Adult Health Nursing Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the care of adult patients experiencing a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. It emphasizes the application of the nursing process, critical thinking, and evidence-based practice in assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating patient care. Topics include pathophysiology, pharmacological interventions, and patient education, with special attention to cultural sensitivity, ethical considerations, and interdisciplinary collaboration. The course prepares students to manage the complex needs of adult patients in various clinical settings, fostering skills in clinical judgment, communication, and holistic care.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is swabbing a patient's throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis.The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed ________.
Answer: sensitivity
The sensitivity of any test refers to the probability that the test will be positive when applied to a person with the condition and will not provide a false negative result.In contrast, specificity is the probability that a test will be negative when applied to a person who does not have a given condition.
Q2) Socioeconomic factors influence disease development due to A) genetics.
B) environmental toxins.
C) overcrowding.
D) nutrition.
E) hygiene.
Answer: B, C, D, E
Q3) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to A) decreased urinary output.
B) increased blood potassium.
C) increased sodium retention.
D) increased blood volume.
E) decreased blood pressure.
Answer: A, C, D
Q2) Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by A) norepinephrine.
B) cortisol.
C) glucagon.
D) ACTH.
Answer: A
Q3) The effects of excessive cortisol production include A) immune suppression.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) anorexia.
D) inflammatory reactions.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) During conditions of prolonged insufficient oxygen availability (e.g., respiratory or cardiovascular disease)anaerobic glycolysis accumulated pyruvate can lead to _____ acidosis.
Answer: lactic
Pyruvate is converted to lactate and released into the blood stream, resulting in lactic acidosis.
Q2) Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have A) receptors for neurotransmitters.
B) tight junctions.
C) ligand-gated channels.
D) voltage-gated channels.
Answer: D
Q3) Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers, because they are A) polar.
B) charged.
C) insoluble.
D) amphipathic.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.
A) coagulative
B) caseous
C) liquefactive
D) fat
Q2) Metaplasia is
A) the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
B) the transformation of a cell type to malignancy.
C) an irreversible cellular adaptation.
D) the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements.
Q3) The primary effect of aging on all body systems is
A) decreased functional reserve.
B) diseased function.
C) programmed senescence.
D) senility.
Q4) The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is A) anaplasia.
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) hyperplasia.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues is due to A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
Q2) Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?
A) Tendons and ligaments
B) Blood cells
C) Blood vessel endothelium
D) Cartilage
Q3) Calcium channel blocker drugs are often used to treat conditions associated with A) cardiac muscle.
B) smooth muscle.
C) epithelial tissue.
D) nervous tissue.
E) connective tissue.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked)recessive disorders include
A) all daughters of affected fathers' being carriers.
B) boys' and girls' being equally affected.
C) the son of a carrier female's having a 25% chance of being affected.
D) affected fathers' transmitting the gene to all their sons.
Q2) The parents of a child with PKU are concerned about the risk of transmitting the disorder in future pregnancies.The correct assessment of the risk is
A) each child has a 25% chance of being a carrier.
B) each child has a 25% chance of being affected.
C) since one child is already affected, the next three children will be unaffected.
D) one cannot predict the risk for future pregnancies.
Q3) The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins
A) prior to conception.
B) during the last trimester.
C) at birth.
D) all through pregnancy.
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Familial retinoblastoma involves the transmission of what from parent to offspring?
A) Mutant tumor suppressor gene
B) Cancer-causing virus
C) Oncogene
D) Extra chromosome
Q2) Tumor markers
A) are found only in the blood.
B) are produced by normal cells.
C) help determine cancer origin.
D) help identify progression of cancer.
E) include prostatic-specific antigen.
Q3) Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including A) Burkitt lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C) pancreatic cancer.
D) hepatic cancer.
Q4) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is ____ (more/less)likely to be aggressive.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Q2) Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection, because it maintains A) natural killer cell function.
B) lymphocyte activity.
C) antioxidant activity.
D) neutrophil activity.
E) complement activity.
Q3) Immune function is likely to be most effective in a A) newborn.
B) 7-month-old infant.
C) 30-year-old.
D) 70-year-old.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activation of the complement cascade results in A) antibody production.
B) inflammation.
C) immunosuppression.
D) autoimmunity.
E) chemotaxis.
Q2) Functions of B cells include
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
Q3) Functions of T cells include
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating of B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) Malnutrition immunodeficiency
C) Cancer immunodeficiency
D) Radiation immunodeficiency
Q2) The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is A) IgA.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgE.
Q3) The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q4) An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is A) complement.
B) antigen-antibody immune complexes.
C) T cells.
D) histamine.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is a 12-year-old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).Manifestations of the patient's leukemia prior to treatment may include A) anemia.
B) leukocytosis.
C) leukopenia.
D) thrombocytopenia.
E) anuria.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with CML (chronic myeloid leukemia).The patient may experience which of these symptoms?
A) Fatigue
B) Weight loss
C) Abdominal discomfort
D) Joint pain
E) Sweats
Q3) Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the
Q4) The only known curative treatment for CML is _____ bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs are used for the management of HIV?
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) DNA polymerase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E) CD4 analogs
Q2) Which HIV-positive patient should be given a diagnosis of AIDS?
A) One who has a CD4 count of 300/µl
B) One who has neuropathy
C) One who has Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) One who has genital herpes
Q3) Which statement about HIV testing is correct?
A) Any patient can be tested for HIV with or without their informed consent.
B) A negative HIV test ensures absence of infection.
C) The false-positive rate for HIV testing is zero.
D) Significant exposure to infected blood or body fluids requires HIV testing.
Q4) Cleaning dirty needles prior to use helps prevent the spread of HIV.When using bleach, the user must rinse out all the blood first and then fill the needle and syringe with full-strength bleach three times for ____ to ____ seconds.
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) What laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia?
A) Leukocytosis
B) Thrombocythemia
C) Neutrophilia
D) Pancytopenia
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with anemia of chronic renal failure about the disease.Which statements made by the nurse are correct regarding the patient's treatment?
A) "Since your glomerular filtration is 13 mL/min, you'll be started on dialysis."
B) "Your hematocrit is 29%, so you're going to start on erythropoietin therapy."
C) "Your hemoglobin is 9 g/dl, so you'll need erythropoietin therapy."
D) "We need to get your hemoglobin up to at least 15 g/dl"
E) "You're going to need iron, folate, and B12 therapy to help improve your blood counts."
Q3) The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the A) Bohr effect.
B) oxygen-hemoglobin affinity.
C) dissociation curve.
D) hemoglobin synthesis.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cause of thrombocytopenia includes A) hypoxemia.
B) reduced erythropoietin.
C) chemotherapy.
D) secondary polycythemia.
Q2) Treatment for hemophilia A includes A) heparin administration.
B) factor IX replacement.
C) factor VIII replacement.
D) platelet transfusion.
Q3) A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is
A) acetaminophen.
B) tobacco.
C) caffeine.
D) aspirin.
Q4) The ________ is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of factor VIII.
Page 16
Q5) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?
A) Increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
B) Increased colloid osmotic pressure
C) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D) Increased capillary oncotic pressure
Q2) The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P)in a vessel can be expressed by which equation?
A) Q = P/R
B) Q = R/P
C) R = PQ
D) P = Q/R
Q3) The goal of heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to
A) relieve edema.
B) prevent clot dislodgement.
C) dissolve the thrombus.
D) prevent further clot formation.
Q4) Venules are composed of ________ tissue.
Q5) The smallest vessels of the vascular system and the lymphatic vessels are commonly referred to as the ________.
Page 17
Q6) The relationship between blood flow and resistance is a(n)________ one.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of prehypertension according to the JNC-7 criteria?
A) 118/78
B) 128/82
C) 140/88
D) 138/94
Q2) An erroneously low blood pressure measurement may be caused by
A) positioning the arm above the heart level.
B) using a cuff that is too small.
C) positioning the arm at heart level.
D) measuring blood pressure after exercise.
Q3) Which finding is indicative of orthostatic hypotension in a person with a supine blood pressure (BP)of 110/70 and a heart rate (HR)of 100?
A) Sitting BP 88/60, HR 118
B) Sitting BP 108/68, HR 102
C) Sitting BP 110/78, HR 98
D) Sitting BP 120/80, HR 100
Q4) ________ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in intracellular calcium ion results in myocardial contraction, because calcium
A) activates membrane calcium pumps.
B) binds troponin, causing actin-binding sites to be exposed.
C) increases affinity of myosin for actin cross-bridge sites.
D) promotes ATP synthesis.
Q2) The v wave of an atrial pressure tracing corresponds to
A) atrial filling.
B) ventricular systole.
C) atrial systole.
D) mitral valve closure.
Q3) Which physiologic change increases cardiac work but does not enhance cardiac output?
A) Increased preload
B) Increased heart rate
C) Increased contractility
D) Increased afterload
Q4) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
Q5) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitral stenosis is associated with A) a prominent S<sub>4</sub> heart sound.
B) a pressure gradient across the mitral valve.
C) left ventricular hypertrophy.
D) a muffled second heart sound (S<sub>2</sub>).
Q2) The cause of Prinzmetal angina is ________.
Q3) Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of A) chronic intravenous drug abuse.
B) viral infection with herpes virus.
C) b-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q4) What compensatory sign would be expected during periods of physical exertion in a patient with limited ventricular stroke volume?
A) Hypotension
B) Bradycardia
C) Aortic regurgitation
D) Tachycardia
Q5) Atherosclerotic plaque formation is due to injury to the ____________.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common
Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has heart failure with a normal ejection fraction.Which findings are most likely found in this patient?
A) High cardiac output
B) Pulmonary congestion
C) Edema
D) Ejection fraction greater than 50%
E) Ejection fraction less than 45%
Q2) Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to
A) aortic stenosis.
B) aortic regurgitation.
C) tricuspid stenosis.
D) pulmonary stenosis.
Q3) Left-sided heart failure is characterized by
A) pulmonary congestion.
B) decreased systemic vascular resistance.
C) jugular vein distention.
D) peripheral edema.
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
Q5) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used ________ solutions that contain electrolytes.
Q2) In contrast to all other types of shock, the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with
A) high afterload.
B) low cardiac output.
C) high cardiac output.
D) reduced contractility.
Q3) Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in A) cardiac output.
B) SvO2.
C) systemic vascular resistance.
D) serum lactate level.
Q4) _________________ is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body.
Q5) A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is ____________.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary pulmonary hypertension is
A) more common in men.
B) readily treatable.
C) caused by genetic mutation.
D) rapidly progressive.
Q2) Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
A) diverts blood to hypoxic regions.
B) increases blood flow to the base of the lung.
C) can lead to secondary pulmonary hypertension.
D) is always detrimental to the patient.
Q3) The pulmonary structure that has the least pulmonary blood flow is A) lung apex.
B) middle lung.
C) lower lung.
D) zone 4.
Q4) Secondary pulmonary hypertension is most often caused by A) increased pulmonary blood flow.
B) increased pulmonary vascular resistance.
C) increased left atrial pressure.
D) decreased alveolar compliance.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is due to
A) release of proteolytic enzymes from immune cells.
B) air trapping with resultant excessive alveolar pressure.
C) excessive a1-antitrypsin.
D) autoantibodies against pulmonary basement membrane.
Q2) When a client diagnosed with COPD type A asks, "Why is my chest so big and round?", the nurse responds that
A) "Loss of elastic tissue in your lungs allows your airways to close and trap air, which makes your chest round."
B) "Swelling and mucus in your airways causes air to be trapped in your lungs, which makes your chest round."
C) "Coughing caused by your condition has changed the structure of your airways, which makes your chest round."
D) "Scar tissue in your lungs makes them stiff and more full of air than usual, which makes your chest round."
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24
Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A restrictive respiratory disorder is characterized by A) increased total lung capacity.
B) decreased residual volume.
C) inspiratory wheezing.
D) expiratory wheezing.
Q2) Empyema is defined as an
A) exudative bronchitis.
B) infection in the pleural space.
C) infection localized in the lung.
D) infection in the blood.
Q3) Which clinical manifestation is not likely the result of a tuberculosis infection?
A) Productive cough
B) Low-grade fever
C) Night sweats
D) Cyanosis
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25
Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include
A) muscle spasms and rapid respirations.
B) muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.
C) confusion and irritability.
D) vomiting and diarrhea.
Q2) What is likely to lead to hyponatremia?
A) Insufficient ADH secretion
B) Excess aldosterone secretion
C) Administration of intravenous normal saline
D) Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water
Q3) Causes of hypomagnesemia include
A) hyperphosphatemia.
B) chronic alcoholism.
C) oliguric renal failure.
D) clinical dehydration.
Q4) Which alterations can lead to edema?
A) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B) Increased capillary colloid osmotic pressure
C) Decreased lymphatic flow
D) Decreased capillary membrane permeability
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by A) hypoventilation.
B) decreasing arterial carbon dioxide.
C) increasing bicarbonate ion excretion.
D) hyperventilation.
Q2) Causes of metabolic acidosis include A) hyperventilation.
B) massive blood transfusion.
C) tissue anoxia.
D) hypoventilation.
Q3) A person with acute hypoxemia may hyperventilate and develop A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic alkalosis.
D) metabolic acidosis.
Q4) Renal compensation for respiratory acidosis is evidenced by A) decreased carbon dioxide.
B) elevated carbon dioxide.
C) decreased bicarbonate ion concentration.
D) elevated bicarbonate ion concentration.
27
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The underlying mechanism which directly results in glycosuria is
A) filtration of glucose from the glomerulus.
B) exceeding the threshold for glucose reabsorption.
C) secretion of glucose into the distal tubule.
D) the mechanism is unknown.
Q2) Renin is released from
A) the posterior pituitary gland.
B) the liver.
C) juxtaglomerular cells.
D) macula densa cells.
Q3) Hormones that increase sodium reabsorption from the tubular fluid include A) aldosterone.
B) atrial natriuretic peptide.
C) antidiuretic hormone.
D) urodilatin.
E) angiotensin II.
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28
Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of renal stone is
A) uric acid.
B) calcium.
C) struvite.
D) cysteine.
Q2) The major cause of glomerulonephritis is
A) infection of the glomerular capsule secondary to a urinary tract infection.
B) immune system damage to the glomeruli.
C) hydronephrosis resulting from kidney stones.
D) Streptococcus infection that migrates from the bloodstream to the glomerulus.
Q3) Renal stone formation is affected by A) urine concentration.
B) urine PH.
C) metabolic/congenital conditions.
D) dietary intake.
E) potassium level.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renal insufficiency occurs when _____ of the nephrons are not functional.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75% to 90%
D) more than 90%
Q2) Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by
A) chronic loss of blood in the urine.
B) poor appetite, with lack of iron intake.
C) decreased secretion of erythropoietin.
D) increased secretion of aldosterone.
Q3) Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by A) severe hypotension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) bilateral kidney stones.
D) acute tubular necrosis.
Q4) The most likely cause of acidosis in a patient with end-stage renal disease is
A) insufficient filtration of bicarbonate ions at the glomerulus.
B) excessive production of respiratory and metabolic acids.
C) insufficient metabolic acid excretion due to nephron loss.
D) hypoventilation secondary to uremic central nervous system depression.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called A) mixed incontinence.
B) enuresis.
C) stress incontinence.
D) overflow incontinence.
Q2) Cystitis symptoms include A) CVA tenderness.
B) suprapubic pain.
C) dysuria.
D) fever.
Q3) The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is A) less than 100 milliliters.
B) 150 to 200 milliliters.
C) 250 to 300 milliliters.
D) none of these; no normal residual volume is identified.
Q4) The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is A) bladder infection.
B) hematuria.
C) sudden incontinence.
D) dysuria.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _________ nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
Q2) Characteristics of declining reproductive function in the aged male include A) decline in sperm production.
B) reduced testosterone production.
C) shrinking testes.
D) increased penile sensation.
E) reduction in size of the penis.
Q3) The main function of the prostate is to A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
Q4) Erectile function is most likely to be impaired if spinal cord injury occurs at A) L1-L2.
B) L2-L3.
C) S1-S2.
D) S2-S4.
Q5) The thick covering of the ovum is called the ________.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the ________ during sexual stimulation.
Q2) The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as
A) hypospadias.
B) urethral fistula.
C) epispadias.
D) priapism.
Q3) A patient presenting with a urethral stricture may experience A) decreased urinary stream.
B) urethral discharge.
C) infection.
D) urine retention.
E) inability to retract the glans of the penis.
Q4) Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by A) sustained, painful erection.
B) inability to retract the foreskin.
C) inability to achieve erection.
D) malpositioning of the urinary meatus.
Q5) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as _______.
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone is secreted to cause uterine contractions during labor and delivery?
A) Progesterone
B) Thyroxine
C) Oxytocin
D) Pitocin
Q2) The heartbeat becomes audible through a stethoscope during which phase of fetal development?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Parturition
Q3) Before the onset of menstruation, water retention and breast swelling is thought to be due to high levels of ________ stimulating the secretory cells of the breast.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) hCG
D) oxytocin
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pharmacologic treatments may be seen in a patient with breast cancer?
A) Estrogen receptor modulators
B) Estrogen antagonists
C) Anti-inflammatory agents
D) Estrogen/progesterone combination therapies
E) Antineoplastic agents
Q2) Endometriosis is a condition in which
A) the endometrium sloughs continuously.
B) ectopic endometrial tissue is present.
C) an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic.
D) the endometrium proliferates and does not shed.
Q3) A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed.The procedure performed was a
A) radical mastectomy.
B) modified radical mastectomy.
C) mastectomy.
D) lumpectomy.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herpes lesions are fluid-filled vesicles that appear __________days after infection.
A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 7
C) 7 to 10
D) 10 to 14
Q2) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are ________ new sexually transmitted infections every year.
A) 300,000
B) 1.3 million
C) 19 million
D) 17 billion
Q3) Which infection can be a risk factor for cervical cancer?
A) Human papillomavirus
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Granuloma inguinale
D) Chancroid
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23400
Sample Questions
Q1) Pancreatic secretions are high in A) hydrochloric acid.
B) bicarbonate ions.
C) intrinsic factor.
D) secretin.
Q2) Chief cells secrete A) pepsinogen.
B) hydrogen chloride.
C) intrinsic factor.
D) gastrin.
Q3) The action of bile is to A) emulsify fats.
B) digest cellulose.
C) convert sucrose.
D) release free amino acids.
Q4) Absorption of glucose and amino acids across the intestinal epithelium occurs by A) endocytosis.
B) ATP-driven transporters.
C) sodium-dependent carriers.
D) passive diffusion.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) An early indicator of colon cancer is A) rectal pain.
B) bloody diarrhea.
C) a change in bowel habits.
D) jaundice.
Q2) Acute right lower quadrant pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation are indicative of A) appendicitis.
B) peritonitis.
C) cholecystitis.
D) gastritis.
Q3) An urgent surgical consult is indicated for the patient with acute abdominal pain and A) vomiting.
B) CVA tenderness.
C) absent bowel sounds.
D) borborygmi.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal bile is composed of
A) water, electrolytes, and organic solutes.
B) proteins.
C) bile acids.
D) phospholipids.
Q2) Which digestive enzyme is secreted from the intestinal mucosa during a meal?
A) Amylase
B) Cholecystokinin
C) Trypsinogen
D) Lecithin
E) Lipase
F) Secretin
Q3) Patients who may be at risk for development of cholesterol gallstones include
A) high spinal cord injuries.
B) patients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
C) patients receiving chemotherapy.
D) patients with rapid weight loss.
E) pregnant women.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted with bleeding related to esophageal varices could be expected to receive a continuous intravenous infusion of
A) glucose.
B) octreotide acetate.
C) anticoagulants.
D) proton pump inhibitors.
Q2) Stuporous, able to follow commands, marked confusion, slurred speech, liver flap present
A)Grade 1
B)Grade 2
C)Grade 3
D)Grade 4
Q3) A patient being treated for hepatic encephalopathy could be expected to receive a(n)________diet.
A) low-protein and high-fiber
B) high-protein and high-carbohydrate
C) high-sodium
D) unrestricted
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone secretion would be expected to produce which change?
A) Decrease sodium reabsorption
B) Decrease urine potassium
C) Decrease blood pressure
D) Increase blood pressure
Q2) _________ is the hormone which causes uterine and milk duct contractions.
A) Vasopressin
B) Prolactin
C) Oxytocin
D) Antidiuretic
Q3) The tightness of the hormone-receptor bond is known as A) specificity.
B) affinity.
C) half-life.
D) set point.
Q4) Up-regulation of target cell receptors results in
A) decreased target cell sensitivity to hormone.
B) reduced production of hormone.
C) increased target cell responsiveness to hormone.
D) an increased hormone half-life.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that the synthesis of thyroid hormones
A) is increased by thyrotropin-inhibiting factor.
B) occurs in perifollicular C cells.
C) is stimulated by ACTH.
D) is inhibited by iodine deficiency.
Q2) Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency?
A) No change in serum glucocorticoid level
B) An increase in serum glucocorticoid level
C) A decrease in serum glucose level
D) An increase in serum ACTH level
Q3) Diabetes insipidus is a condition that
A) results from inadequate ADH secretion.
B) is characterized by oliguria.
C) is associated with anterior pituitary dysfunction.
D) leads to glycosuria.
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapies that would be appropriate for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus include
A) carbohydrate counting.
B) high-protein diet.
C) daily exercise.
D) insulin.
E) oral hypoglycemic agents.
Q2) Which are complications of diabetes mellitus that are microvascular?
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Retinopathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy
E) Stroke
Q3) Diabetes mellitus is the ________ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.
A) first
B) second
C) fourth
D) seventh
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a fever of 3° F above normal would be expected to have increased energy expenditure of
A) 3%.
B) 15%.
C) 21%.
D) 50%.
Q2) The nutritional effects of cancer can be severe and result in
A) malnutrition.
B) anorexia.
C) cachexia.
D) catabolism.
Q3) When released into the circulation, fatty acids are bound to ________ for assimilation into tissue.
A) serum IgG
B) total protein
C) albumin
D) creatinine
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The language center in most individuals is located in the
A) frontal lobe.
B) left hemisphere.
C) right hemisphere
D) limbic area.
Q2) It is true that the arachnoid layer of the meninges
A) is thick and tough for support and protection.
B) lies between the dura and the skull.
C) contains spaces that are only evident in the presence of pathologic processes.
D) is semitransparent and weblike.
E) contains collagenous connective tissue.
Q3) Which are functions of neuroglia?
A) Generation of action potential
B) Modulation of ionic composition of extracellular fluid in the brain
C) Production of CSF
D) Phagocytosis of wastes within the CNS
E) Slowing the rate of conduction to the nerve axons
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important preventative measure for hemorrhagic stroke is A) anticoagulation.
B) blood pressure control.
C) thrombolytics.
D) management of dysrhythmias.
Q2) Secondary injury after head trauma refers to
A) brain injury due to the initial trauma.
B) focal areas of bleeding.
C) brain injury due to the body's response to tissue damage.
D) injury as a result of medical therapy.
Q3) The first indication of brain compression from increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)may be
A) decorticate posturing.
B) absence of verbalization.
C) sluggish pupil response to light.
D) Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of seizure usually occurs in children and is characterized by brief staring spells?
A) Epileptic
B) Idiopathic
C) Partial
D) Absence
Q2) Before making a diagnosis of Alzheimer disease
A) a brain biopsy demonstrating organic changes is necessary.
B) biochemical tests for aluminum toxicity must be positive.
C) other potential causes of dementia must be ruled out.
D) increased protein is found in a lumbar puncture.
Q3) The stage of spinal shock that follows spinal cord injury is characterized by A) reflex urination and defecation.
B) autonomic dysreflexia.
C) absent spinal reflexes below the level of injury.
D) motor spasticity and hyperreflexia below the level of injury.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for an individual with vision impairment should be prepared to A) keep the patient on bedrest to avoid injury.
B) speak to the patient with a clear, loud voice.
C) announcing himself or herself at all interactions.
D) provide as much bright light as possible.
Q2) Opacification of the lens is commonly referred to as A) hyperopia.
B) glaucoma.
C) presbyopia.
D) cataract.
Q3) A condition of ocular misalignment that causes a cross-eyed appearance is referred to as A) strabismus.
B) amblyopia.
C) cataract.
D) retinopathy.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed A) nociception.
B) sensitization.
C) neurotransmission.
D) proprioception.
Q2) One of the most common causes of acute pain is
A) headache.
B) fibromyalgia.
C) malignancy.
D) trigeminal neuralgia.
Q3) The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will
A) enhance perception of pain.
B) decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord.
C) activate opioid receptors in the CNS.
D) increase secretion of substance P in the spinal cord.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drug therapy with a dopamine receptor antagonist is initiated to manage a patient's symptoms of schizophrenia.The goal of treatment is to
A) increase dopamine activity.
B) reduce serotonin activity.
C) stabilize dopamine activity.
D) effect serotonin and norepinephrine neurotransmitters.
Q2) A mild form of hyperactivity in which social functioning is not significantly impaired is called
A) anhedonia.
B) dysphoria.
C) dysthymia.
D) hypomania.
Q3) The symptoms of hallucinations and paranoia that accompany schizophrenia are thought to be due to altered neurotransmitter activity in the brain, which results in excessive ________ receptor activation.
A) D2
B) serotonin
C) a-adrenergic
D) acetylcholine
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persistent, intrusive, uncontrollable thoughts that an individual recognizes as a product of his or her own mind are called A) compulsions.
B) delusions.
C) obsessions.
D) hallucinations.
Q2) PET scans performed on the brains of individuals diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)has shown A) decreases in glucose metabolism.
B) increases in glucose metabolism.
C) increases in serotonin activity.
D) decreases in serotonin activity.
Q3) Repetitive or ritualistic acts that a person performs with urgency are referred to as A) obsessions.
B) delusions.
C) hallucinations. D) compulsions.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Articular cartilage is avascular and A) completely incapable of regeneration.
B) nonliving.
C) nourished by synovial fluid.
D) rarely damaged.
Q2) Skeletal changes with increased age include
A) hypertrophy of cartilage.
B) decreased bone mass.
C) imbalance in bone resorption and formation.
D) loss of bone marrow.
E) dehydration of intervertebral disks.
Q3) The neurotransmitter released from the a-motor neuron at the motor end plate is A) norepinephrine.
B) epinephrine.
C) serotonin.
D) acetylcholine.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of osteomyelitis is A) hematogenous.
B) contiguous focus.
C) Brodie abscess.
D) direct invasion.
Q2) What type of fracture generally occurs in children?
A) Greenstick
B) Stress
C) Nightstick
D) Colles
Q3) Following a bone fracture, the most likely event to occur is A) development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.
B) leukocyte infiltration into bone tissue.
C) blood vessel growth at the fracture site.
D) migration of osteoblasts to the fracture site.
Q4) A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as A) comminuted.
B) open.
C) greenstick.
D) stress.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polymyositis involves inflammation and necrosis of _____ tissue.
A) muscle
B) epidermal
C) nerve
D) fat
Q2) Gouty arthritis is a complication of
A) group A streptococcal infection.
B) autoimmune destruction of joint collagen.
C) excessive production of urea.
D) inadequate renal excretion of uric acid.
Q3) In contrast to osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis may be associated with A) debilitating joint pain and stiffness.
B) improvement in symptoms with aspirin therapy.
C) changes in activities of daily living.
D) systemic aching in the musculoskeletal system.
Q4) It is true that scleroderma involves
A) inflammation and fibrosis of connective tissue.
B) autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors.
C) infection by beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
D) inflammation due to antigenic fragments of dead organisms.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impetigo is a skin infection caused by A) fungus.
B) yeast.
C) bacteria.
D) parasite.
Q2) Impetigo is usually caused by a A) virus.
B) fungus.
C) protozoan.
D) bacteria.
Q3) Deep pressure ulcers usually
A) appear first as reddened areas that do not blanch.
B) begin in the dermal and epidermal skin layers.
C) result from thrombosis of deep vessels.
D) are an unavoidable consequence of immobility.
Q4) Itchy linear burrows on the hands and wrists are associated with A) tick bites.
B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
C) scabies.
D) contact dermatitis.
Page 55
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of nutritional support of the burned individual is to
A) limit the glucose available to infectious organisms.
B) create a positive nitrogen balance.
C) protect the kidney from excessive protein intake.
D) avoid hyperlipidemia.
Q2) A necessary intervention when managing burns associated with automobile airbag injury include
A) irrigation with water.
B) application of steroid cream.
C) IV infusion of antibiotics.
D) debridement of skin.
Q3) It is true that covering a burn with cool wet sheets
A) promotes comfort.
B) facilitates healing.
C) prevents fluid loss.
D) promotes hypothermia.
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