

B) Anxiety

C) Risk for Incontinence

D) Risk for Sexual Dysfunction

Q3) In counseling a couple who want to conceive, the appropriate recommendation that the nurse would make to the man is

A) avoid using recreational drugs and alcohol.

B) have intercourse every 24 hours during ovulation.

C) take hot, soaking baths several times a week.

D) wear jockey shorts instead of boxer type.

Page 40

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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing health education to a group of women about ovarian cancer. The nurse would include information on health maintenance activities for both low- and high-risk women, because ovarian cancer

A) grows and spreads without manifestations.

B) is the most common genital cancer.

C) treatment is generally ineffective.

D) tumors grow rapidly.

Q2) The nurse planning care for the client who had a repair of a uterine prolapse 2 days ago would include which intervention?

A) Encouraging a low-fiber diet

B) Having the client void every 2 hours

C) Keeping the client on bed rest

D) Performing routine Foley catheter care

Q3) The nurse explains to a client that the cause of the client's primary dysmenorrhea is a/an

A) abnormal decrease in estrogen levels.

B) abnormal elevation in progesterone levels.

C) decrease in oxytocin levels.

D) elevation of uterine prostaglandin levels.

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Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders

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25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In caring for a client with post-mastectomy breast reconstruction using a subpectoral implant, the nurse would stress that the client can prevent capsule formation by

A) using daily heat applications.

B) keeping the implant very soft.

C) not wearing a bra until the implant drops.

D) wearing a bra at all times.

Q2) A male client has been diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer. The nurse would understand that this client most likely may have feelings of sexual inadequacy because A) breast cancer is a "female" disease.

B) decreased libido is common in male breast cancer clients.

C) radiation therapy produces unwanted skin side effects.

D) treatment includes medical orchiectomy.

Q3) When a 25-year-old client asks the nurse how she can lower her risk of breast cancer, the nurse would suggest that the client

A) have a mammogram every 2 years.

B) increase her intake of leafy green vegetables.

C) increase her intake of vitamin C.

D) minimize intake of alcohol.

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Page 42

Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually

Transmitted Infections

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24 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has developed salpingitis as a complication of gonorrhea. The nurse explains that this problem could lead to

A) a shortened latency period.

B) chlamydial infection.

C) infertility.

D) reinfection.

Q2) The ambulatory care nurse is aware that after the appearance of the primary lesions, latent syphilis will begin in approximately A) 1 month.

B) 3 to 6 months.

C) 1 to 2 years.

D) 3 to 5 years.

Q3) The nurse working in an ambulatory clinic explains that the most common bacterial STD in the United States is

A) chlamydia.

B) genital herpes.

C) gonorrhea.

D) syphilis.

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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client is complaining of abdominal pain described as dull, aching, and cramping. The nurse would record this pain as

A) parietal.

B) referred.

C) spasmodic.

D) visceral.

Q2) A nurse is performing a physical examination on an elderly client. The nurse notes the abdomen is rounded and sagging. The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to

A) ask the client about exercise routines.

B) discuss the client's bowel habits.

C) inquire about any abdominal pain.

D) record this as a normal finding.

Q3) The nurse performing an assessment of a 69-year-old man with a long history of complex medical problems would be aware that a systemic manifestation suggestive of hepatic dysfunction is A) gynecomastia.

B) hematuria.

C) melena.

D) oily skin.

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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders

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19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse should assess a client with a history of hypothyroidism for A) goiter.

B) Graves' disease.

C) Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

D) myxedema.

Q2) In a newly admitted client with thyrotoxicosis, the nurse would plan to address the clinical manifestation of A) fluid overload.

B) hypothermia.

C) respiratory distress.

D) tachycardia.

Q3) A client just returned from surgery for a thyroid disorder and complains that his/her mouth has an odd sensation. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

A) Calcium gluconate

B) Epinephrine

C) Potassium chloride

D) Rectal aspirin

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Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) During assessment of a 45-year-old man with the medical diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome, the nurse would note the most consistent finding of A) male pattern baldness.

B) peripheral edema.

C) hypertension.

D) jaundice.

Q2) When formulating the teaching plan for a client with hyperpituitarism being prepared for transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse would give priority to A) alerting the client to the need for constant monitoring after surgery.

B) instructing the client to avoid activities such as coughing and sneezing.

C) reviewing the clinical manifestations of infection.

D) teaching coughing and deep-breathing techniques.

Q3) Twelve hours after surgery for pheochromocytoma, the nurse should assess a postoperative client for manifestations of abdominal hematoma, including A) absent bowel sounds.

B) blurred vision.

C) elevated blood pressure.

D) increased urine output.

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Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes is in the hospital for initial management of the disease. The nurse is administering an injection of NPH insulin at 7 AM. While the nurse is in the room, the client asks if s/he can go to the cafeteria with family around 2 PM, when they visit. The best response by the nurse is

A) "No, I'd rather you wait until after 5, then you can go."

B) "No, we need to monitor everything you eat for the next few days."

C) "Sure, just be certain you don't eat or drink anything while you're there."

D) "That's fine; let's talk about what kind of snack you can get there."

Q2) A diabetic client had gallbladder surgery 2 days ago. The nurse changing the dressing should use which intervention specifically related to the client's diabetes?

A) Dispose of the soiled dressings in an appropriate manner.

B) Use strict aseptic technique to avoid infection.

C) Record the amount, type, and characteristics of the drainage.

D) Only use paper tape to avoid skin injury.

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Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine

Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse planning the care of a client admitted with severe pancreatitis would anticipate the diet order of

A) clear liquids.

B) enteral feedings.

C) NPO with TPN.

D) soft, low fat.

Q2) A client returned to the nursing unit after cholecystectomy with common bile duct exploration has bile leaking from around the wound. The most appropriate nursing intervention at this time would be to

A) assess the client further, asking about pain.

B) reassure the client that this is normal and reinforce the dressing.

C) monitor the client for elevations in blood pressure and pulse.

D) encourage the client to change position in bed.

Q3) Health promotion activities a nurse could recommend to a client in order to prevent pancreatitis include (Select all that apply)

A) avoiding alcohol abuse.

B) eating a high-protein diet.

C) getting regular exercise.

D) losing weight if needed.

Page 48

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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders

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34 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse preparing to discharge a client with acute hepatitis B instructs the client to avoid

A) acetaminophen and aspirin.

B) laxatives and stool softeners.

C) nicotine and caffeine.

D) oral decongestants.

Q2) The nurse would explain to a client that to combat the rising rate of primary hepatocellular cancer in the United States public health measures need to be directed towards decreasing the

A) incidence of HIV infection and AIDS.

B) increasing prevalence of hepatitis C.

C) level of alcoholism in America.

D) long-term use of NSAIDs.

Q3) A 15-year-old client admitted with severe jaundice is having diagnostic testing. The nursing diagnosis that would have priority is

A) Activity Intolerance related to fatigue

B) Deficient Knowledge related to diet modification

C) Disturbed Body Image related to yellowing of skin and sclera

D) Impaired Skin Integrity related to jaundice

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Page 49

Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a highly pigmented client, the nurse would best assess for erythema by A) follicular accentuation.

B) induration.

C) reddening of the skin.

D) striation.

Q2) The nurse would record the presence of a lichenification as a A) complicated lesion.

B) primary lesion.

C) secondary lesion.

D) simple lesion.

Q3) A client is undergoing a lengthy series of treatments for a skin disorder. The best method of documenting the client's experience with the treatments is for the nurse to A) document the lesions clearly at each visit using proper terminology.

B) draw the distribution and characteristics of the lesions occasionally.

C) have the client record ongoing changes and include them in the record.

D) photograph the lesions at each clinic visit and use them for comparison.

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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client had a nodule removed from his face that was diagnosed as basal cell carcinoma. In teaching this client, the nurse should include information on the need for future

A) chemotherapy.

B) frequent examinations.

C) further assessment.

D) radiation therapy.

Q2) After blepharoplasty the client complains of itching of the eyes. The nurse would A) administer prescribed analgesia.

B) apply cold wet dressings.

C) irrigate the eyes with normal saline.

D) notify the physician immediately.

Q3) After abdominoplasty, the nurse would place the client in the A) low-Fowler position.

B) mid-Fowler position with knees bent.

C) side-lying position.

D) supine position with knees bent.

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Page 51

Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse caring for a burn client would monitor the client's stools for occult blood as assessment for development of

A) bleeding caused by bowel distention.

B) gastric irritation related to smoke.

C) intestinal ileus.

D) stress ulcers.

Q2) The nurse dismissing a burn-injured client would evaluate that teaching goals have been met when the client says "I

A) have to avoid any moisturizers on the burns so they 'toughen up'."

B) can't wait to go home and throw out these pressure garments!"

C) should use only alcohol-free skin moisturizers."

D) will need to wear sunscreen for at least a year."

Q3) The nurse would assure a family member that for the first 24 hours after a burn injury, pain is kept to a minimum by administering A) intravenous narcotic agents.

B) liquid narcotics via a nasogastric tube.

C) narcotics via an intramuscular route into nonburned tissue.

D) tepid soaks and oral morphine.

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Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client with venous disease is scheduled for impedance plethysmography. Before the study the nurse would explain that

A) an intravenous dye may be used.

B) the procedure is uncomfortable.

C) venous blood flow quality will be measured.

D) walking on a treadmill is required.

Q2) A client is taking garlic and hawthorn supplements. The nurse would ask further questions to elicit information on a possible history of A) atherosclerosis.

B) hypertension.

C) smoking.

D) varicose veins.

Q3) A client has a suspected DVT. The nurse would prepare the client to undergo a A) air plethysmography.

B) ankle-brachial index measurement.

C) computed tomography (CT) scan.

D) ultrasonic duplex scan.

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53

Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has two BP readings of (134/84) and 9138/86) at a community screening event. The client smokes and has "some sort of eye disease like my grandma had" plus the client states, "I might have high sugar." The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to (Select all that apply)

A) advise the client to return tomorrow for repeat blood pressure readings.

B) arrange for the client to be seen at a local urgent care center today.

C) inform the client about the high risk of developing hypertension.

D) tell the client that the blood pressure readings are not considered high.

E) work with the client to identify risk factors and create a plan to address them.

Q2) When a client tells the nurse, "I heard that potassium supplements are effective in treating hypertension," the nurse's most appropriate reply would be as follows:

A) "Increased levels of potassium do not significantly affect blood pressure."

B) "Too much potassium can result in a dangerous rise in blood pressure."

C) "You can achieve the same benefits from low-sodium, high-potassium foods."

D) "You can try them for a while to see if you feel they are effective."

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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) To prevent skin breakdown of a client's stump, the nurse teaches the client to A) adjust the prosthesis if it causes discomfort.

B) apply alcohol to the stump to toughen the skin.

C) wash the stump daily with mild soap, and then rinse and dry it.

D) wear cotton stump socks.

Q2) For a hospitalized client who experienced a sudden arterial occlusion yesterday, the nurse would review the chart for a history of A) atrial fibrillation.

B) hypertension.

C) iron deficiency anemia.

D) oral contraceptive use.

Q3) The nurse would inform a client with a venous ulcer that the client's ulcer will be treated with the traditional protocol of A) daily warm soaks and application of wet-to-moist saline dressings.

B) enzymatic debridement and the area left open to air.

C) local antibiotic ointment applied twice a day.

D) pressure dressing left in place for 5 to 7 days.

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Page 55

Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the physical examination of a client, the nurse checks the client for neck vein distention. To perform this assessment properly, the client should be positioned

A) first lying, then sitting, then standing.

B) in a side-lying position with knees flexed.

C) lying supine with head of bed elevated 15-30 degrees.

D) sitting upright with neck flexed slightly forward.

Q2) The critical piece of information related to the client's myocardium that is obtained through a PET scan is

A) electrical activity of the heart.

B) myocardial viability.

C) patency of coronary arteries.

D) status of valves.

Q3) The nurse palpating the precordium of a 73-year-old client for the point of maximal intensity (PMI) would place the hands

A) at Erb's point in an elderly client.

B) at the level of the sternal manubrium.

C) at the fifth intercostal space, medial to the midclavicular line.

D) to the left of the angle of Louis.

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Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural

Cardiac Disorders

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21 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would recognize that splinter hemorrhages in the nails, painful swollen nodules on the fingertips, and splenomegaly indicate

A) infective endocarditis.

B) mitral stenosis.

C) mitral valve prolapse.

D) pericarditis.

Q2) When the client with rheumatic fever becomes irritable and impatient with the restrictions of the disease, the home health nurse would remind the client that manifestations of rheumatic fever usually abate in about A) 3 months.

B) 6 months.

C) 9 months.

D) 1 year.

Q3) The change in vital signs that would most strongly suggest cardiac tamponade to the nurse is

A) bradycardia.

B) muffled heart sounds.

C) narrowing pulse pressure.

D) tachypnea.

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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional

Cardiac Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would recognize that the client at greatest risk for CHD is a

A) 35-year-old man who is 15 pounds overweight.

B) 40-year-old woman who repeatedly gains and loses 15 pounds.

C) 45-year-old man who lost 30 pounds by following a strenuous diet.

D) 50-year-old man 20 pounds overweight but a lifelong swimmer.

Q2) The nurse would advise a group of diabetic clients that primary prevention for CHD can be achieved by keeping their fasting blood sugar levels below

A) 56 mg/dl.

B) 72 mg/dl.

C) 105 mg/dl.

D) 126 mg/dl.

Q3) A client with heart failure has been prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse would explain that this drug alleviates manifestations of heart failure by

A) decreasing circulating volume.

B) increasing myocardial contractility.

C) increasing vasodilation.

D) slowing atrioventricular conduction time.

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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would explain to a client who has a demand pacemaker in place that this pacemaker functions by

A) demanding the heart to contract at a preset rate.

B) firing after the SA node has started the cycle.

C) firing if the heart's electrical activity drops below a preset rate.

D) stimulating the SA node to fire.

Q2) A client with a serum potassium level of 6.6 mEq/L would have a characteristic ECG configuration of

A) increased PR interval.

B) inverted QRS complex.

C) no change.

D) tall T wave.

Q3) At the ambulatory care clinic, the nurse counseling a client who has presented with frequent episodes of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia would advise the client to

A) avoid all aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

B) eat a low-salt, low-fat diet that contains plenty of fiber.

C) get 30 minutes of exercise and drink six glasses of water per day.

D) quit smoking and avoid caffeine and alcohol.

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Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client admitted for angina reports experiencing pain of long duration while at rest and also early in the morning. The nurse would recognize this pattern as

A) angina decubitus.

B) nocturnal angina.

C) unstable angina.

D) variant angina.

Q2) A nurse is visiting a client in the home 3 weeks after having an STEMI. The client appears distressed and the spouse is nervously hovering nearby. Which assessment by the nurse would provide the most useful data? The nurse should inquire if

A) neighbors have been dropping by and fatiguing the client.

B) the client is able to adhere to the prescribed exercise routine.

C) the spouse is able to shop for and prepare appropriate foods.

D) there are fears that allowing the client activity may provoke another MI.

Q3) The nurse would explain to a client that the most common site for MI is the

A) anterior wall of the left ventricle.

B) anterior wall of the right ventricle.

C) inferior (diaphragmatic) surface.

D) posterior wall of the left ventricle.

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Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client being treated for emphysema has a chronic productive cough. The nurse would assess a characteristic feature of clients with long-term emphysema, which is A) barrel chest.

B) broken vessels in the nose.

C) erythematous ear lobes.

D) pectus excavatum.

Q2) Before drawing blood for an arterial blood gas (ABG), the nurse would perform a/an A) Allen's test.

B) incentive spirometer assessment.

C) Schilling's test.

D) test for peripheral perfusion.

Q3) A client has just returned from China and is concerned about possible respiratory disorders. The nurse would advise the client to have a screening to assess for exposure to

A) adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

B) histoplasmosis.

C) tuberculosis.

D) Valley fever.

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Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A neighbor tells a nurse that s/he has been experiencing hoarseness for over 3 weeks. The nurse should advise the client to see a doctor for

A) a prescription for antacids.

B) possible laryngeal cancer.

C) throat cultures and antibiotics.

D) vocal cord paralysis.

Q2) A nurse is conducting health seminars in the community. Besides instructing the audience to not abuse alcohol and to stop smoking, other preventive measures the nurse could suggest include

A) exercising at least 30 minutes on most days of the week.

B) increasing daily fiber intake to 20-30 grams a day.

C) limiting intake of saturated fats and trans fats.

D) wearing respiratory protective equipment if exposed to asbestos.

Q3) The priority nursing intervention for a client experiencing a laryngospasm would be

A) administering 100% oxygen.

B) calling the resuscitation team.

C) positioning the client in high-Fowler position.

D) starting in IV with a large-bore catheter.

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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is drawing a blood sample from a client's central line and the client suddenly becomes dyspneic and complains of chest pain. The priority action by the nurse is to

A) obtain blood pressure readings in both arms.

B) notify the physician immediately.

C) put the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.

D) terminate the procedure and clamp the central line.

Q2) When counseling a client with asthma who has been advised to make several major life changes, the nurse should encourage the client to consider each suggestion carefully because

A) clients may be able to simply increase their medications and not make changes.

B) no doctor has all the answers about reducing exacerbations.

C) the benefit of the change may be offset by the stress it causes.

D) there are controversies about lifestyle changes needed in asthma.

Q3) The nurse caring for a client with asthma would place the client in the A) Fowler position.

B) lithotomy position.

C) side-lying position.

D) supine position.

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Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is planning care for a client who has an intrapulmonary restrictive lung disorder. The nurse chooses interventions with the understanding that treatment for this disease

A) can assist lung tissue in regenerating. B) is best attained through surgery.

C) requires a long course of antibiotics. D) will not reverse the disease process.

Q2) A client has been diagnosed with histoplasmosis lung infection. The nurse would anticipate treatment to include A) amphotericin B. B) corticosteroids. C) isoniazid. D) morphine.

Q3) The nurse would become concerned about the risk of hemorrhage if, in the first 2 hours after surgery, the thoracotomy client's drainage exceeded A) 50 ml.

B) 100 ml.

C) 300 ml.

D) 750 ml.

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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client who was extubated 2 hours ago is becoming increasingly restless. The last vital signs before extubation were pulse 88 beats/min, respirations 18 breaths/min, blood pressure (138/78)mm Hg, and PaCO₂ 45 mm Hg. Current vital signs include pulse 104 beats/min, respirations 26 breaths/min, blood pressure (140/80) mm Hg, and PaCO₂ 62 mm Hg. The nurse would

A) administer a nebulized bronchodilator.

B) assist with reintubation.

C) obtain a complete blood count (CBC).

D) prepare the client for a tracheostomy.

Q2) A client admitted to the emergency department (ED) with severe chest injuries and significant hypovolemia caused by hemorrhage would be transfused to replace blood loss initially with A) albumin.

B) dextrose 5% in normal saline.

C) type AB-negative blood.

D) type O-negative blood.

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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is working with a client who has moderate hearing loss. Communication adaptations the nurse uses include (Select all that apply)

A) enunciating words clearly.

B) facing the client directly.

C) slowing the speech down.

D) speaking very loudly.

Q2) The nurse conducting an otoscopic examination visualizes an eardrum that is shiny and pearl gray in color. The nurse would know that this assessment is consistent with A) a history of otitis media.

B) a normal tympanic membrane.

C) blood in the middle ear.

D) infection in the ear canal.

Q3) Before insertion of the otoscope speculum in the ear of an adult, the nurse would pull the pinna

A) down and back.

B) down and forward, and out.

C) up and back, and out.

D) up and forward.

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Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client asks the nurse how glaucoma can best be prevented. The nurse's response would include preventive information related to primary open-angle glaucoma, including which of the following?

A) Assessment of the optic nerve and tonometry testing should be performed regularly with an annual eye examination.

B) Eat a well-balanced diet with adequate amounts of vitamin A and make sure your house has appropriate lighting.

C) Exercises that increase blood pressure should be limited, and abrupt temperature changes should be avoided.

D) Wear protective eyewear, and do not engage in activity where you are likely to experience blows to the head and neck.

Q2) The nurse providing normal postoperative care to a client who underwent laser trabeculoplasty as part of glaucoma management would

A) give food and fluids immediately on arrival.

B) instruct the client to lie on the operative side.

C) maintain an eye patch and plastic shield in place.

D) tell the client to expect eye pain and nausea.

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Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would explain that a nonsurgical approach to reduce the clinical manifestations of labyrinthitis is injection of an ototoxic drug into the middle ear to

A) clear the eustachian tube.

B) destroy hair cells.

C) equalize pressure.

D) stabilize the ossicles.

Q2) A client with severe hearing loss has the nursing diagnosis: Ineffective Coping related to recent hearing loss. The nurse would assess that goals for this diagnosis have been met when the client (Select all that apply)

A) engages in more activities within the community.

B) is willing to role-play informing others about the hearing loss.

C) self-refers to a university hospital audiology clinic.

D) stores the new hearing aid properly when not in use.

Q3) When communicating with a client who has a significant hearing loss, the nurse would

A) obtain the client's attention by hand clapping.

B) speak as loudly as possible.

C) use an intercommunication system.

D) use phrases to convey meaning rather than one-word answers.

Page 68

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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the nurse asks the client to raise the eyebrows and grimace or puff the cheeks, the nurse would be assessing the function of cranial nerve

A) VII.

B) VIII.

C) IX.

D) X.

Q2) A client with a head injury has had the caloric test performed using ice-cold water. When the water was injected into the auditory canal, the client's eyes moved slowly toward the irrigated side and then quickly returned to midline. The nurse would conclude after watching this reaction that the client

A) has an intact brain stem.

B) has brain death.

C) is likely to arouse within 24 hours.

D) will be permanently deaf.

Q3) In assessing a client for Babinski's reflex, the nurse would

A) press thumbs under the ball of the client's foot.

B) scrape the sole with a blunt object from heel toward great toe.

C) tap the sole with a percussion hammer at mid-arch.

D) tickle the sole of the client's foot with a fingernail.

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Page 69

Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused

Clients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse could appropriately assess for the doll's eye reflex in a client who is a/an

A) conscious man who has been diagnosed with acute cerebrovascular accident.

B) conscious young woman after an auto accident.

C) unconscious elderly man who has sustained a cervical spine injury.

D) unconscious teenager who has overdosed on drugs.

Q2) The nurse working with an unconscious client to develop a holistic nursing care plan would include the family and which high-priority nursing diagnosis?

A) Anticipatory Grieving

B) Ineffective Therapeutic Regimen Management

C) Interrupted Family Processes

D) Knowledge Deficit

Q3) The nurse points out the important difference between metabolically induced coma and structurally induced coma is that metabolically induced coma results in

A) abnormal posturing.

B) absent corneal reflex.

C) exaggerated deep tendon reflexes.

D) symmetrical motor manifestations.

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Page 70

Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has cyclical headaches accompanied by constricted pupils, unilateral lacrimation, and rhinorrhea. The nurse is exploring ways to prevent these headaches with the client. The nurse could focus questions and interventions on modifying the client's

A) daily level of stress.

B) family history of brain tumors.

C) pattern of caffeine consumption.

D) usual alcohol intake.

Q2) The nurse gives diazepam to a client in status epilepticus to stop the seizure because prolonged seizure activity can cause

A) brain injury.

B) cardiac dysrhythmias.

C) muscle and tendon damage.

D) respiratory arrest.

Q3) The nurse should observe a client with bacterial meningitis for A) changes in sensorium.

B) high blood pressure.

C) hypothermia.

D) muscle spasms.

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Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke

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Sample Questions

Q1) The assessment the nurse documents that supports the finding of apraxia would be the client's inability to

A) get dressed independently.

B) recognize a pencil.

C) see far objects.

D) understand the spoken word.

Q2) When the spouse of a client who has had a CVA as a result of a cerebral hemorrhage asks the nurse about the client's chances for recovery, the nurse should base a reply on knowledge that with this type of CVA

A) improvement generally occurs over several days.

B) rapid improvement often occurs.

C) recovery is slow and less complete.

D) there is no way to know for sure.

Q3) A client has had two TIAs. Priority nursing actions focus on

A) helping the client reduce risk factors for stroke.

B) providing emotional support during this stressful time.

C) teaching the client's family about rehabilitation.

D) working with a speech therapist on speech problems.

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Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous System Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse outlines that the usual remedy to achieve wrist rest for a client with carpal tunnel syndrome is

A) applying a wrist splint.

B) encouraging use of analgesics.

C) supporting the hand on a pillow.

D) using a special adaptor on a keyboard.

Q2) A client with acute disk herniation began using ice for analgesia along with medication therapy. The nurse explains that the client will be switched to heat therapy after

A) 24 hours.

B) 48 hours.

C) 72 hours.

D) 96 hours.

Q3) On the first postoperative day, a client who had a cervical surgery requests the bedpan often, but cannot void. Based on these observations, the nurse should

A) assess for bladder distention.

B) assess for manifestations of urinary tract infection.

C) document this outcome as normal.

D) increase fluid intake.

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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) To assist the client with Parkinson's disease to reduce tremor, the nurse suggests that the client

A) clasp arms about self and squeeze.

B) sleep on the non-tremorous side.

C) tightly hold change in the pocket.

D) visualize stilling the tremor.

Q2) The nurse formulates the following nursing diagnosis for a client with MS: Impaired Physical Mobility related to muscle weakness. Useful interventions the nurse could plan include

A) encouraging long naps or rest periods.

B) encouraging strengthening exercises for affected muscles every 4 hours.

C) having the client perform ROM exercises at least two times daily.

D) performing all the activities of daily living (ADLs) for the client.

Q3) A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD).

Appropriate nursing care includes

A) administering broad-spectrum antibiotics until culture results are known.

B) giving the client anti-viral medications as ordered.

C) placing the client in contact and airborne isolation.

D) using standard precautions when handling body fluids.

Page 74

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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic

Trauma

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse encourages the client who has sustained a C5 complete spinal cord injury that he should anticipate that he will be able to

A) dress totally independently.

B) feed himself.

C) learn to type or use a computer.

D) self-catheterize.

Q2) The client who is unconscious following a fall has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to A) increase the patient's intravenous (IV) fluids.

B) notify the physician immediately.

C) provide hyperventilation by adjusting ventilator settings.

D) retake the blood pressure in 15 minutes.

Q3) When the nurse assesses brain tissue extruding through an unstable skull fracture, it is documented as which type of herniation syndrome?

A) Central transtentorial

B) Cingulate

C) Tonsillar

D) Transcalvarial

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Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System

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Q1) The nurse should anticipate an elevated hemoglobin level in a A) 40-year-old woman with congestive heart failure.

B) client who lives in Colorado.

C) client with iron deficiency anemia.

D) dehydrated elderly client being given IV fluids.

Q2) A nurse is explaining the purpose of a bone marrow biopsy (BMB) to a client. The information the nurse provides is that a bone marrow biopsy is done to evaluate A) blood dyscrasias such as aplastic anemia or leukemia.

B) hemoglobin and hematocrit production.

C) specific parts of the white cell differentiation.

D) total numbers and types of different lymphocytes.

Q3) The nurse reads that an assigned client has an immunodeficiency. The nurse reads further in the medical record, anticipating that the client also most likely has a history of A) conjunctivitis.

B) severe headaches.

C) skin eruptions.

D) unexplained weight loss.

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Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders

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Q1) When a client experiences an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion, the nurse should initially

A) administer oxygen via nasal prongs.

B) discontinue the transfusion.

C) notify the physician.

D) raise the head of the bed.

Q2) A client has folic acid deficiency anemia. Which information in the nursing history would be of concern to the nurse? The client

A) cooks in cast iron skillets.

B) does not like to eat fish.

C) has one alcoholic drink a week.

D) takes metformin.

Q3) While performing an admission assessment on a moderately anemic client, the nurse would expect to find a history of

A) blurred vision.

B) cardiac palpitations.

C) increased appetite.

D) warm, flushing sensations.

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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders

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Q1) The nurse reminds a client that a delayed inflammatory response can occur 2 to 8 hours after exposure to an allergen and is governed by

A) basophils.

B) eosinophils.

C) mast cells.

D) T cells.

Q2) In teaching self-care measures, the nurse would teach the client who has atopic dermatitis to avoid

A) applying a lubricant after bathing.

B) bathing in hot water.

C) keeping fingernails trimmed.

D) using gentle soaps.

Q3) The nurse instructs the client who has a new prescription for cromolyn sodium (NasalCrom) that the most effective administration schedule is

A) at the start of allergy season, with once-a-day dosing.

B) just after manifestations begin, with twice daily dosing.

C) 1 week before allergy season begins, with four to six doses per day.

D) when manifestations peak only, with two or three doses per day.

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Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders

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Q1) The nurse performing an assessment on a client with fibromyalgia syndrome asks about the most common clinical manifestation, which is

A) deformities of the fingers and toes.

B) fatigue, unrelieved by sleep.

C) migratory areas of numbness.

D) varying degrees of paresthesias.

Q2) A client newly diagnosed with RA is depressed after the nurse provides education on the disease process. Important interventions the nurse can offer include helping the client

A) choose a high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet to provide energy.

B) find medical supply companies that carry adaptive devices.

C) learn to participate actively in response to their illness.

D) understand the importance of taking medications on time.

Q3) The nursing assessment of clients with SLE should focus most intensely on the presence of the common and serious sequela of this disorder, which is A) difficulty swallowing.

B) interruptions in skin integrity.

C) peripheral neuropathies.

D) renal failure.

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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired

Immunodeficiency Syndrome

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Q1) The nurse is assessing a client with AIDS for the presence of Kaposi's sarcoma (KS). The manifestation the nurse should look for is a

A) crusty lesion on the back and groin.

B) purple-red lesion on the body.

C) pustular lesion with yellow exudate.

D) thick, white exudate in the mouth.

Q2) A client with AIDS has the nursing diagnosis Fatigue. To conserve energy, the nurse encourages the client to

A) bathe before eating breakfast.

B) rest after every third major activity.

C) sit down while showering.

D) use easy-to-clean forks and knives.

Q3) The problem the nurse should plan for when a client with AIDS is infected with the Cryptosporidium parasite is

A) delirium.

B) painful open lesions.

C) profuse, watery diarrhea.

D) severe respiratory tract infection.

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Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma

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Q1) The nurse reviewing a hematology report of a client with chronic leukemia brings to the attention of the physician a change that may indicate a blast crisis may be occurring, which is

A) a drastic decrease in monocytes.

B) a hemoglobin drop to 9 g/dl.

C) myeloid cell precursors >20%.

D) thrombocytic proliferation.

Q2) A nurse is educating high school students about avoiding risk factors for different diseases. When a teenager laughs off a recent infection with mononucleosis as a silly "kissing disease," the nurse cautions him that mononucleosis is a risk factor for

A) acute lymphoblastic leukemia.

B) chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

C) Hodgkin's disease.

D) severe bone marrow depression.

Q3) The nurse reviewing a hematology report recognizes pancytopenia, which is when A) cellular components of the blood are reduced.

B) platelets are immature and dividing rapidly.

C) red cells have become polymorphic.

D) white cells are poorly undifferentiated.

Page 81

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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring

Transplantation

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Q1) The most important topic related to health promotion the nurse should teach a client before being discharged after an organ transplant is

A) housing options close to the transplant center for the next 1-2 months.

B) how to access funding to pay for lifelong immunosuppressant therapy.

C) primary prevention measures against common infectious diseases.

D) transplant team contact information for the client's primary health care provider.

Q2) Basing the assessment on knowledge of cultural customs and beliefs, the nurse would identify the client who would have the greatest conflict with heart transplantation as being from the faith of

A) Black Muslim.

B) Buddhism.

C) Friends (Quakers).

D) Russian Orthodox.

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82

Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem

Disorders

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Q1) The nurse caring for a client in shock who is being mechanically hyperventilated explains that the rationale for this intervention is to

A) decrease carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

B) prevent atelectasis and respiratory failure.

C) rest the client to decrease metabolism.

D) stimulate endorphin production.

Q2) Distributive shock is primarily due to

A) a fluid shift from the vascular space.

B) an increase in the size of the vascular space.

C) inadequate circulating blood volume.

D) inadequate pumping action of the heart.

Q3) The nurse suspects that the client who has entered the emergency department with severe uterine bleeding is in the early stages of shock. The nurse's first priority is to A) administer oxygen per nasal cannula.

B) apply super-absorbent perineal pads.

C) place the client in Trendelenburg position.

D) start an intravenous line.

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Page 83

Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4080

Sample Questions

Q1) The ED triage nurse identifies the client who can have treatment delayed for a few hours as the client with a A) avulsed (knocked-out) tooth.

B) broken finger.

C) head injury from a fall.

D) large laceration that needs suturing.

Q2) The nurse explains to the family of a client with a spinal cord injury that IV methylprednisolone will reduce A) pain.

B) possibility of seizure.

C) muscle spasms.

D) spinal cord edema.

Q3) An unconscious client is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance following a car accident. Without a family member to give informed consent, the nurse should

A) begin treatment of the client under the doctrine of implied emergency consent.

B) have a hospital administrator sign the consent form.

C) request the physician to sign the consent form.

D) wait until a family member is contacted before treating the client.

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