Adult Health Nursing Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care and management of adult patients experiencing acute and chronic health conditions. This course covers the principles of nursing practice, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based interventions tailored to meet the physiological, psychological, and social needs of adults across the lifespan. Students will learn to assess patient conditions, develop individualized care plans, and collaborate with interdisciplinary teams to promote health, restore function, and enhance the quality of life for adult patients. Emphasis is placed on patient safety, ethical considerations, health education, and the integration of technology in adult healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 10th Edition by Jacqueline Burchum
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110 Chapters
1439 Verified Questions
1439 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this, the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?
A) Clinical pharmacology
B) Drug efficacy
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Answer: D
Q2) Before administering a medication, what does the nurse need to know to evaluate how individual patient variability might affect the patient's response to the medication?
A) Chemical stability of the medication
B) Ease of administration
C) Family medical history
D) Patient's age
E) Patient's diagnosis
Answer: C, D, E
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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is using a metered-dose inhaler containing albuterol for asthma. The medication label instructs the patient to administer "2 puffs every 4 hours as needed for coughing or wheezing." The patient reports feeling jittery sometimes when taking the medication, and he or she doesn't feel that the medication is always effective. Which action is outside the nurse's scope of practice?
A) Asking the patient to demonstrate the use of the inhaler
B) Assessing the patient's exposure to tobacco smoke
C) Auscultating lung sounds and obtaining vital signs
D) Suggesting that the patient use 1 puff to reduce side effects
Answer: D
Q2) A patient has been receiving intravenous penicillin for pneumonia for several days and begins to complain of generalized itching. The nurse auscultates bilateral wheezing and notes a temperature of 38.5°C (101°F). Which is the correct action by the nurse?
A) Administer the next dose and continue to evaluate the patient's symptoms.
B) Ask the prescriber if an antihistamine can be given to relieve the itching.
C) Contact the prescriber to request an order for a chest radiograph.
D) Hold the next dose and notify the prescriber of the symptoms.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse why drugs that have been approved by the FDA still have unknown side effects. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Testing for all side effects of a medication would be prohibitively expensive.
B) Patients in drug trials often are biased by their preconceptions of a drug's benefits.
C) Researchers tend to conduct studies that will prove the benefits of their new drugs.
D) Subjects in drug trials do not always represent the full spectrum of possible patients.
Answer: D
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is explaining drug metabolism to a nursing student who asks about glucuronidation. The nurse knows that this is a process that allows drugs to be:
A) excreted in hydrolyzed form in the feces to reduce drug toxicity.
B) reabsorbed from the urine into the renal circulation to minimize drug loss.
C) recycled via the enterohepatic recirculation to remain in the body longer.
D) transported across the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine.
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that the oral drug that has been prescribed has caused a lot of stomach discomfort in the past. What will the nurse ask the prescriber?
A) Whether a sublingual form of the medication can be given
B) Whether the medication can be given by a parenteral route instead
C) Whether an enteric-coated form of the drug is available
D) Whether the patient can receive a sustained-release preparation of the drug
Q3) A patient is taking a drug that does not bind to albumin. Which aspect of renal drug excretion is affected by this characteristic?
A) Active tubular secretion
B) Glomerular filtration
C) Passive tubular reabsorption
D) pH-dependent ionization
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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability?
A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth
B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn
C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms
D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body
E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain
Q2) A patient who is taking morphine for pain asks the nurse how a pain medication can also cause constipation. What does the nurse know about morphine?
A) It binds to different types of receptors in the body.
B) It can cause constipation in toxic doses.
C) It causes only one type of response, and the constipation is coincidental.
D) It is selective to receptors that regulate more than one body process.
Q3) A patient has been receiving an antibiotic with a small therapeutic index for 10 days. Upon assessment, the nurse notes an increase in the drug's side effects. What would be the nurse's priority action?
A) Call the prescriber and have the antibiotic changed.
B) Suspect an allergic reaction and administer a PRN antihistamine.
C) Ask the prescriber to order a plasma drug level test.
D) Set up oxygen and obtain an order for an antagonist.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young adult postoperative patient is receiving morphine 2 to 4 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. The last dose was 3 mg given 2 hours ago. The patient is asleep, and the nurse notes a heart rate of 86 beats/min and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which PRN medication will the nurse give this patient?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to counter morphine side effects
B) Morphine 4 mg for increased pain, as indicated by tachycardia
C) Naloxone [Narcan] to block the effects of the morphine
D) Nothing at this time, because the patient is resting comfortably
Q2) The nurse is providing multiple medications to a patient whose spouse brings grapefruit juice every morning. The nurse will be concerned about which classes of drugs?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C) Aminoglycosides
D) Beta blockers
E) Penicillins
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Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse consults the drug information manual and learns that nausea is not an expected adverse effect of this drug. When the next dose is due, what will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug and tell the patient to report further nausea.
B) Hold the drug and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.
C) Report the symptoms of nausea to the MEDWATCH program.
D) Request an order for an antiemetic to counter this drug's effects.
Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking a drug with a known risk of hepatotoxicity. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this drug."
B) "I will need periodic evaluation of aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels."
C) "If I experience nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, I should call my provider."
D) "Routine testing and early detection of problems will prevent liver failure."
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9
Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommends genetic testing of patients receiving certain medications. Genetic testing helps prescribers:
A) better establish a drug's therapeutic index.
B) determine whether a patient is a rapid or slow metabolizer of the drug.
C) identify racial characteristics that affect psychosocial variation in drug response.
D) produce a drug that is tailored to an individual patient's genetic makeup.
Q2) Which groups of people are especially sensitive to medication effects?
A) Older adults
B) Caucasians
C) Infants
D) Minorities
E) Women
Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of women about medications. The women want to know why so many drugs have unpredictable effects in women. The nurse will tell them that:
A) drugs usually have more toxic effects in women.
B) most known drug effects are based on drug trials in men.
C) women have varying responses to drugs during menstrual cycles.
D) women metabolize drugs more slowly.
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse why more is not known about the teratogenic effects of maternal medication ingestion during pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Clinical trials to assess this risk would put the fetus at risk."
B) "It is safer to recommend that pregnant women avoid medications while pregnant."
C) "Most women are reluctant to admit taking medications while they are pregnant."
D) "The relatively new MEPREP study will allow testing of medications during pregnancy in the future."
Q2) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?
A) Drugs that are highly polar
B) Ionized drugs
C) Lipid-soluble drugs
D) Protein-bound drugs
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child will receive 750 mg of an antibiotic for 10 days. The child attends day care. The drug may be dosed in several ways and is available in two concentrations. Which dosing regimen will the nurse discuss with the child's provider?
A) 250 mg/5 mL to 375 mg PO twice daily
B) 250 mg/5 mL to 250 mg PO 3 times daily
C) 500 mg/5 mL to 250 mg PO 3 times daily
D) 500 mg/5 mL to 375 mg PO twice daily
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about pediatric medication administration. What will the nurse include when discussing pediatric drug research?
A) Early studies revealed that less than 10% of drugs known to be effective in adults were effective in children.
B) Research findings show that drug doses may be safely calculated by extrapolating adult dosing.
C) Studies showed a significant percentage of unanticipated and potentially lethal side effects in children.
D) There is no need to continue with pediatric-specific drug research, since early studies were reassuring.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is making a home visit to an older adult woman who was recently discharged home from the hospital with a new prescription. The nurse notes that a serum drug level drawn the day before was subtherapeutic. What will the nurse do next?
A) Ask the patient if she has difficulty swallowing pills.
B) Count the pills in the prescription bottle.
C) Notify the provider to request more frequent dosing.
D) Request an order for renal function tests.
Q2) An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation of a chronic illness. Admission laboratory work reveals an extremely low serum drug level of the drug used to treat this condition. The patient has brought the medication to the hospital, along with other medications taken. The patient's renal and hepatic function tests are normal. What might the nurse suspect as a likely cause of this finding?
A) Financial concerns
B) Inability to open drug containers
C) Increased tolerance to the drug's effects
D) Patient's conviction that the drug is unnecessary
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13
Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is administering drug X to a patient. The drug information states that the drug acts by activating receptors in the peripheral nervous system by increasing transmitter synthesis. The nurse understands that the effect of this drug is to:
A) activate axonal conduction.
B) enhance transmitter storage.
C) increase receptor activation.
D) synthesize supertransmitters.
Q2) A nursing student asks about drugs that interfere with the termination of transmitter action. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Drugs act on this process by altering the diffusion of the transmitter away from the synaptic gap."
B) "Drugs can interfere with termination by either increasing or decreasing reuptake of the transmitter."
C) "Drugs in this category lead to decreased activation by the transmitter in the synapse."
D) "These drugs reduce either reuptake or degradation of the transmitter, causing an increase in receptor activation."
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14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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9 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse will monitor for which side effect?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Tachypnea
D) Urinary retention
Q2) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?
A) Alpha<sub>1</sub> agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
D) Beta<sub>2</sub> antagonist
Q3) What is the target organ when a beta<sub>1</sub> agonist is administered?
A) Heart
B) Kidney
C) Respiratory
D) Liver
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber has ordered bethanechol [Urecholine] for a postoperative patient who has urinary retention. The nurse reviews the patient's chart before giving the drug. Which part of the patient's history would be a contraindication to using this drug?
A) Asthma as a child
B) Gastroesophageal reflux
C) Hypertension
D) Hypothyroidism
Q2) A prescriber has ordered pilocarpine [Pilocar]. A nurse understands that the drug stimulates muscarinic receptors and would expect the drug to have which action?
A) Reduction of excessive secretions in a postoperative patient
B) Lowering of intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma
C) Inhibition of muscular activity in the bladder
D) Prevention of hypertensive crisis
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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia
Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working in the emergency department is assigned to a child who is arriving by ambulance after being involved in a spill of organophosphate insecticides. What will the nurse expect to be the initial priority for treating this child?
A) Administering diphenhydramine to control secretions
B) Giving diazepam to control seizures
C) Providing mechanical ventilation and oxygen
D) Reporting the spill to the Environmental Protection Agency
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient who is newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis about managing the disease. Which is important when teaching this patient about adverse effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?
A) "There are very few serious side effects associated with your medication."
B) "It is important to notify your provider if you have excessive saliva."
C) "If you experience urinary urgency, you may need to increase your dose."
D) "Excessive sweating is a minor side effect and will improve over time."
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17
Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) While preparing a patient for a procedure in which a neuromuscular blocking agent will be used, the nurse reviews the patient's preprocedure laboratory values. Which abnormality would cause the most concern?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Hypokalemia
Q2) While preparing a patient for a second esophageal dilation procedure, the nurse explains that succinylcholine [Anectine] will be used for muscle relaxation. The patient is anxious and reports not being able to swallow for several hours after the previous procedure. What will the nurse do?
A) Be prepared to provide mechanical ventilation after the procedure.
B) Have dantrolene available, because this patient is at increased risk for side effects.
C) Reassure the patient that this is expected after neuromuscular blockade.
D) Request an order for a pseudocholinesterase level.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to:
A) prevent hypertension induced by the anesthetic.
B) allow a reduced dose of the anesthetic.
C) reduce anesthetic-induced nausea.
D) reduce the pain of an injection.
Q2) Because they cause vasoconstriction, alpha<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic agonists are especially useful for:
A) causing hemostasis in skin and mucous membranes.
B) producing mydriasis to facilitate ophthalmic examinations.
C) slowing the heart rate in tachycardic patients.
D) treating hypotension.
Q3) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about the two classes of adrenergic agonist drugs. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Catecholamines may be given orally."
B) "Catecholamines often require continuous infusion to be effective."
C) "Noncatecholamines do not cross the blood-brain barrier."
D) "Noncatecholamines undergo rapid degradation by monoamine oxidase."
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes is taking NPH insulin, 30 units every day. A nurse notes that the patient is also taking metoprolol [Lopressor]. What education should the nurse provide to the patient?
A) "Metoprolol has no effect on diabetes mellitus or on your insulin requirements."
B) "Metoprolol interferes with the effects of insulin, so you may need to increase your insulin dose."
C) "Metoprolol may mask signs of hypoglycemia, so you need to monitor your blood glucose closely."
D) "Metoprolol may potentiate the effects of the insulin, so the dose should be reduced."
Q2) A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and has stopped taking his alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication because of ejaculatory difficulties. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
A) Alfuzosin [Uroxatral]
B) Prazosin [Minipress]
C) Silodosin [Rapaflo]
D) Tamsulosin [Flomax]
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypertension has a previous history of opioid dependence. Which medication would the nurse question?
A) Clonidine [Catapres]
B) Guanabenz [Wytensin]
C) Methyldopa
D) Reserpine [Serpasil]
Q2) A prescriber has ordered methyldopa for a patient with hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about drug actions, adverse effects, and the ongoing blood tests necessary with this drug. The nurse is correct to tell the patient what?
A) "If you have a positive Coombs' test result, you will need to discontinue the medication, because this means you have hemolytic anemia."
B) "Methyldopa can be used for its analgesic effects and for its hypertensive effects."
C) "Xerostomia and orthostatic hypotension are serious side effects and indications for withdrawing the medication."
D) "You will need to contact the provider and stop taking the medication if your eyes look yellow."
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21
Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A psychiatric nurse is teaching a patient about an antidepressant medication. The nurse tells the patient that therapeutic effects may not occur for several weeks. The nurse understands that this is likely the result of:
A) changes in the brain as a result of prolonged drug exposure.
B) direct actions of the drug on specific synaptic functions in the brain.
C) slowed drug absorption across the blood-brain barrier.
D) tolerance to exposure to the drug over time.
Q2) Which monoamines act as neurotransmitters in the central nervous system?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Serotonin
D) Dopamine
E) Epinephrine
F) Histamine
Q3) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs?
A) Analgesia
B) Anesthesia
C) Depression
D) Euphoria
E) Seizure control
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Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinson Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has taken levodopa [Dopar] for Parkinson disease for 2 weeks but reports no improvement in the symptoms. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Another agent will be needed to manage your symptoms."
B) "Double the dose to see whether an effect occurs."
C) "It may take several months for a response to occur."
D) "The prescriber may need to change your drug regimen."
Q2) A nursing student wants to know why a patient who has been taking levodopa [Dopar] for years will now receive levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. The nurse explains the reasons that levodopa as a single agent is no longer available. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education?
A) "Carbidopa increases the availability of levodopa in the central nervous system."
B) "Carbidopa reduces the incidence of nausea and vomiting."
C) "Combination products reduce peripheral cardiovascular side effects."
D) "Combination products cause fewer dyskinesias and decreased psychosis."
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23
Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer memantine [Nemanda] to a patient and notes a slight elevation in the patient's creatinine clearance level. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Adding sodium bicarbonate to the patient's drug regimen
B) Continuing the memantine as ordered
C) Discontinuing the memantine
D) Reducing the dose of memantine
Q2) An older adult patient has confusion, memory loss, and disorientation in familiar surroundings. The patient has been taking donepezil [Aricept] 10 mg once daily for 6 months. The patient's symptoms have begun to worsen, and the patient's spouse asks if the medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell the spouse?
A) The dose can be increased, because the patient has been taking the drug for longer than 3 months.
B) The dose can be increased to twice daily dosing instead of once daily dosing.
C) The increase in symptoms is the result of hepatotoxicity from the medication's side effects.
D) The patient must take the drug for longer than 1 year before the dose can be increased.
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24
Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs may be selected by the provider for initial treatment for a patient who is diagnosed with relapsing-remitting MS?
A) Dimethyl fumarate [Tecfidera] PO
B) Interferon beta-1a [Avonex] IM
C) Mitoxantrone [Novantrone] IV
D) Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] PO
E) Teriflunomide [Aubagio] PO
Q2) A patient has been newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS), and the nurse provides teaching about the medications for the disease. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may need to take additional drugs at times of acute relapse."
B) "I will need to take medication indefinitely."
C) "If medication is begun early, permanent remission can be achieved."
D) "Some symptoms may need to be managed with symptom-specific drugs."
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Chapter 24: Drugs for Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient shows loss of consciousness, jaw clenching, contraction and relaxation of muscle groups, and periods of cyanosis. The nurse correctly identifies this as which type of seizure?
A) Tonic-clonic
B) Petit mal
C) Myoclonic
D) Atonic
Q2) A patient who has a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital after an increase in seizure frequency, and the prescriber orders carbamazepine [Tegretol] 100 mg twice daily to be added to the patient's medication regimen. The nurse reviewing the patient's medical history notes that the patient is already taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] 375 mg twice daily. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which action?
A) Reducing the carbamazepine dose to 50 mg twice daily
B) Reducing the lamotrigine dose to 225 mg twice daily
C) Increasing the carbamazepine dose to 200 mg twice daily
D) Increasing the lamotrigine dose to 500 mg twice daily
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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?
A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury
B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia
C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis
D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy
Q2) A patient has localized muscle spasms after an injury. The prescriber has ordered tizanidine [Zanaflex] to alleviate the spasms. When obtaining the patient's health history, the nurse should be concerned about which possible reason for considering another drug?
A) Concomitant use of aspirin
B) A history of hepatitis
C) A history of malignant hyperthermia
D) Occasional use of alcohol
Q3) Which drugs are used to treat spasticity?
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
E) Tizanidine [Flexeril]
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?
A) Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand
B) Inability to feel pressure at the suture site
C) Nervousness and tachycardia
D) Sensation of pain returning to the wound
Q2) Which are important considerations when spinal anesthesia is being administered?
A) Encouraging the patient to remain supine after the procedure
B) Having epinephrine available in case of adverse effects
C) Injecting a local anesthetic into the sacral region
D) Placing the agent into the spinal column outside the dura mater
E) Using an anesthetic solution from a single-dose vial
Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching?
A) "Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first."
B) "Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves."
C) "Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception."
D) "Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects."
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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25921
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse caring for a patient after a cesarean section learns that the patient received isoflurane [Forane] during the surgery. What will the nurse monitor most closely in this patient?
A) Hypertension
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Constipation
D) Uterine tone
Q2) An anesthesiologist completes preoperative teaching for a patient the night before surgery. The patient asks the nurse to clarify the reason methohexital [Brevital] will be given as an adjunct to the anesthetic. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?
A) "Brevital allows a larger amount of inhaled anesthetic to be used without increased side effects."
B) "Brevital is given to enhance the analgesic and muscle relaxation effects of the inhaled anesthetic."
C) "Brevital is used to produce rapid unconsciousness before administration of the inhaled anesthetic."
D) "Brevital is used to reduce cardiovascular and respiratory depression caused by the inhaled anesthetic."
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 28: Opioid Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25922
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic pain has been receiving morphine sulfate but now has decreased pain. The prescriber changes the medication to pentazocine [Talwin]. The nurse will monitor the patient for:
A) euphoria.
B) hypotension.
C) respiratory depression.
D) yawning and sweating.
Q2) A woman in labor receives meperidine [Demerol] for pain. The nurse caring for the infant will observe the infant closely for:
A) congenital anomalies.
B) excessive crying and sneezing.
C) respiratory depression.
D) tremors and hyperreflexia.
Q3) Which side effects of opioid analgesics can have therapeutic benefits?
A) Biliary colic
B) Cough suppression
C) Suppression of bowel motility
D) Urinary retention
E) Vasodilation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25923
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking a fixed-dose combination drug with an opioid and acetaminophen for cancer pain reports increased muscular pain. The patient asks the nurse if the pain medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) An adjuvant analgesic medication will probably be used to help with this pain.
B) An additional dose of acetaminophen can be used to enhance pain relief.
C) Increasing the dose is possible, because there is no ceiling to opioid pain relief.
D) The provider will prescribe separate dosing of the opioid and acetaminophen.
Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is admitted to the hospital, and the provider orders oxycodone [OxyContin] every 4 to 6 hours PRN pain. The patient requests pain medication whenever he or she reports pain as a 7 or 8 on a scale of 1 to 10 (10 being the worst pain), but he or she tells the nurse the medication is not working well. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) a fixed dosing schedule for the oxycodone.
B) intramuscular meperidine [Demerol].
C) intravenous morphine sulfate.
D) transdermal fentanyl.
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25924
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has migraine headaches has been using sumatriptan [Imitrex] with good results, but reports frequent migraine recurrence 24 hours later. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Aspirin
B) Ergotamine [Ergomar]
C) Naratriptan [Amerge]
D) Zolmitriptan [Zomig]
Q2) A woman with moderate migraine headaches asks a nurse why the provider has ordered metoclopramide [Reglan] as an adjunct to aspirin therapy, because she does not usually experience nausea and vomiting with her migraines. The nurse will tell her that the metoclopramide is used to:
A) help induce sleep.
B) improve absorption of the aspirin.
C) prevent gastric irritation caused by the aspirin.
D) prolong the effects of the aspirin.
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25925
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in whom drug therapy has failed several times in the past is readmitted to a hospital to begin therapy for schizophrenia. What will the nurse do to help improve adherence?
A) Encourage the patient to take responsibility for medication management.
B) Teach the patient about drug side effects and how to manage them.
C) Tell the patient that an abstinence syndrome will occur if the drug is stopped.
D) Tell the patient that the drug may be taken as needed to control symptoms.
Q2) A patient who is taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) drug for schizophrenia comes to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait and mild tremors. The nurse will ask the patient's provider about which course of action?
A) Administering a direct dopamine antagonist
B) Giving an anticholinergic medication
C) Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug
D) Switching to a second-generation antipsychotic drug
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25926
Sample Questions
Q1) A provider has indicated that a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) will be prescribed for a patient who is experiencing major depression. When conducting a pretreatment health history, the nurse learns that the patient has a recent history of alcohol abuse. Which SNRI would be contraindicated for this patient?
A) Desvenlafaxine [Pristiq]
B) Duloxetine [Cymbalta]
C) Escitalopram [Lexapro]
D) Venlafaxine [Effexor SR]
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department after taking a handful of TCA pills. The nurse will expect to provide what when caring for this patient?
A) Cardiac monitoring
B) Cholinesterase inhibitors
C) Gastric lavage and activated charcoal
D) Sedative medications
E) Procainamide
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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25927
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years. The patient has developed a goiter, and serum tests reveal hypothyroidism. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Administration of levothyroxine
B) Increasing the lithium dose
C) Iodine supplements
D) Referral to an endocrinologist
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a hospitalized patient who has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for 3 days. The patient is complaining of mild nausea and abdominal bloating. The patient's lithium level is 0.8 mEq/L. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the dose and tell the patient that the side effects are temporary.
B) Contact the prescriber to request an order for serum electrolytes.
C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber of the patient's lithium level.
D) Request an order for amiloride [Midamor].
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35
Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25928
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains of chronic insomnia and reports being tired all the time. The patient is reluctant to try pharmacologic remedies and asks the nurse what to do. What will the nurse suggest?
A) "Eat a large meal in the evening to induce drowsiness."
B) "Get out of bed for a while if you can't fall asleep."
C) "Have a glass of wine at bedtime to relax."
D) "Take a short nap early in the afternoon every day."
Q2) A patient in the emergency department is given intravenous diazepam [Valium] for seizures. When the seizures stop, the nurse notes that the patient is lethargic and confused and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following?
A) Flumazenil [Romazicon]
B) Gastric lavage
C) Respiratory support
D) Toxicology testing
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25929
Sample Questions
Q1) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are known to be effective for which disorders?
A) Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) Panic disorder
D) Post-traumatic stress disorder
E) Social anxiety disorder
Q2) During an admission history, a patient reports a frequent need to return to a room multiple times to make sure an iron or other appliance is unplugged. What does the nurse understand about this patient's behavior?
A) It helps the patient reduce anxiety about causing a fire.
B) It usually is treated with alprazolam [Xanax].
C) It seems perfectly normal to the patient.
D) It will best respond to deep brain stimulation.
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25930
Sample Questions
Q1) An adult patient will begin taking atomoxetine [Strattera] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) Appetite suppression does not occur, because this drug is not a stimulant.
B) Stopping the drug abruptly will cause an abstinence syndrome.
C) Suicidal thoughts may occur and should be reported to the provider.
D) Therapeutic effects may not be felt for 1 to 3 weeks after beginning therapy.
Q2) A male child is diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The prescriber orders a central nervous system stimulant. Which statement by the child's parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should report insomnia and poor appetite to his provider."
B) "I will make sure he takes his medication after breakfast every day."
C) "This drug will make him less impulsive while he's at school."
D) "This medication will help my child focus so he can learn new behaviors."
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25931
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is addicted to several drugs. The student tells the nurse that the patient "got this way on purpose." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "Peer pressure and social factors determine individual choices."
B) "Physical dependence is necessary for addiction to occur."
C) "Pre-existing psychopathology underlies most drug abuse."
D) "Some individuals are more vulnerable to drug abuse than others."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a class on addiction. Which statement by one of the class participants indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Addictive drugs lead to dopamine release in amounts similar to those released by normal reward circuits."
B) "Neural remodeling leads to decreased dopamine release, leaving users with feelings of lifelessness and depression."
C) "Over time, the brain will develop reduced responses to many addictive drugs."
D) "With the use of a drug over time, the brain undergoes synaptic remodeling."
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25932
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells a nurse that she drinks wine for its cardioprotective effects. She wants to know how much is safe. The nurse is correct in telling her that:
A) "A couple of glasses of wine 1 or 2 days a week will help prevent heart disease."
B) "Abstaining from alcohol completely is the best way to prevent heart disease."
C) "If you drink only on weekends, you will minimize your risk of developing heart disease."
D) "Cardioprotective effects are greatest in people who live an unhealthy lifestyle."
Q2) A nurse is discussing alcohol abuse with a group of nursing students. One student asks whether alcohol consumption has any beneficial effects. The nurse replies that, in moderate amounts, alcohol:
A) helps people to sleep well.
B) improves sexual responsiveness.
C) may protect against dementia.
D) prevents hypothermia.
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25933
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who wants to quit smoking has begun taking varenicline [Chantix]. The patient reports experiencing mood swings and depression and a desire to cause harm to herself. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "These symptoms are common and will disappear over time."
B) "These symptoms may indicate an underlying psychiatric disorder."
C) "You may need an increased dose to overcome these symptoms of nicotine withdrawal."
D) "You should notify your provider of these symptoms immediately."
Q2) A nurse is conducting a smoking cessation class in the community and is discussing the physiologic effects of nicotine. The nurse is correct to teach that these effects include which of the following?
A) Increased blood pressure
B) Decreased gastric acid
C) Vomiting
D) Suppression of nausea
E) Increased alertness
F) Suppression of appetite
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25934
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary reason for opioid abuse?
A) Ease of access
B) Initial "rush" similar to orgasm
C) Peer pressure
D) Prolonged sense of euphoria
Q2) A nurse is teaching a drug prevention class to a group of parents of adolescents. Which statement by a parent indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Compared with alcohol, marijuana has little or no long-term adverse effects."
B) "Ecstasy causes reversible damage to serotonergic neurons."
C) "LSD does not cause an abstinence syndrome when it is withdrawn."
D) "Most individuals who abuse opioids began using them therapeutically."
Q3) A nurse is discussing the differences between OxyContin OC and OxyContin OP with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "OxyContin OC cannot be drawn into a syringe for injection."
B) "OxyContin OP has greater solubility in water and alcohol."
C) "OxyContin OP is not easily crushed into a powder."
D) "Patients using OxyContin OP are less likely to overdose."
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Chapter 41: Diuretics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25935
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities bilaterally. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles bilaterally, and the serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which diuretic agent ordered by the prescriber should the nurse question?
A) Bumetanide [Bumex]
B) Furosemide [Lasix]
C) Spironolactone [Aldactone]
D) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]
Q2) A patient who was in a motor vehicle accident sustained a severe head injury and is brought into the emergency department. The provider orders intravenous mannitol [Osmitrol]. The nurse knows that this is given to:
A) reduce intracranial pressure.
B) reduce renal perfusion.
C) reduce peripheral edema.
D) restore extracellular fluid.
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Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25936
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient collapses after running a marathon on a hot day and is brought to the emergency department to be treated for dehydration. The nurse will expect to provide which therapy?
A) Intravenous hypertonic fluids given slowly over several hours
B) Intravenous hypotonic fluids administered in stages
C) Intravenous isotonic fluids given as a rapid bolus
D) Oral electrolyte replacement fluids with potassium
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of muscle weakness and drowsiness. The nurse notes a heart rate of 80 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram reveals an abnormal rhythm. The nurse will question the patient about which over-the-counter medication?
A) Antacids
B) Aspirin
C) Laxatives
D) Potassium supplements
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44
Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25937
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure."
B) "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart."
C) "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood."
D) "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."
Q2) A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased heart rate
C) Decreased blood pressure
D) Syncope
Q3) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.
B) expect bradycardia for a few days.
C) notify the provider if headache occurs.
D) report shortness of breath.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25938
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking furosemide [Lasix] and digoxin will begin taking captopril [Capoten]. The nurse is providing information about the drug. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can use acetaminophen for analgesia if needed."
B) "I should stop taking the Lasix about a week before starting the Capoten."
C) "I should take this medication on a full stomach."
D) "I will need to have blood tests done every 2 weeks for a few months."
Q2) A patient with hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse reviewing this patient's chart before administering the medication will be most concerned about which other disease process?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Renal artery stenosis
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25939
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to assist a nursing student to administer intravenous verapamil to a patient who also receives a beta blocker. The nurse asks the nursing student to discuss the plan of care for this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will check to see when the last dose of the beta blocker was given."
B) "I will monitor vital signs closely to assess for hypotension."
C) "I will monitor the heart rate frequently to assess for reflex tachycardia."
D) "I will prepare to administer intravenous norepinephrine if necessary."
Q2) Which are therapeutic uses of verapamil?
A) Angina of effort
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Essential hypertension
D) Sick sinus syndrome
E) Suppression of preterm labor
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25940
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient with essential hypertension is being treated with hydralazine 25 mg twice daily. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 96 beats/min and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The nurse will request an order to:
A) administer a beta blocker.
B) administer a drug that dilates veins.
C) reduce the dose of hydralazine.
D) give the patient a diuretic.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who will begin taking hydralazine to treat hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching about this drug?
A) "I will need to ask for assistance when getting up out of a chair."
B) "I will also take a beta blocker medication with this drug to prevent rapid heart rate."
C) "I may develop joint pain, but this side effect will decrease over time."
D) "This drug may cause excessive hair growth on my face, arms, and back."
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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25941
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse checks a patient's vital signs in the hospital and notes a blood pressure of 146/98 mm Hg. What will the nurse do?
A) Instruct the patient to consume a low-sodium diet.
B) Prepare the patient for an electrocardiogram and blood tests.
C) Recheck the patient's blood pressure in the other arm.
D) Request an order for a thiazide diuretic.
Q2) A nurse has provided education for a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension who is just beginning therapy with antihypertensive medications. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may experience serious long-term problems even if I am not having symptoms."
B) "I should report side effects to the provider since other drugs may be substituted."
C) "I will need to take medications on a long-term basis."
D) "When my symptoms subside, I may discontinue the medications."
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25942
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing heart failure with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of how compensatory mechanisms can compound existing problems in patients with heart failure?
A) "An increase in arteriolar tone to improve tissue perfusion can decrease resistance."
B) "An increase in contractility to increase cardiac output can cause pulmonary edema."
C) "When the heart rate increases to increase cardiac output, it can prevent adequate filling of the ventricles."
D) "When venous tone increases to increase ventricular filling, an increase in arterial pressure occurs."
Q2) Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Decreased force of contraction
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Modulation of neurohormonal systems
E) Positive inotropic effects
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25943
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with atrial fibrillation is taking verapamil [Calan]. The patient has read about the drug on the internet and wants to know why a drug that affects the rate of ventricular contraction is used to treat an abnormal atrial contraction. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "Drugs that treat ventricular dysrhythmias help to restore normal sinus rhythm."
B) "Atrial dysrhythmias can have life-threatening effects on ventricular function."
C) "Treating ventricular dysrhythmias helps prevent the likelihood of stroke."
D) "When ventricular contraction slows, atrial contraction is also slowed."
Q2) A patient is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and quinidine to treat sustained ventricular tachycardia. Before giving medications, the nurse reviews the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) and notes a QRS complex that has widened by 50% from the baseline ECG. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medications as ordered, because this indicates improvement.
B) Contact the provider to discuss reducing the digoxin dose.
C) Contact the provider to request an increase in the quinidine dose.
D) Withhold the quinidine and contact the provider to report the ECG finding.
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular
Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25944
Sample Questions
Q1) Lovastatin [Mevacor] is prescribed for a patient for the first time. The nurse should provide the patient with which instruction?
A) "Take lovastatin with your evening meal."
B) "Take this medicine before breakfast."
C) "You may take lovastatin without regard to meals."
D) "Take this medicine on an empty stomach."
Q2) A nurse is providing discharge teaching instructions for a patient taking cholestyramine [Questran]. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will take warfarin [Coumadin] 1 hour before my medicine."
B) "I will increase the fluids and fiber in my diet."
C) "I can take cholestyramine with my hydrochlorothiazide."
D) "I will take digoxin 4 hours after taking the cholestyramine."
Q3) Which plasma lipoprotein level is most concerning when considering the risk of coronary atherosclerosis?
A) Elevated cholesterol
B) Elevated high-density lipoprotein
C) Elevated low-density lipoprotein
D) Elevated very-low-density lipoprotein
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25945
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has begun using transdermal nitroglycerin for angina reports occasional periods of tachycardia. The nurse will expect the prescriber to order:
A) digoxin [Lanoxin] to slow the heart rate.
B) immediate discontinuation of the nitroglycerin.
C) periods of rest when the heart rate increases.
D) verapamil as an adjunct to nitroglycerin therapy.
Q2) A patient asks a nurse how nitroglycerin works to relieve anginal pain. The nurse correctly states, "Nitroglycerin:
A) dilates coronary arteries to increase blood flow to the heart."
B) increases the oxygen supply to the cardiac muscle."
C) increases ventricular filling to improve cardiac output."
D) promotes vasodilation, which reduces preload and oxygen demand."
Q3) A patient is taking a calcium channel blocker (CCB) for stable angina. The patient's spouse asks how calcium channel blockers relieve pain. The nurse will explain that CCBs:
A) help relax peripheral arterioles to reduce afterload.
B) improve coronary artery perfusion.
C) increase the heart rate to improve myocardial contractility.
D) increase the QT interval.
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25946
Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient will begin anticoagulant therapy with rivaroxaban [Xarelto] after knee replacement surgery. The nurse performs a history and learns that the patient is taking erythromycin. The patient's creatinine clearance is 50 mL/min. The nurse will:
A) administer the first dose of rivaroxaban as ordered.
B) notify the provider to discuss changing the patient's antibiotic.
C) request an order for a different anticoagulant medication.
D) request an order to increase the dose of rivaroxaban.
Q2) A postoperative patient reports pain in the left lower extremity. The nurse notes swelling in the lower leg, which feels warm to the touch. The nurse will anticipate giving which medication?
A) Aspirin
B) Clopidogrel [Plavix]
C) Enoxaparin [Lovenox]
D) Warfarin [Coumadin]
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Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25947
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is recovering from a STEMI 3 months prior is in the clinic for a follow-up evaluation. The patient is taking 81 mg of aspirin, a beta blocker, and an ACE inhibitor daily and uses nitroglycerine as needed for angina. The patient's BMI is 24.5 kg/m², and serum LDL is 150 mg/dL. The patient has a blood pressure of 135/80 mm Hg. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) An antihypertensive medication
B) Counseling about a weight loss diet
C) Discontinuing the ACE inhibitor
D) High-dose statin therapy
Q2) A patient in the emergency department has severe chest pain. The nurse administers morphine intravenously. The patient asks the nurse why morphine is given. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Morphine helps by reducing anxiety and relieving pain."
B) "Morphine helps by reducing pain and dissolving clots."
C) "Morphine helps by relieving pain and lowering blood pressure."
D) "Morphine helps by relieving pain and reducing the cardiac oxygen demand."
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 55
Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25948
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an African American patient with severe hemophilia A who has been admitted for bleeding into the knee joint. The prescriber has ordered intravenous factor VIIa [NovoSeven RT]. A nursing student wants to know why this patient is not receiving factor VIII. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Factor VIIa is stronger than factor VIII and will work faster."
B) "Factor VIII is used for prophylaxis, and factor VIIa is used for acute episodes."
C) "Factor VIIa is used when patients develop antibodies against factor VIII."
D) "Factor VIIa provides immune tolerance therapy so that factor VIII will be more effective."
Q2) A child with severe hemophilia A receives factor VIII. The nurse expects this drug to be given:
A) on demand when bleeding occurs.
B) on demand when plasma factor VIII activity is less than 1% above normal.
C) prophylactically once weekly to maintain normal factor VIII activity.
D) prophylactically 3 times weekly to maintain factor VIII activity above 1% of normal.
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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25949
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was given a 30-day supply of Feosol and has been taking the drug for 4 weeks for iron deficiency anemia. The patient's initial hemoglobin was 8.9 gm/dL. The nurse notes that the hemoglobin has risen to 9.7 gm/dL. What will the nurse ask the patient about?
A) Dietary iron intake
B) Gastrointestinal (GI) upset
C) Whether stools have been tarry or black
D) Whether the prescription needs to be refilled
Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital. The patient's initial laboratory results reveal megaloblastic anemia. The patient complains of tingling of the hands and appears confused. The nurse suspects what in this patient?
A) Celiac disease
B) Folic acid deficiency
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25950
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse why patients with chronic renal failure (CRF) have low erythrocyte counts. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Damage to the renal tubules increases serum blood loss."
B) "Dialysis accelerates the breakdown of red blood cells."
C) "Erythropoietin is no longer produced by cells in the kidneys."
D) "Patients with CRF are deficient in iron, folic acid, and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who begins to complain of shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and notes 3+ pitting edema bilaterally in the lower extremities. Which medication taken by the patient causes the most concern?
A) Epoetin alfa
B) Filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor)
C) Oprelvekin (interleukin-11)
D) Sargramostim (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58
Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25951
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has type 2 diabetes will begin taking glipizide [Glucotrol]. Which statement by the patient is concerning to the nurse?
A) "I will begin by taking this once daily with breakfast."
B) "It is safe to drink grapefruit juice while taking this drug."
C) "I may continue to have a glass of wine with dinner."
D) "I will need to check my blood sugar once daily or more."
Q2) Which statement is accurate about the long-term complications of diabetes?
A) Long-term complications are almost always the result of hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis.
B) The complication rates for patients with optimally controlled type 2 diabetes are the same as for those whose disease is not optimally controlled.
C) Optimal control of type 1 diabetes produces excessive episodes of life-threatening hypoglycemia.
D) Optimal control of both types of diabetes reduces the risk of eye, kidney, and nerve damage.
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59
Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25952
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital and will begin taking levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The nurse learns that the patient also takes warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse will notify the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose.
A) reducing; levothyroxine
B) reducing; warfarin
C) increasing; levothyroxine
D) increasing; warfarin
Q2) An older adult patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The initial free T? level is 0.5 mg/dL, and the TSH level is 8 microunits/mL. The prescriber orders levothyroxine [Levothroid] 100 mcg/day PO. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss giving the levothyroxine IV.
C) Request an order to give desiccated thyroid (Armour Thyroid).
D) Suggest that the provider lower the dose.
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25953
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is hospitalized with head trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse caring for the patient notes a marked increase in the output of pale, dilute urine. The nurse suspects which condition?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
D) Water intoxication
Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a nondiabetic adult who develops growth hormone deficiency and who will begin treatment with somatropin [Humatrope]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Intramuscular dosing is more effective than subcutaneous dosing."
B) "I will have increased muscle mass and strength as well as increased height."
C) "I will need to monitor my blood pressure frequently while taking this drug."
D) "I will need to take insulin while using this, because it causes hyperglycemia."
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with Cushing's syndrome has undergone surgery and radiation treatment. The nurse will expect to teach the patient about which medication?
A) Cosyntropin
B) Dexamethasone
C) Fludrocortisone acetate [Florinef]
D) Ketoconazole [Nizoral]
Q2) A patient who has been taking 25 mg of hydrocortisone each morning for several months reports feeling fatigued late in the day each day. What will the nurse tell the patient to discuss with the provider?
A) Adding a mineralocorticoid to the drug regimen
B) Assessing serum electrolytes to check for toxicity
C) Increasing the dose to 50 mg daily
D) Splitting the daily dose into a morning and an afternoon dose
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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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10 Verified Questions 10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25955
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education for a postmenopausal patient who is considering EPT. Which risks associated with EPT should the nurse discuss with the patient?
A) Increased colon cancer
B) Stroke
C) Deep vein thrombosis
D) Ovarian cancer
E) Decreased bone density
Q2) A patient with osteopenia asks a nurse about the benefits of hormone therapy in preventing osteoporosis. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Estrogen can help reverse bone loss."
B) "Hormone therapy increases bone resorption."
C) "Hormone therapy does not decrease fracture risk."
D) "When hormone therapy is discontinued, bone mass is quickly lost."
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63
Chapter 62: Birth Control
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25956
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking a combination oral contraceptive begins taking carbamazepine. After several weeks, the patient tells the nurse she has begun experiencing spotting during her cycle. What will the nurse tell her to do?
A) Change to condoms instead of oral contraceptives.
B) Discuss an oral contraceptive with increased estrogen.
C) Request a decreased dose of carbamazepine.
D) Stop taking the oral contraceptive immediately.
Q2) A patient has been experiencing side effects with a combination oral contraceptive, and her provider has ordered a different combination product. The nurse will instruct the patient to do what?
A) Begin taking the new product immediately.
B) Change products at the beginning of her next cycle.
C) Stop taking the old OC 1 week before starting the new OC.
D) Use an alternate method of contraception for 1 month before starting the new OC.
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Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25957
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being treated for infertility. An examination reveals cervical mucus that is scant, thick, and sticky. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking which medication?
A) Clomiphene [Clomid]
B) Estrogen
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) Progesterone
Q2) A patient who has endometriosis has been unable to conceive. She asks the nurse about medications to treat the condition. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Combination oral contraceptives are effective for improving fertility.
B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists are used for long-term treatment.
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are second-line agents for treating pain.
D) Pharmacologic agents used to treat endometriosis do not enhance fertility.
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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25958
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is being induced with oxytocin, which has been infusing for 1 hour. The initial rate was 6 milliunits/min, and the rate now is 18 milliunits/min. The nurse notes regular contractions occurring every 3 minutes, each lasting 35 seconds. The nurse will:
A) increase the rate of infusion by 1 to 2 milliunits/min every 15 to 40 minutes.
B) increase the rate of infusion by 3 to 6 milliunits/min every 15 to 40 minutes.
C) interrupt the infusion and continue to monitor the patient before restarting.
D) interrupt the infusion and notify the provider of potential oxytocin toxicity.
Q2) A patient is in preterm labor, and the prescriber orders magnesium sulfate for its neuroprotective effect on the fetus. The order calls for 4 gm given as an intravenous bolus over 20 minutes, followed by a maintenance infusion of 2 gm/hr. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Question the bolus amount.
C) Question the bolus rate.
D) Question the maintenance amount.
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66
Chapter 65: Androgens
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25959
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a male adult patient about the use of testosterone gel. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should apply this to my forearms and neck after showering."
B) "I should keep treated areas exposed to the air so that they can dry."
C) "I should not let my child touch the gel to prevent behavioral problems."
D) "I should not swim or bathe for 3 to 4 hours after applying the gel."
Q2) An adolescent male patient is beginning androgen therapy for delayed puberty. His parents ask the nurse when this treatment may be stopped. The nurse will offer which response?
A) After 3 to 4 years of therapy
B) If acne and facial hair develop
C) When complete sexual maturation has occurred
D) When testicular enlargement occurs
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25960
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks a nurse whether sildenafil [Viagra] would be a good medication for him to take. Which aspect of this patient's history would be of most concern?
A) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
B) Mild hypertension
C) Occasional use of nitroglycerin
D) Taking finasteride
Q2) A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by another provider but cannot remember which drug he is taking. He comes to the clinic seeking treatment for erectile dysfunction and receives a prescription for sildenafil [Viagra]. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) "Sildenafil is not safe to take in conjunction with finasteride [Proscar]."
B) "Sildenafil is safe with any medication for benign prostatic hyperplasia."
C) "To be safe, you should have a transurethral resection before starting sildenafil."
D) "You should not take sildenafil if you are taking silodosin [Rapaflo]."
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68
Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25961
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about helper T cells?
A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.
B) They do not play a role in antibody production.
C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.
D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about immunoglobulins. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "IgD provides a first line of defense against microbes entering the body through the lungs."
B) "IgE plays a role in hypersensitivity reactions and responses to parasites."
C) "IgG and IgM participate in the complement response to promote target cell lysis."
D) "Neonatal immunity is the result of IgG crossing the placenta."
Q3) Which immune responses can result in harm to the body?
A) Activation of the complement system
B) Autoimmune response
C) IgE binding to mast cells and basophils
D) Opsonization
E) Recognition of MHC molecules as nonself
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69
Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25962
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are recommended measures to help minimize pain associated with vaccine administration?
A) Administer acetaminophen or ibuprofen before the vaccine is given.
B) Apply a topical anesthetic to the injection site before the vaccine is given.
C) Give intramuscular vaccines rapidly without aspiration.
D) Have the child lie down while the vaccine is given.
E) Provide tactile stimulation as a diversion.
Q2) The parents of an infant who will be attending day care tell the nurse that they do not want their child vaccinated against rotavirus because an older cousin developed intussusception after receiving this vaccine. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Intussusception is much less serious than getting the disease."
B) "It was probably just a coincidental reaction to the vaccine."
C) "The newer vaccines for rotavirus are not associated with intussusception."
D) "Your child will have herd immunity and won't need the vaccine."
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25963
Sample Questions
Q1) The parent of a 2-month-old infant who has just received the first dose of DTaP asks the nurse about expected reactions to the vaccine. The nurse will respond by saying that:
A) "Mild reactions, including a low-grade fever, are common."
B) "Most children do not experience any reaction."
C) "Seizures are common and may require anticonvulsant medication."
D) "The most common reaction is a rash that develops into itchy vesicles."
Q2) The nurse at a public health infant immunization clinic is acting as a preceptor for a nursing student. To assess the student's understanding of vaccinations, the nurse asks the student where the hepatitis B vaccine (HepB) should be administered. The student would be correct to respond that the hepatitis B vaccine should be administered in the:
A) dorsogluteal muscle in an adult.
B) anterolateral thigh in infants.
C) ventrogluteal muscle in adolescents.
D) deltoid of toddlers.
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25964
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells a nurse that antihistamines help relieve cold symptoms and wants to know why they are not recommended or prescribed for this purpose. The nurse tells the patient that antihistamines provide only mild relief from some cold symptoms by:
A) anticholinergic properties that decrease rhinorrhea.
B) blocking H1 receptors in nasal passages.
C) reducing secretions at H2 receptor sites.
D) having sedative effects, which help patients rest and sleep.
Q2) A provider has ordered intravenous promethazine [Phenergan] for an adult patient postoperatively to prevent nausea and vomiting (N/V). What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug at a rate of 25 mg/min or more to achieve maximum effects.
B) Contact the provider to suggest using dimenhydrinate [Dramamine] instead.
C) Ensure that the IV is infusing freely through a large-bore needle.
D) Monitor the patient closely for cardiac dysrhythmias.
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25965
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitors. A student asks the nurse about characteristics of COX-1 inhibitors. Which statement by the nurse is true?
A) "COX-1 inhibitors protect against colorectal cancer."
B) "COX-1 inhibitors protect against myocardial infarction and stroke."
C) "COX-1 inhibitors reduce fever."
D) "COX-1 inhibitors suppress inflammation."
Q2) An older male patient with an increased risk of MI is taking furosemide [Lasix] and low-dose aspirin. The patient is admitted to the hospital, and the nurse notes an initial blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. The patient has had a 10-pound weight gain since a previous admission 3 months earlier. The patient has voided only a small amount of concentrated urine. The serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are elevated. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) adding an antihypertensive medication.
B) obtaining serum electrolytes.
C) ordering a potassium-sparing diuretic.
D) withdrawing the aspirin.
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Page 73
Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking high doses of a glucocorticoid develops weakness in the muscles of the upper arms and in the legs. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to ask about reducing the dose.
B) Encourage the patient to restrict sodium intake.
C) Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect.
D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.
Q2) The prescriber orders 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally once each day. The nurse will make sure the drug is scheduled to be administered at what time?
A) 8:00 AM
B) 12:00 PM
C) 4:00 PM
D) 9:00 PM
Q3) A child is to begin long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The parents ask the nurse about the effects of this drug on the child's growth. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A smaller dose may be indicated for your child."
B) "Ask your provider about every other day dosing."
C) "Long-acting glucocorticoid preparations should prevent growth suppression."
D) "Oral glucocorticoids rarely cause growth suppression."
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Page 74
Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25967
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient about to begin therapy with etanercept has a positive tuberculin skin test. A chest radiograph is negative. The nurse will expect this patient to:
A) begin taking antituberculosis drugs at the beginning of treatment with etanercept.
B) have periodic chest radiographs during treatment with etanercept.
C) have regular monitoring of symptoms to detect active tuberculosis.
D) undergo tuberculosis treatment prior to beginning etanercept treatment.
Q2) A patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate [Rheumatrex] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of:
A) having routine renal and hepatic function tests.
B) limiting folic acid consumption.
C) reporting alopecia and rash.
D) taking the medication on a daily basis.
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25968
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has had three gouty flare-ups in the past year. Which drug class will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Colchicine
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D) Urate-lowering drugs
Q2) A patient who has gout will begin taking febuxostat [Uloric] and colchicine. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?
A) "You are taking both drugs in order to prevent hepatic side effects."
B) "You may stop taking the febuxostat after your uric acid levels decrease."
C) "You will have to take both drugs indefinitely to treat your symptoms."
D) "You will stop taking the colchicine within 6 months after starting therapy."
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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18 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25969
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports experiencing weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and nocturia. Total serum calcium is 10.5 mg/dL. A dipstick urinalysis shows a positive result for protein. When questioned, the patient reports taking vitamin D and calcium supplements. The nurse will counsel the patient to:
A) reduce the amount of vitamin D and stop taking the calcium.
B) discuss taking calcitonin-salmon [Fortical] with the provider. C) stop both supplements and discuss the use of a diuretic with the provider. D) stop taking vitamin D, reduce the amount of calcium, and increase the fluid intake.
Q2) A patient is taking alendronate [Fosamax] to treat Paget's disease. The patient asks the nurse why calcium supplements are necessary. The nurse will tell the patient that calcium supplements are necessary to:
A) reduce the likelihood of atrial fibrillation.
B) maximize bone resorption of calcium.
C) minimize the risk of esophageal cancer.
D) prevent hyperparathyroidism.
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25970
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks a nurse about a long-acting beta<sub>2</sub>-agonist medication. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) LABAs are safer than short-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonists.
B) LABAs can be used on an as-needed basis to treat symptoms.
C) LABAs reduce the risk of asthma-related deaths.
D) LABAs should be combined with an inhaled glucocorticoid.
Q2) A patient with COPD is prescribed tiotropium [Spiriva]. After the initial dose, the patient reports only mild relief within 30 minutes. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "You may have another dose in 4 hours."
B) "You may need to take two inhalations instead of one."
C) "You should have peak effects in about 6 hours."
D) "You should see improved effects within the next week."
Q3) Which drugs are used to treat COPD?
A) Anticholinergic medications
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Leukotriene modifiers
D) Long-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonists
E) Monoclonal antibodies
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25971
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has seasonal allergies in the spring and fall asks the nurse about oral antihistamines. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Anticholinergic effects are more common with second-generation antihistamines."
B) "First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine [Benadryl], are more effective."
C) "Make sure you take antihistamines only when you have symptoms to minimize side effects."
D) "You should take oral antihistamines daily during each allergy season to get maximum effects."
Q2) What is ipratropium bromide [Atrovent]?
A) A cholinergic agent used for perennial rhinitis
B) An anticholinergic used for allergic rhinitis and colds
C) A medication that is used only in patients with asthma
D) A drug that is inappropriate for use in patients with allergic rhinitis
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25972
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are potentially worrisome adverse effects associated with proton pump inhibitor use in older patients?
A) Gastric cancer
B) Headaches
C) Medication interactions
D) Osteoporosis
E) Vitamin and mineral deficiencies
Q2) When metronidazole [Flagyl] is a component of the H. pylori treatment regimen, the patient must be instructed to do what?
A) Avoid any alcoholic beverages.
B) Avoid foods containing tyramine.
C) Take the drug on an empty stomach.
D) Take the drug with food.
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Cimetidine [Tagamet]
B) Esomeprazole [Nexium]
C) Ranitidine [Zantac]
D) Sucralfate [Carafate]
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25973
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports taking an oral bisacodyl laxative [Dulcolax] for several years. The provider has suggested discontinuing the laxative, but the patient is unsure how to do this. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) stop taking the oral laxative and use a suppository until normal motility resumes.
B) stop taking the laxative immediately and expect no stool for several days.
C) switch to a bulk-forming laxative, such as methylcellulose [Metamucil].
D) withdraw from the laxative slowly to avoid a rebound constipation effect.
Q2) A patient will undergo a colonoscopy, and the provider has ordered sodium phosphate as a bowel cleanser before the procedure. The nurse reviews the patient's chart and notes that the patient's creatinine clearance and blood urea nitrogen are both elevated. What will the nurse do?
A) Reduce the amount of fluid given with the laxative to prevent fluid retention.
B) Request an order to give polyethylene glycol and electrolytes (PEG-ELS) instead.
C) Suggest that the patient reduce the dietary sodium intake.
D) Suggest using a suppository laxative instead.
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25974
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has traveler's diarrhea asks the nurse about using loperamide to stop the symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient about this drug?
A) "Loperamide is used for moderate to severe symptoms only."
B) "This drug is useful as prophylaxis to prevent symptoms."
C) "This drug is only effective to treat certain infectious agents."
D) "Use of this drug may prolong symptoms by slowing peristalsis."
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with cancer who has been undergoing chemotherapy. The patient has oral mucositis as a result of the chemotherapy, and the provider has ordered palifermin [Kepivance]. Which is an appropriate nursing action when giving this drug?
A) Administering the drug as a slow IV infusion
B) Flushing the IV line with heparin before infusing the drug
C) Giving the drug within 6 hours of the chemotherapy
D) Warning the patient about the potential for distortion of taste
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25975
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is known to be a heavy drinker is brought to the emergency department, with ataxia and confusion. The patient cannot remember the events of the previous day. The examination reveals nystagmus, and the patient reports having double vision. The nurse will expect to administer which vitamin to this patient?
A) Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) IV
B) Intramuscular pyridoxine (vitamin B<sub>6</sub>)
C) Intravenous thiamine (vitamin B<sub>1</sub>)
D) Nicotinic acid (niacin) PO
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who recently immigrated from a Third World country. The patient is thin and appears malnourished. The nurse notes that the patient has loose and missing teeth, gingivitis, and bleeding gums. The patient has multiple sores and ecchymoses. The nurse will expect the provider to order:
A) cyanocobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>).
B) high-dose nicotinic acid.
C) intramuscular thiamine for 1 to 2 weeks.
D) intravenous ascorbic acid.
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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25976
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse performing an admission history on a patient learns that the patient is taking orlistat [Xenical], warfarin [Coumadin], and levothyroxine [Synthroid]. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to discuss increasing the warfarin dose.
B) Give the levothyroxine at least 4 hours before giving the orlistat.
C) Suggest that the patient avoid fatty foods while taking these medications.
D) Tell the patient to take the orlistat on an empty stomach.
Q2) Which statement by a patient about to begin taking orlistat [Xenical] for weight loss therapy indicates an understanding of this drug's actions?
A) "I can eat as much as I want and still lose weight."
B) "I should avoid fat-soluble vitamin supplements while taking this drug."
C) "If I take a bulk-forming laxative, I can reduce the incidence of fecal incontinence."
D) "If I take the drug 4 times daily instead of twice daily, I will lose weight faster."
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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25977
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a localized skin infection, which is most likely caused by a gram-positive cocci. Until the culture and sensitivity results are available, the nurse will expect the provider to order a ____-spectrum ____ agent.
A) broad; systemic
B) broad; topical
C) narrow; systemic
D) narrow; topical
Q2) Which are benefits of using a combination of two or more antibiotics?
A) Reduced cost
B) Reduced risk of superinfection
C) Reduced toxicity
D) Reduced resistance
E) Reduced risk in severe infection
Q3) A recent campaign, initiated by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), to delay the emergence of antibiotic resistance in hospitals, has what as one of its objectives?
A) Allowing patients to stop antibiotics when symptoms subside
B) Allowing prescribers to develop their own prescribing guidelines
C) Increased adherence to prescribed antibiotics
D) Increased use of antibiotics among parents of young children
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I: Penicillins
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25978
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer intramuscular penicillin to a patient who is infected with Treponema pallidum and notes that the order is for sodium penicillin G. Which action is correct?
A) Administer the drug as prescribed.
B) Contact the provider to discuss administering the drug intravenously.
C) Contact the provider to discuss changing the drug to benzathine penicillin G.
D) Request an order for piperacillin instead of penicillin G.
Q2) A nurse is discussing methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student correctly identifies the basis for MRSA resistance?
A) "MRSA bacteria have developed PBPs with a low affinity for penicillins."
B) "MRSA bacteria produce penicillinases that render penicillin ineffective."
C) "MRSA occurs because of host resistance to penicillins."
D) "MRSA strains replicate faster than other S. aureus strains."
Q3) Which organisms can be treated with penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)?
A) Methicillin-resistant S. aureus
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) P. aeruginosa
D) S. pyogenes
E) T. pallidum
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 86
Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall Ii:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cefazolin
C) Cefoxitin
D) Cefotaxime
Q2) A provider has ordered ceftriaxone 4 gm once daily for a patient with renal impairment. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as prescribed.
B) Contact the provider to ask about giving the drug in divided doses.
C) Discuss increasing the interval between doses with the provider.
D) Discuss reducing the dose with the provider.
Q3) A patient who is receiving a final dose of intravenous (IV) cephalosporin begins to complain of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes signs of redness at the IV insertion site and along the vein. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Apply warm packs to the arm, and infuse the medication at a slower rate.
B) Continue the infusion while elevating the arm.
C) Select an alternate intravenous site and administer the infusion more slowly.
D) Request central venous access.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 87
Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25980
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with periodontal disease, and the provider orders oral doxycycline [Periostat]. The patient asks the purpose of the drug. What is the nurse's response?
A) "It is used because of its anti-inflammatory effects."
B) "It inhibits collagenase to protect connective tissue in the gums."
C) "It reduces bleeding and the pocket depth of oral lesions."
D) "It suppresses bacterial growth in the oral mucosa."
Q2) A nurse is providing education about tetracycline [Sumycin]. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the administration of this medication?
A) "I should not take this medication with milk or other dairy products."
B) "I should not worry if I experience an acnelike rash with this medication."
C) "I should take an antacid, such as Tums, if I experience gastrointestinal distress."
D) "I should take this antibiotic with a calcium supplement to improve absorption."
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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25981
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the unit for treatment for an infection. The patient receives IV amikacin [Amikin] twice a day. When planning for obtaining a peak aminoglycoside level, when should the nurse see that the blood is drawn?
A) 30 minutes after the IV infusion is complete
B) 1 hour after the IV infusion is complete
C) 1 hour before administration of the IV infusion
D) A peak level is not indicated with twice-daily dosing.
Q2) A patient who has been receiving intravenous gentamicin for several days reports having had a headache for 2 days. The nurse will request an order to:
A) discontinue the gentamicin.
B) obtain a gentamicin trough before the next dose is given.
C) give an analgesic to control headache discomfort.
D) obtain renal function tests to evaluate for potential nephrotoxicity.
Q3) Which patients may receive gentamicin safely?
A) A 6-day-old newborn
B) A 5-year-old child
C) A pregnant woman
D) A woman breast-feeding an infant
E) An elderly patient with renal disease
89
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25982
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who takes an ACE inhibitor and an ARB medication who will begin taking TMP/SMZ to treat a urinary tract infection. Which serum electrolyte will the nurse expect to monitor closely?
A) Calcium
B) Chloride
C) Potassium
D) Sodium
Q2) A nurse is discussing microbial resistance among sulfonamides and trimethoprim with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Bacterial resistance to trimethoprim is relatively uncommon."
B) "Resistance among gonococci, streptococci, and meningococci to sulfonamides is high."
C) "Resistance to both agents can occur by spontaneous mutation of organisms."
D) "Resistance to sulfonamides is less than resistance to trimethoprim."
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25983
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of chills, severe flank pain, dysuria, and urinary frequency. The patient has a temperature of 102.9°F, a pulse of 92 beats/min, respirations of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 119/58 mm Hg. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient shows signs and symptoms of:
A) acute cystitis.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) pyelonephritis.
D) prostatitis.
Q2) A pregnant patient with fever, flank pain, and chills has a history of two previous bladder infections before getting pregnant. She is allergic to several antibiotics. She reports having taken methenamine successfully in the past. What will the nurse tell her?
A) "This agent is not effective against infections of the upper urinary tract."
B) "This antiseptic agent is safe for use during pregnancy and has no drug resistance."
C) "This drug is linked to many serious birth defects and is not recommended during pregnancy."
D) "You will need to take this medication with meals to avoid gastric upset."
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91
Chapter
Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Infection
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is being treated for HIV infection has a 5-mm area of induration after a routine TST. The patient's chest radiograph is normal, and there are no other physical findings. The nurse will expect this patient to begin treatment with which drugs?
A) Isoniazid and rifabutin
B) Isoniazid and rifampin
C) Isoniazid and rifapentine
D) Isoniazid and pyrazinamide
Q2) A patient with high-risk factors for tuberculosis will begin therapy for latent TB with isoniazid and rifampin. The nurse learns that this patient takes oral contraceptives. The nurse will counsel this patient to discuss ____ with her provider.
A) another birth control method
B) reducing the rifampin dose
C) reducing the isoniazid dose
D) increasing the oral contraceptive dose
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92
Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25985
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who will begin receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat pyelonephritis. The nurse learns that the patient has a history of myasthenia gravis. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the ciprofloxacin and monitor the patient for signs of muscle weakness.
B) Ask the provider whether the ciprofloxacin can be given orally.
C) Request an order for concurrent administration of metronidazole [Flagyl].
D) Suggest that the provider order a different antibiotic for this patient.
Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) who also has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) skin infection. The prescriber has ordered daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse encourages the student to approach the provider to request a different antibiotic because of which facts about daptomycin?
A) It causes significant renal impairment.
B) It is approved only for bloodstream and skin infections.
C) It increases the risk of serious cardiorespiratory events.
D) It is more likely to produce resistant strains of bacteria.
E) It is not effective against MRSA infections.
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25986
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking oral ketoconazole [Nizoral] for a systemic fungal infection. The nurse reviews the medication administration record and notes that the patient is also taking omeprazole [Prilosec] for reflux disease. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Administer the omeprazole 1 hour before the ketoconazole.
B) Administer the omeprazole at least 2 hours after the ketoconazole.
C) Confer with the prescriber about a potential hazardous interaction.
D) The nurse should not administer the omeprazole to a patient receiving ketoconazole.
Q2) A patient has come to the clinic with tinea corporis, and the prescriber has ordered clotrimazole. When educating the patient about this medication, the nurse will include which statement?
A) "Apply the medication over the entire body twice daily for 2 weeks."
B) "Sun exposure will minimize the drug's effects."
C) "This drug is effective after a single application."
D) "Use the medication for at least 1 week after the symptoms have cleared."
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94
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral
Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25987
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a positive test for hepatitis C and is admitted to the hospital. The admission laboratory tests reveal a normal ALT, and a liver biopsy is negative for hepatic fibrosis and inflammation. The nurse will prepare this patient for:
A) dual therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin.
B) no medication therapy at this time.
C) pegylated interferon alfa only until ALT levels are elevated.
D) triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa, ribavirin, and boceprevir.
Q2) A patient with HIV contracts herpes simplex virus (HSV), and the prescriber orders acyclovir [Zovirax] 400 mg PO twice daily for 10 days. After 7 days of therapy, the patient reports having an increased number of lesions. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) extend this patient's drug therapy to twice daily for 12 months.
B) give intravenous foscarnet every 8 hours for 2 to 3 weeks.
C) increase the acyclovir dose to 800 mg PO 5 times daily.
D) order intravenous valacyclovir [Valtrex] 1 gm PO twice daily for 10 days.
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95
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking didanosine [Videx] reports nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. What will the nurse recommend to this patient?
A) "Take the drug with food to minimize these side effects."
B) "Stop taking the drug immediately and resume taking it once your symptoms subside."
C) "Take the medication in the evening to avoid experiencing these kinds of symptoms."
D) "You will need laboratory tests to determine if these are serious effects of the drug."
Q2) A patient taking stavudine [Zerit] telephones the clinic and reports numbness and tingling in the hands and feet. What should the nurse tell the patient?
A) The numbness is an expected side effect of the medication and will diminish once the drug is withdrawn.
B) The medication will probably be stopped, and the patient should come into the clinic for further evaluation.
C) The dose may be too high, and the patient should cut the tablet in half.
D) The patient should take the medication on a full stomach to reduce absorption of the drug.
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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25989
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of adolescent students about sexually transmitted diseases. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of infections caused by C. trachomatis?
A) "C. trachomatis conjunctivitis in newborns can result in blindness."
B) "The CDC recommends screening for chlamydial infections in all sexually active men."
C) "Treatment for C. trachomatis should be initiated when infections are symptomatic."
D) "Women with asymptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis infections can become sterile."
Q2) A female patient has come to the STD clinic and has been diagnosed with a Trichomonas vaginalis infection. What education should be provided to this patient?
A) Male partners should always be treated, even if they are asymptomatic.
B) The applicator for the vaginal gel should be washed after each application.
C) The infection is not completely eliminated with the medication.
D) The medication should be taken twice daily for 2 weeks.
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
Q2) A clinic nurse is preparing to sterilize instruments used in clinic procedures. The nurse will place the instruments in glutaraldehyde [Cidex-7]. Which actions are necessary when using this product?
A) Acidifying the solution to improve its antiseptic properties
B) Cleansing the hands with an alcohol-based hand rub
C) Ensuring adequate ventilation in the room where the solution is used
D) Removing blood from the instruments before soaking them
E) Soaking the instruments for 10 hours or longer
Q3) A patient arrives in the emergency department with multiple dirty abrasions after a bicycle-automobile accident . Which product might be used initially to cleanse this patient's wounds?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)
C) Povidone-iodine [Betadine]
D) Soap and water
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Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been diagnosed with enterobiasis, and the prescriber orders mebendazole [Vermox] to treat the infestation. When teaching this child's parents about the treatment, the nurse will include which statement?
A) "A single dose of mebendazole will eradicate the infestation."
B) "Everyone in the household should be treated with mebendazole."
C) "Serious complications of this type of infestation are common."
D) "Treatment should be limited to family members with symptoms."
Q2) A patient is being treated for trichinosis. The patient asks the nurse why the provider has ordered prednisone in addition to the anthelmintic medication. The nurse will tell this patient that this is ordered to:
A) prevent swelling of the legs caused by larval infestation of lymphatics.
B) reduce the inflammation that occurs during larval migration.
C) suppress the patient's allergic response to the anthelmintic agent.
D) suppress dermatologic symptoms that occur with heavy infestation.
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99
Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25992
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. For relapse prevention, the nurse expects the provider to order which medication?
A) Chloroquine [Aralen Phosphate]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramax]
C) Primaquine phosphate
D) Quinine [Qualaquin]
Q2) A patient who takes imipramine has a moderate infection with P. vivax that is chloroquine resistant. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem]
B) Atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]
C) Artesunate
D) Quinine
Q3) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]?
A) Cinchonism
B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency
C) Increased ventricular rate
D) Nightmares
E) Prolonged QT interval
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-kg pediatric patient is being treated for toxoplasmosis, and the provider orders pyrimethamine [Daraprim] 10 mg twice daily. The nurse caring for this patient will anticipate which additional order from the provider?
A) Administer 10 to 15 mg of folinic acid with each dose of pyrimethamine.
B) Give the medication intravenously over 30 to 45 minutes.
C) Increase the dose to 20 mg twice daily after 2 to 4 days.
D) Teach the family to monitor for muscle pain and joint stiffness.
Q2) A patient from Africa is being treated for East African trypanosomiasis. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of suramin sodium [Germanin]. To prevent serious side effects, which action will the nurse take?
A) Administer a small test dose before giving the drug.
B) Ask the patient to lie flat while the drug is given.
C) Give a high-fat snack with the drug to minimize gastric upset.
D) Suggest to the provider that liver function tests (LFTs) be performed.
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with head lice. The nurse practitioner orders malathion [Ovide] for treatment. What information should be provided to the patient?
A) "Scalp irritation could occur."
B) "The drug has a bad odor."
C) "The lotion contains alcohol; use caution around fire."
D) "Significant drug interactions can occur."
E) "After applying the lotion to the scalp and hair, allow it to dry naturally."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how to examine children in a day care center for pediculus humanus capitis (head lice). Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this teaching?
A) "Adult lice are easily visible on the hair shaft."
B) "Children from lower socioeconomic families are more likely to have lice."
C) "I may observe hives, boils, and impetigo on the child's scalp if lice are present."
D) "I should be careful to prevent the lice from jumping into my hair."
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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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16 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25995
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse explains to a patient with cancer why it is difficult to achieve 100% cell kill to cure cancer with chemotherapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "It is necessary to continue giving the same dose of chemotherapeutic agents throughout therapy, even if toxicity occurs."
B) "Symptoms of cancer often disappear before all malignant cells are eradicated."
C) "The immune system attacks chemotherapeutic agents and renders them impotent."
D) "The immune system often fails to recognize cancer cells as foreign."
Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse why chemotherapeutic agents are given intermittently instead of continuously. The nurse will tell the student that intermittent dosing:
A) allows normal cells to recover and repopulate.
B) catches malignant cells in latent phases.
C) increases cancer cell kill and speeds up treatment.
D) suppresses drug resistance in tumor cells.
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Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin chemotherapy with cisplatin. Which medications will the nurse expect to administer to offset this agent's side effects?
A) Amifostine [Ethyol], diuretics, and antiemetics
B) Antiemetics, vitamin B<sub>12</sub>, and glucocorticoids
C) Dexamethasone, antiemetics, and vistonuridine
D) Folic acid, gabapentin, and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
Q2) The nurse on an oncology unit prepares to administer the fourth cycle of docetaxel [Taxotere] to a patient with breast cancer. Which clinical finding would cause the nurse to withhold the dose and call the prescriber?
A) Alanine transaminase (ALT) 1.2 times the upper limit
B) Alkaline phosphatase 2 times the upper limit
C) Neutrophil count below 1500/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) Creatinine clearance of 130 mL/min/1.73 m<sup>2</sup>
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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premenopausal woman has ER-positive breast cancer, and her prescriber has ordered tamoxifen [Nolvadex]. She asks the nurse if anastrozole [Arimidex] would work better for her. What will the nurse tell her?
A) Anastrozole is more likely to cause hot flushes than tamoxifen.
B) Anastrozole is more likely to promote endometrial carcinoma.
C) Cancer recurrence is higher with anastrozole.
D) Until she is postmenopausal, anastrozole will not be effective.
Q2) A patient with colorectal cancer is admitted to the hospital oncology unit to receive cetuximab [Erbitux]. The nurse notes that the prescriber has not ordered any other medications. The nurse will contact the prescriber to request an order for which medication in order to minimize cetuximab's side effects?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]
B) Epinephrine
C) Ondansetron [Zofran]
D) Magnesium supplements
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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25998
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing personal knowledge of the medications used in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. The nurse would be correct to identify which medications as treatment?
A) Alpha<sub>2</sub> agonists
B) Prostaglandin analogs
C) Anticholinergics
D) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
E) Beta blockers
Q2) A patient has had dilation of the eyes with an anticholinergic agent. What will the nurse say when preparing this patient to go home after the examination?
A) "Systemic side effects will not occur with this agent."
B) "You may experience an increased heart rate, but this is a harmless side effect."
C) "You may need to wear dark glasses until this medication wears off."
D) "You will be able to read as soon as the exam is completed."
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Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25999
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is using a high-concentration keratolytic agent containing 20% salicylic acid to remove warts. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) Peeling and drying are desired effects of this drug.
B) Systemic effects may occur with this medication.
C) Tinnitus is a common side effect of little concern.
D) Tissue injury is unlikely at this dose.
Q2) A patient has severe acne that has been refractory to treatment. The patient is taking tetracycline and using topical tretinoin [Retin-A] and has been applying benzoyl peroxide twice daily. The provider asks the nurse to teach this patient about isotretinoin [Accutane], which the patient will begin taking in a few weeks. The nurse will include which statement when teaching this patient about this drug?
A) "Alcohol may be consumed in moderation when taking this drug."
B) "Skin rash, headache, and hair loss are common with this drug."
C) "Tetracycline must be discontinued before beginning the isotretinoin."
D) "Two pregnancy tests are required before each monthly refill of your prescription."
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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26000
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing health maintenance with the parent of a newborn infant. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of ways to reduce the incidence of otitis media?
A) "I should hold my baby in an upright position during feeding."
B) "I should keep my baby out of day care during cold and flu season."
C) "My baby should not use a pacifier after 6 months of age."
D) "The pneumococcal vaccine will prevent my baby from getting ear infections."
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with fungal otitis externa (otomycosis). The nurse correctly explains that for the first course of treatment the patient should expect:
A) acidifying drops for 1 week.
B) antibiotic ear drops.
C) intravenous (IV) antifungal agents.
D) oral antibiotics.
Q3) Which are components of otitis externa management?
A) Ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic drops
B) Cleaning the ear canals with a cotton-tipped applicator
C) Keeping the external ear canal dry after swimming
D) Taking systemic antibiotics, such as amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]
E) Using a solution of alcohol and acetic acid to dry and acidify the ear
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Page 108
Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26001
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is quizzing a nursing student who is preparing to care for a patient with cystic fibrosis. The patient uses inhaled tobramycin [TOBI], dornase alfa [Pulmozyme], ibuprofen, and salmeterol [Serevent Diskus]. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this patient's drug regimen?
A) "Dornase alfa is used as needed to decrease viscosity of sputum."
B) "Ibuprofen is used to minimize pleuritic pain associated with coughing."
C) "Salmeterol acts by causing bronchodilation and improving ciliary function."
D) "Tobramycin is given via a metered-dose inhaler to avoid systemic side effects."
Q2) A pregnant patient begins active labor at 30 weeks' gestation. The provider orders dexamethasone 6 mg intramuscularly to be given twice daily for 4 doses. The patient asks the nurse what effect this drug will have on the fetus. The nurse will tell her that the dexamethasone is given to:
A) improve cognitive function in the fetus.
B) improve fetal neuromotor development.
C) increase fetal weight and length.
D) increase lung development in the fetus.
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109
Chapter 108: Complementary and Alternative Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26002
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing a preoperative drug history on a patient who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. To evaluate the risk of hemorrhage, the nurse will ask the patient about antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications as well as which dietary supplement?
A) Coenzyme Q-10
B) Ginkgo biloba
C) Ma Huang (ephedra)
D) St. John's wort
Q2) The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John's wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which effect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse?
A) It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs.
B) It enhances the effects of digoxin.
C) It counteracts the effects of CNS depressants.
D) It increases the risk of bleeding.
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26003
Sample Questions
Q1) A pediatric patient ingested a narcotic analgesic at the grandparent's house 15 minutes before arriving in the emergency department. The nurse is preparing to administer activated charcoal. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "The charcoal will cause the child's stools to be black."
B) "The charcoal should absorb about 37% of the drug."
C) "The charcoal will make the child vomit the medication."
D) "We will need to give the charcoal several times for it to work."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who works with heavy metals and who is about to begin taking a chelating agent to treat heavy metal poisoning. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "This drug will not affect any metals already bound to cells in my body."
B) "This drug will bind with the metals to form less toxic molecules."
C) "This type of drug can block the metal from binding with molecules in my body."
D) "When the drug forms a chelate with the metal, the chelate can be excreted safely."
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26004
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a course in bioterrorism to a group of military nurses. Which statement by a military nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Although smallpox has been eradicated, it remains a threat."
B) "Anthrax is spread rapidly from person to person."
C) "Pneumonic plague is not transmitted from person to person."
D) "Terrorists spreading tularemia would most likely put it in the water supply."
Q2) A member of a community disaster response team received the smallpox vaccine 3 weeks ago and sees a nurse for a follow-up appointment. The nurse examines the area and should expect to see a:
A) necrotic vesicle.
B) small area of scarification.
C) small, fluid-filled blister.
D) red bump.
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