Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of adult patients experiencing a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. This course emphasizes the development of clinical reasoning, assessment skills, and evidence-based interventions to support the physical and psychosocial well-being of adults. Students learn to collaborate within interdisciplinary teams, prioritize patient safety, and deliver culturally competent care while managing complex health scenarios across diverse healthcare settings. Core concepts include pathophysiology, patient advocacy, health promotion, and the use of technology in patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 6th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytosis is an example of exocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which mode of chemical signaling uses blood to transport communication to cells some distance away?
A)Paracrine signaling
B)Autocrine signaling
C)Neurotransmitter signaling
D)Hormone signaling
Answer: D
Q3) Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades such as caspase-mediated apoptosis and complement cascade may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases?
A)Cardiac and vascular disorders
B)Autoimmune and malignant disorders
C)Gastrointestinal and renal disorders
D)Endocrine disorders
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Noise, illumination, and prolonged vibrations can cause cellular injury.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) How does carbon monoxide cause tissue damage?
A)By competing with carbon dioxide so that it cannot be excreted
B)By binding to hemoglobin so that it cannot carry oxygen
C)By destroying the chemical bonds of hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen
D)By removing iron from hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen
Answer: B
Q3) Which organs are affected by lead consumption?
A)Heart and blood vessels
B)Muscles and bones
C)Pancreas and adrenal glands
D)Nerves and blood-forming organs
Answer: D
Q4) Dysplastic changes may be reversible, but may become malignant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure?
A)Capillary hydrostatic pressure
B)Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
C)Capillary oncotic pressure
D)Interstitial oncotic pressure
Answer: C
Q2) Hypermagnesemia is usually caused by:
A)hepatitis.
B)renal failure.
C)trauma to the hypothalamus.
D)pancreatitis.
Answer: B
Q3) Changes in hydrogen ion concentration affect this electrolyte
A)Sodium
B)Chloride
C)Potassium
D)Magnesium
E)Phosphate
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In most cases of recessive disease, both parents of affected individuals are heterozygous carriers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the chromosomal variation that causes Klinefelter syndrome?
A)Nondisjunction of the X chromosome in the father
B)Translocation of the X chromosome in the mother
C)Nondisjunction of X chromosome in the mother
D)Translocation of the Y chromosome in the father
Q3) A zygote has one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene
A)Down syndrome
B)Klinefelter syndrome
C)Turner syndrome
D)Cri du chat
Q4) Chromosome abnormalities are the leading cause of mental retardation and miscarriage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Breast cancer manifests in familial patterns.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is _____ times what it would otherwise be.
A)2
B)3
C)6
D)10
Q3) Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
A)Sodium intake
B)Physical inactivity
C)Psychosocial stress
D)Obesity
Q4) What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
A)A diet high in saturated fats
B)An increased production of cholesterol by the liver
C)A reduction in the number of LDL receptors on cell surfaces
D)An abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chemical mediator derived from mast cells retracts endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability and causes leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells?
A)Leukotrienes
B)Prostaglandin E
C)Platelet-activating factor (PAF)
D)Bradykinin
Q2) What occurs during the process of repair after tissue damage?
A)Destroyed tissue is replaced by nonfunctioning scar tissue.
B)Regeneration occurs in which original tissue is replaced.
C)Resolution occurs when tissue is regenerated.
D)Destroyed tissue is replaced by epithelialization.
Q3) What are the inflammatory effects of nitric oxide (NO)?
A)It increases capillary permeability and causes pain.
B)It increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation.
C)It causes smooth muscle contraction and fever.
D)It decreases mast cell function and decreases platelet aggregation.
Q4) Tears
A)Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid
B)Attack cell walls of gram-positive bacteria
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antigen that is capable of inducing an immune response is called an immunogen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
A)Passive acquired
B)Active acquired
C)Passive innate
D)Active innate
Q3) The most important determinant of immunogenicity is the antigen's:
A)size.
B)foreignness.
C)complexity.
D)quantity.
Q4) During which phase of life does the generation of clonal diversity occur?
A)In the fetus
B)In the neonate
C)In the infant
D)In the ovum
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Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a characteristic of atopic individuals who are genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
A)They produce greater quantities of histamine than other individuals.
B)They have more histamine receptors than other individuals.
C)They produce greater quantities of IgE than other individuals.
D)They have a deficiency in epinephrine compared with other individuals.
Q2) In Graves disease (hyperthyroidism), autoantibodies bind to and activate receptors for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) so that excessive T (thyroxine) is secreted, causing clinical manifestations of an increased metabolism.This mechanism is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A)Modulation
B)ADCC
C)Neutrophil-mediated damage
D)Complement-mediated lysis
Q3) Type IV hypersensitivity
A)Agammaglobulinemia
B)Raynaud phenomenon
C)Poison ivy
D)Urticaria
E)Graves disease
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Chapter 9: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.
A)the central nervous system
B)bone marrow
C)the thymus gland
D)the lungs
Q2) Potency of a pathogen measured in terms of the number of microorganisms or micrograms of toxin required to kill the host
A)Toxigenicity
B)Infectivity
C)Pathogenicity
D)Virulence
Q3) For which microorganisms is the skin the site of reproduction?
a.Viruses
b.Bacteria and fungi
c.Protozoa and rickettsiae
d.Mycoplasma
Q4) Immunoglobulins are important in controlling fungi.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Q1) Lymphocytes secrete growth hormone (GH), prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), and endorphins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Stress-induced cortisol released from the adrenal cortex results in:
A)stimulation of gluconeogenesis.
B)increased lipolysis.
C)stimulation of glycogenolysis.
D)increased peripheral uptake and use of glucose.
Q3) Stress-age syndrome results in decreased:
A)catecholamines.
B)ACTH.
C)cortisol.
D)immune system.
Q4) The _____ (gland) regulates the immune response and mediates the apparent effects of circadian rhythms on immunity.
A)anterior pituitary
B)adrenal
C)basal ganglia
D)pineal
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does chronic inflammation cause cancer?
A)By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage
B)By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations
C)By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations
D)By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers
Q2) Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized.This is an example of:
A)dysplasia.
B)hyperplasia.
C)myoplasia.
D)anaplasia.
Q3) Radiation
A)Cancer cell growth
B)Used to kill cancer cells while minimizing damage to normal structures
C)Forms antibodies specific for tumor antigen
D)Agents that take advantage of specific vulnerabilities in target cancer cells
E)Provides a framework to determine treatment
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Chapter 12: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important risk factors associated with the development of skin melanoma include:
A)light-colored hair.
B)blue eyes.
C)fair skin.
D)freckles.
E)history of acne.
Q2) Which of the following has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?
A)Alcohol
B)Steroids
C)Antihistamines
D)Antidepressants
Q3) There is no current evidence that associates adult obesity with cancer formation. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Embryonic tumors are usually diagnosed after 5 years of age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are research data to support a carcinogenic relationship in children resulting from exposure to the _____ virus.
A)herpes simplex
B)influenza
C)varicella
D)Epstein-Barr
Q3) Most childhood cancers arise from the:
A)epithelium.
B)mesodermal germ layer.
C)embryologic ectodermal layer.
D)viscera.
Q4) What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
A)Down syndrome
B)Wilms tumor
C)Retinoblastoma
D)Neuroblastoma
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Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What produces cerebrospinal fluid?
A)Arachnoid villi
B)Choroid plexuses
C)Ependymal cells
D)Pia mater
Q2) Microglia perform phagocytosis in the central nervous system (CNS).
A)True
B)False
Q3) From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX to XII emerge?
A)Midbrain
B)Pons
C)Medulla oblongata
D)Lateral colliculi
Q4) Lumbar punctures are performed at the level of L1-L2 because the spinal cord ends just above the L1 vertebra.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chemical synapses between neurons can send messages in both directions. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loud snoring, a decrease in oxygen saturation, fragmented sleep, chronic daytime sleepiness, and fatigue are clinical manifestations of which sleep disorder?
A)Obstructive sleep apnea
B)Upper airway resistance syndrome
C)Somnambulism
D)Narcolepsy
Q2) How does glaucoma cause blindness?
A)By infection of the cornea
B)By pressure on the optic nerve
C)By creating opacity of the lens
D)By obstruction of the venous return from the retina
Q3) _____ is/are characterized by sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while in a sleep state.
A)Night terrors
B)Insomnia
C)Somnambulism
D)Enuresis
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most critical index of nervous system dysfunction?
A)Size and reactivity of pupils
B)Pattern of breathing
C)Motor response
D)Level of consciousness
Q2) Brain death has occurred when there is no discernible evidence of cerebral hemisphere function or function of the brainstem's vital centers for 1 to 6 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The body compensates to a rise in intracranial pressure by first displacing:
A)cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
B)arterial blood.
C)venous blood.
D)cerebral cells.
Q4) Which disease process is infratentorial?
A)Cerebellar neoplasm
B)Encephalitis
C)Parkinson disease
D)Cerebral neoplasm
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Chapter 17: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes multiple sclerosis (MS)?
A)It is a central nervous system (CNS) demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus.
B)It is an inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder.
C)It is a depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system as a result of a virus.
D)It is a degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors.
Q2) The most severe diffuse brain injury caused by rotational acceleration is most likely to be located in the:
A)diencephalon to the brainstem.
B)medial portion of the brainstem.
C)entire brainstem.
D)diencephalon.
Q3) In encephalitis, viruses gain access to the central nervous system (CNS) through blood or peripheral nerves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurotransmitter is inhibited in generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
A)Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
B)Serotonin
C)Dopamine
D)Norepinephrine
Q2) What is thought to be the alteration produced by electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) when treating individuals with depression?
A)It produces an alteration in the monoamine systems.
B)It produces an alteration in serotonin.
C)It produces an alteration in norepinephrine.
D)It produces an alteration in the limbic system.
Q3) Which neurotransmitter receptors are blocked by antipsychotic drugs?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C)Serotonin
D)Dopamine
Q4) In schizophrenia, the lateral and third ventricles of the brain are smaller than normal.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Q1) The definite diagnostic tool for hydrocephalus is computed tomography.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in infants is:
A)obstructed arachnoid villi.
B)stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius.
C)excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid.
D)impaired cerebrospinal fluid circulation in the subarachnoid space.
Q3) Spina bifida occulta is characterized by a(n):
A)sac-like cyst of meninges protruding through vertebrae.
B)abnormal growth of hair along the spine.
C)decrease in head circumference.
D)palpable unfused neural arch.
Q4) Vomiting, lethargy, drowsiness
A)Reye syndrome, stage I
B)Reye syndrome, stage II
C)Reye syndrome, stage III
D)Reye syndrome, stage IV
E)Reye syndrome, stage V
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Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the effects of high levels of aldosterone?
A)Hypokalemia and alkalosis
B)Hyperkalemia and alkalosis
C)Hyperkalemia and acidosis
D)Hypokalemia and acidosis
Q2) A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone?
A)Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B)Thyroid hormones
C)Somatostatin
D)Alpha endorphin
Q3) Glycoproteins
A)Anterior pituitary
B)Posterior pituitary
C)Thyroid
D)Adrenal cortex
E)Adrenal medulla
Q4) Glucagon is synthesized by the beta cells of the pancreas.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Q1) Giantism only occurs in children and adolescents because their:
A)growth hormones are still diminished.
B)epiphyseal plates have not yet closed.
C)skeletal muscles are not yet fully developed.
D)metabolic rates are higher than in adulthood.
Q2) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diabetes insipidus is a result of:
A)antidiuretic hormone (ADH) hyposecretion.
B)antidiuretic hormone (ADH) hypersecretion.
C)insulin hyposecretion.
D)insulin hypersecretion.
Q4) Giantism occurs only in children and adolescents.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Myxedema coma is caused by severe hypoparathyroidism.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive System
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Q1) Serology
A)Cytologic exam
B)Antigen-antibody reaction
C)Hormonal assay
D)Tissue sampling
E)Microbe identification
Q2) During the menstrual cycle, ovulation is directly caused by a:
A)gradual decrease in estrogen levels.
B)sudden increase of LH.
C)sharp rise in progesterone.
D)gradual increase in estrogen levels.
Q3) Which hormone promotes development of the lobular ducts in the breasts?
A)Progesterone
B)Prolactin
C)Oxytocin
D)Estrogen
Q4) The male and female genital organs are homologous before 8 weeks of gestation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Q1) What process occurs when columnar epithelium is replaced by squamous epithelium in the transformation zone?
A)Dysplasia
B)Aplasia
C)Metaplasia
D)Epithelplasia
Q2) Testicular cancer
A)Seen with HPV infection
B)Advanced at the time of diagnosis
C)Most curable cancer
D)Vasectomy increases risk
Q3) _____ are benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium and are commonly called uterine fibroids.
A)Endometrial polyps
B)Myometrial polyps
C)Leiomyomas
D)Myometriomas
Q4) With early diagnosis and treatment of cervical cancer, prognosis is excellent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) Condylomata acuminata, or genital warts, are caused by:
A)chlamydia.
B)adenovirus.
C)human papillomavirus.
D)HSV-1
Q2) Entamoeba histolytica
A)Trichomoniasis
B)Bacterial vaginosis
C)Amebiasis
D)Syphilis
E)Chancroid
Q3) Chlamydia infection is the leading cause of tubal infertility in women.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the latent period of a herpesvirus infection, the genome of the virus is:
A)maintained in the host cell mitochondria.
B)maintained in the host macrophage lysosomes.
C)maintained in the host cell nucleus.
D)totally degraded.
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Q1) Recycling of iron from erythrocytes is made possible by:
A)transferrin.
B)hemosiderin.
C)apoferritin.
D)erythropoietin.
Q2) The _____ are granulocytes that contain granules of vasoactive amines, such as histamine, bradykinin, and serotonin.
A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)monocytes
D)basophils
Q3) Erythropoietin induces the selective proliferation of proerythroblasts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure.
A)Iron
B)Erythropoietin
C)Cobalamin (vitamin B12)
D)Folate
27
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Q1) Which of the following is classified as a macrocytic-normochromic anemia?
A)Iron deficiency
B)Pernicious
C)Sideroblastic
D)Hemolytic
Q2) Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of:
A)brain hypoxia.
B)liver hypoxia.
C)heart failure.
D)renal failure.
Q3) A woman complains of chronic gastritis, fatigue, weight loss, and tingling in her fingers.Laboratory findings show low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and a high mean corpuscular volume.These findings are consistent with _____ anemia.
A)folate deficiency
B)pernicious
C)iron deficiency
D)aplastic
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Q1) A patient with a bleeding disorder has a red-purple discoloration caused by diffuse hemorrhage into skin tissues.The nurse documents this discoloration as:
A)petechiae.
B)hematoma.
C)ecchymosis.
D)purpura.
Q2) RS cells represent malignant transformation and proliferation of:
A)IL-1, IL-2, IL-5, and IL-6.
B)tumor necrosis factor-beta.
C)B cells.
D)T cells.
Q3) One of the most common causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is sepsis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma may be associated with Epstein Barr virus or HIV.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Q1) Hemoglobin S (Hb S) is formed in sickle cell disease as a result of a(n):
A)deficiency in G6PD that changes Hb A to Hb S.
B)genetic mutation in which two amino acids (histidine and leucine) are missing.
C)genetic mutation in which one amino acid (valine) is replaced by another (glutamic acid).
D)autoimmune response in which one amino acid (proline) is detected as an antigen by abnormal IgG.
Q2) What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?
A)Kernicterus
B)Icterus neonatorum
C)Jaundice
D)Icterus gravis neonatorum
Q3) Caused by clotting factor IX deficiency and is an X-linked recessive trait
A)Hemophilia A
B)Hemophilia B
C)Hemophilia C
D)von Willebrand disease
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A function of the papillary muscles is to _____ valves.
A)close the semilunar
B)prevent backward expulsion of the atrioventricular
C)close the atrioventricular
D)open the semilunar
Q2) Poiseuille's formula
A)Relationship among blood flow, pressure, and resistance
B)Increased heart rate from increased volume
C)Relationship of wall tension intraventricular pressure, internal radius, and wall thickness
D)Cycles of attachment, movement, and dissociation of thin filaments during the attachments of actin to myosin
E)Length-tension relationship of cardiac muscle
Q3) In the normal electrocardiogram, the PR interval represents:
A)atrial depolarization.
B)ventricular depolarization.
C)atrial activation to onset of ventricular activity.
D)"electrical systole" of the ventricles.
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aortic and mitral regurgitation as well as mitral stenosis are caused by:
A)congenital malformation.
B)cardiac failure.
C)rheumatic fever.
D)coronary artery disease.
Q2) A local state in which cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply is defined as:
A)infarction.
B)ischemia.
C)necrosis.
D)inflammation.
Q3) What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
A)An increase in osmotic pressure
B)Damage to the valves within veins
C)Damage to the venous endothelium
D)An increase in hydrostatic pressure
Q4) Usually caused by infiltrative disease, such as amyloidosis
A)Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B)Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C)Dilated cardiomyopathy
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coarctation of the aorta (COA) may be located:
A)exclusively on the aortic arch.
B)proximal to the brachiocephalic artery.
C)between the origin of the aortic arch and the bifurcation of the aorta in the lower abdomen.
D)between the origin of the aortic arch and the origin of the first intercostal artery.
Q2) Diagnosis of primary hypertension in children is difficult because the early stages are often asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which heart defect results in a single vessel arising from both ventricles providing blood to both the pulmonary and systemic circulations?
A)Coarctation of the aorta
B)Tetralogy of Fallot
C)Total anomalous pulmonary connection
D)Truncus arteriosus
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33
Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the brainstem provides basic automatic rhythm of respiration by sending efferent impulses to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles?
A)Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
B)Ventral respiratory group
C)Pneumotaxic center
D)Apneustic center
Q2) Air passage between alveoli is collateral and evenly distributed because of the:
A)type I alveolar cells.
B)pores of Kohn.
C)acinus pores.
D)alveolar pores.
Q3) The lungs contain only superficial lymphatic capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The trachea bifurcates into two bronchi at the carina.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The oropharynx is considered part of a conduction airway.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement?
A)Hypoventilation causes hypocapnia.
B)Hyperventilation causes hypercapnia.
C)Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia.
D)Hyperventilation results in an increased PaCO .
Q2) Flail chest
A)Accumulation of air in pleural space
B)Pus in the pleural space
C)Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
D)Inflammation of the pleura
E)Result of rib or sternal fractures
Q3) An abnormal ventilation-perfusion ratio is a common cause of hypoxemia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement about silicosis and asbestosis is false? Neither silicosis nor asbestosis is:
A)caused by inhalation of inorganic dust particles.
B)a type of pneumoconiosis.
C)a cause of lung cancer.
D)a cause of cellular apoptosis.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?
A)An immature immune system
B)Small alveoli
C)A surfactant deficiency
D)Anemia
Q2) Nasal problems, foreign body, polyps, or choanal atresia
A)Sonorous snoring
B)Muffled voice
C)High-pitched inspiratory sound, voice change, hoarse
D)Expiratory stridor or central wheeze
E)Expiratory wheezes
Q3) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) occurs most often between _____ and _____ months of age.
A)1; 2
B)3; 4
C)5; 6
D)6; 7
Q4) Surfactant is produced by the fourth week of gestation.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule is the secretion of sodium chloride.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Active transport in the renal tubules can be limited as the carrier molecules become saturated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Casts
A)Good estimate of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
B)Form in concentrated acidic or alkaline urine
C)Cylindric with distinct borders
D)Hematuria
E)Pyuria
Q4) The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly related to:
A)perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
B)diffusion rate in the renal cortex.
C)diffusion rate in the renal medulla.
D)glomerular active transport.
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical manifestation of pyelonephritis is different from those of cystitis?
A)Difficulty starting the stream of urine
B)Spasmodic pain that radiates to the groin
C)Dysuria and frequency
D)Flank pain
Q2) Two clinical manifestations of nephrotic syndrome include decreased glomerular permeability and increased proximal tubule reabsorption.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lesions of the sacral segments S2-S4 or the cauda equina are associated with urinary retention.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acute tubular necrosis
A)Prerenal
B)Intrarenal
C)Postrenal
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria gain access to the urinary tract by:
A)the systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney.
B)traveling from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys.
C)ascending up the urethra into the bladder or up the ureters into the kidney.
D)colonizing the bladder when urine is static.
Q2) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome frequently causes acute renal failure in young children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common cause of hydronephrosis in neonates
A)Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
B)Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis
C)Renal dysplasia
D)Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
E)Polycystic kidney disease
Q4) Unilateral renal agenesis is the total lack of one kidney and happens more often on the left side and in males.
A)True
B)False
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bilirubin is a byproduct of the destruction of aged _____ that are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen and liver.
A)platelets
B)protein
C)leukocytes
D)erythrocytes
Q2) The _____ cells in the stomach secrete hydrochloric acid.
A)parietal
B)chief
C)G
D)H
Q3) In the small intestine, sodium is transported into the intestinal cells in exchange for _____ at the brush border.
A)potassium
B)hydrogen
C)calcium
D)magnesium
Q4) When vitamin B is bound to intrinsic factor, it is resistant to digestion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symptoms characteristic of bulimia nervosa include:
A)recurrent episodes of binge eating with fears of not being able to stop eating.
B)a fear of becoming obese despite progressive weight loss.
C)a perception that the body is fat when it is actually underweight.
D)absence of three consecutive menstrual periods.
Q2) Because patterns of bowel evacuation differ greatly among individuals, constipation must be individually defined.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most commonly occurring small intestinal obstruction is:
A)diverticulosis.
B)tumor.
C)volvulus.
D)adhesions.
Q4) A peptic ulcer may occur in all of the following areas except the:
A)stomach.
B)duodenum.
C)jejunum.
D)esophagus.
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees.Vomiting occurs soon afterward.The mother reports that after the infant passed a normal stool, the stools look like currant jelly.Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect?
A)Congenital aganglionic megacolon
B)Intussusception
C)Malrotation
D)Volvulus
Q2) What distinguishes kwashiorkor from marasmus?
A)All nutrients, proteins, fats, and carbohydrates are reduced in kwashiorkor.
B)Physical growth of children is stunted in kwashiorkor, but not in marasmus.
C)Muscle wasting, diarrhea, low hemoglobin, and infection characterize kwashiorkor.
D)Subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver are present in kwashiorkor.
Q3) In at least 50% of infants with esophageal defects, other congenital anomalies are present as well.
A)True
B)False
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When bone is "resorbed" during the process of growth and repair the original bone:
A)is replaced.
B)hardens.
C)is removed.
D)is synthesized.
Q2) Fibroblasts, capillary buds, and osteoblasts move into the wound to produce granulation tissue.
A)Callus replacement
B)Hematoma formation
C)Remodeling
D)Procallus formation
E)Callus formation
Q3) How is a-glycoprotein different from albumin?
A)a-Glycoprotein inhibits calcium phosphate precipitation longer than albumin.
B)a-Glycoprotein has an affinity for calcium that is 40 times that of albumin.
C)a-Glycoprotein is able to maintain osmotic pressure 10 times greater than albumin.
D)a-Glycoprotein is able to transport essential elements, such as hormones and ions, faster than albumin.
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alcohol abuse is the most common cause of toxic myopathy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The calcium crystals that appear in the cartilage, synovial membranes, tendons, and soft tissue of people with chronic gout are called tophi.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?
A)Reduced excretion of purines
B)Overproduction of uric acid
C)Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels
D)Overproduction of proteoglycans
Q4) Osteomyelitis is a bone infection caused only by bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compartment syndromes are a localized form of crush syndromes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?
A)Syntrophin
B)Laminin
C)Dystrophin
D)Troponin
Q2) Limb girdle muscular dystrophy is a possible diagnosis when acute causes of proximal weakness are eliminated as well as Duchenne and facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta?
A)Phosphorus
B)Calcium
C)Alkaline phosphatase
D)Total protein
Q4) Poor posture results in structural scoliosis.
A)True
B)False
45
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Chapter 44: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first change in the skin to indicate a pressure ulcer?
A)Blanchable erythema of intact skin
B)Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
C)Blister at the site of pressure
D)Reddish-purple discoloration
Q2) Varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles)
A)Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter
B)Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
C)Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter
D)Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid, transient; with a variable diameter
E)Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter
Q3) Tinea (e.g., ringworm) and candidiasis are caused by fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The relationship between nevi and melanoma has been found to be insignificant.
A)True
B)False
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pinpoint white spots surrounded by an erythematous ring over the buccal mucosa
A)Rubella (German measles)
B)Rubeola (red measles)
C)Roseola (exanthema subitum)
D)Varicella (chickenpox)
E)Herpes zoster (shingles)
Q2) Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by:
A)Staphylococcus.
B)Streptococcus.
C)herpesvirus.
D)Candida albicans.
Q3) What is the cause of chickenpox?
A)Poxvirus
B)Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
C)Adenovirus
D)Human papillomavirus
Q4) Koplik spots are characteristic of rubella.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and
Burns in Adult
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Q1) What type of shock develops with overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system or understimulation of the sympathetic nervous system?
A)Septic shock
B)Cardiogenic shock
C)Anaphylactic shock
D)Vasogenic shock
Q2) In septic shock, which mediators are anti-inflammatory?
A)IL-4, IL-10, and IL-13
B)TNF-a and granulocyte cell-stimulating factor
C)IL-1, IL-2, and IL-6
D)Prostaglandin, leukotrienes, and bradykinin
Q3) Without oxygen, cells shift from anaerobic to aerobic metabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Follows parasympathetic stimulation
A)Cardiogenic shock
B)Hypovolemic shock
C)Neurogenic shock
D)Anaphylactic shock
E)Septic shock
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Chapter 47: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children are at high risk for pulmonary complications because of:
A)immature lungs.
B)anatomic differences in their airways.
C)decreased immunity.
D)high incidences of pneumonia.
Q2) What causes renal failure after electrical burns in children?
A)Cytokines released after the damaged tissue
B)Immature kidneys unable to compensate for the electrical burn
C)Reduction in cardiac output
D)Myoglobin released from damaged muscles
Q3) Viruses, fungi, or rickettsial microorganisms cause about 40% of nosocomial infections in children.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Excessive skin blood flow may be present in _____ shock.
A)hemorrhagic
B)septic
C)compensated
D)cardiogenic
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