Adult Health Nursing Review Questions
Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of adults experiencing acute and chronic health conditions. This course emphasizes the development of critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based decision-making skills necessary for assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating nursing care for adult patients. Students explore the physiological, psychological, and social factors influencing adult health, with a strong emphasis on patient-centered care, interdisciplinary collaboration, and health promotion. The course integrates theoretical knowledge with practical applications through clinical experiences, preparing students to effectively manage complex health issues and promote optimal outcomes for adult populations in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Nursing Active Learning for Collaborative Practice 1st Edition by Yoost
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42 Chapters
1050 Verified Questions
1050 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Nursing, Theory, and Professional Practice
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing instructor is researching the five proficiencies regarded as essential for students and professionals. Which organization, if explored by the instructor, would be found to have added safety as a sixth competency?
A) Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)
B) Institute of Medicine (IOM)
C) American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)
D) National League for Nursing (NLN)
Answer: A
Q2) A patient is being discharged from the hospital with wound care dressing changes. The nurse recommends a referral for home health nursing care. The nurse is using which standard of practice?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Implementation
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Values, Beliefs, and Caring
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Sample Questions
Q1) The student nurse is planning care for a patient who believes that Western medicine is effective but not always accurate. Nursing theory would best explain the patient's health practices?
A) Nursing: Human Science and Human Care
B) Cultural Care Theory
C) Human-to-Human Relationship Model
D) Five Caring Processes
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with lung disease. The patient tells the nurse that the most important thing to do during the shift is to walk down to the nurses' station and back without having shortness of breath. The patient's request is an example of which nursing theory?
A) Leininger's Cultural Care Theory
B) Travelbee's Human-to-Human Relationship Model
C) Swanson's Theory of Caring
D) Watson's Human Science and Human Care Theory
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an inoperable brain tumor says to the nurse, "I just want to die now. It's going to happen soon anyway." Which of the following would be the most appropriate response?
A) "Don't worry about that right now. It'll be OK."
B) "I disagree with what you just said!"
C) "Honey, now don't you talk like that."
D) "Tell me why you are saying that."
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse manager sends an e-mail to the nursing staff as a reminder for a scheduled monthly meeting. In doing so, the nurse manager understands that e-mail:
A) is usually slower than other methods to disseminate knowledge.
B) has the potential for miscommunication.
C) cannot be used to deliver vital information.
D) is especially effective because of the use of nonverbal cues.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Critical Thinking in Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse completes the health interview and physical exam on a patient admitted with an infection of the gallbladder. The nurse reviews the medical record and compares the abnormal lab results to the normal standards. Which critical thinking skill is the nurse using in this part of the nursing process?
A) Interpretation
B) Analysis
C) Evaluation
D) Inference
Q2) The nurse is preparing to teach Foley insertion techniques to a group of graduate nurses. Which of the following teaching-learning strategies would the nurse find most useful in teaching this skill?
A) Concept mapping
B) Simulation
C) Role playing
D) Literature review
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6
Chapter 5: Introduction to the Nursing Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing student is caring for a patient admitted with severe anemia. The patient receives two units of packed red blood cells and tells the student, "I am feeling so much better. I'm not so tired anymore and can bathe myself." The student reviews the patient goal "report an increase in activity tolerance" and concludes that the patient's goal has been met and adjusts the patient's plan of care. This is an example of nursing process:
A) organization.
B) dynamics.
C) adaptability.
D) collaboration.
Q2) The nurse is assisting a patient to bed when the patient says, "My chest hurts and my left arm feels numb. What's wrong with me?" What is the type and source of data obtained from the patient's complaint?
A) Objective data from a primary source
B) Objective data from a secondary source
C) Subjective data from a primary source
D) Subjective data from a secondary source
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Chapter 6: Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unlicensed nursing assistive person (UAP) reports to the nurse that a patient is crying during a comedy show on television. The nurse's best response should be:
A) "Maybe the patient doesn't think the show is funny."
B) "Don't worry about it. Her daughter says this is normal."
C) "I will go visit her right away and see what is going on."
D) "Just document what you observe in your notes."
Q2) The nurse is preparing to begin a physical examination for a patient with open lesions on the lower extremities. Which should the nurse evaluate during the physical assessment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blood test results
B) X-ray results
C) Recent vital signs
D) Patient's health history
E) Subjective data
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8
Chapter 7: Nursing Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International (NANDA-I) is an organization focusing on revising nursing diagnosis taxonomy and evaluates nursing research to validate the diagnostic labels. The NANDA-I taxonomy and new nursing diagnoses are published every:
A) 2 years.
B) 3 years.
C) 4 years.
D) 5 years.
Q2) A group of patients in a community center attend a nursing-led information session on the risks of contracting tuberculosis. After the presentation several patients ask the nurse for additional web-based resources regarding the lung disease. Which type of nursing diagnosis would the nurse choose for the community care plan?
A) Risk
B) Actual
C) Health-promotion
D) Potential
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Chapter 8: Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Goals are broad statements of purpose that describe the aim of nursing care. As such, goals:
A) are considered short term if achieved within a month of identification.
B) always have established time parameters, such as "long-term" or "short-term."
C) are mutually acceptable to the nurse, patient, and family.
D) can be vague to facilitate evaluation of achievement.
Q2) The nurse is formulating a plan of care for a patient. In this phase of the nursing process, the nurse: (Select all that apply.)
A) prioritizes nursing diagnoses.
B) determines short and long-term goals.
C) identifies outcome indicators.
D) lists nursing interventions.
E) gathers assessment data.
Q3) Which of the following is a correctly written example of a short-term goal?
A) By attending the gym, the patient will lose 50 lb in 1 year.
B) In 6 months, patient will be able to ambulate 1 mile without shortness of breath.
C) Patient will be able to change his colostomy bag within 6 weeks of surgery.
D) With diet and exercise, the patient will lose 1 lb this week.
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Chapter 9: Implementation and Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Change of shift report, collaboration with other health care members, and ensuring availability of needed equipment are examples of:
A) indirect care.
B) direct care.
C) referrals.
D) delegation
Q2) Which of the following is a direct care intervention?
A) Administration of an injection
B) Making the change-of-shift report
C) Collaborating with members of the health care team
D) Ensuring availability of needed equipment
Q3) After the nurse completes a patient's initial assessment and develops a plan of care:
A) continual reassessment of the patient is required.
B) no changes to the care interventions should be allowed.
C) reassessment should be done randomly.
D) the nursing process becomes static to maintain the course of the cure.
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11
Chapter 10: Documentation, Electronic Health Records, and Reporting
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a verbal or phone order is necessary in an emergency, the order:
A) must be taken by an RN or LPN.
B) must be repeated verbatim to confirm accuracy.
C) documented as a written order.
D) does not need further verification by the provider.
Q2) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) mandates that health information can be shared: (Select all that apply.)
A) In order to provide treatment for the patient.
B) To determine billing and payment issues.
C) To enhance health care operations related to the patient.
D) In public areas such as the cafeteria or elevator.
E) Over the telephone with any family member
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer medications to the patient. Prior to doing so, she/he compares the provider orders with the:
A) flow sheet
B) Kardex
C) MAR
D) admission summary
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Chapter 11: Ethical and Legal Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Code of Ethics for Nurses is:
A) like the Constitution and not revisable.
B) a succinct statement of ethical obligations.
C) required by entry level nurses only.
D) a negotiable document dependent on individual conscience.
Q2) In the nursing profession, ethical issues:
A) are rare occurrences, but take a great deal of time to resolve.
B) have required The Joint Commission to mandate ethics committees.
C) most frequently lead to legal intervention in patient care matters.
D) lead to ethics committees made up entirely by nurses.
Q3) State legislatures give authority to administrative bodies, such as state boards of nursing, to:
A) create statutory laws.
B) establish regulatory laws.
C) try case law cases.
D) create laws based on social mores.
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Chapter 12: Leadership and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unit charge nurse uses reward and punishment to gain the cooperation of the nurses assigned to the unit. What type of leader is this charge nurse?
A) Transformation
B) Autocratic
C) Transactional
D) Situational
Q2) An effective manager must: (Select all that apply.)
A) understand the concepts of budgeting.
B) run a unit efficiently without regard to cost.
C) be able to staff the unit effectively.
D) be adept at information management.
E) achieve desired outcomes in any way possible.
Q3) The nurse correctly defines leadership when stating:
A) "Leadership is coordinating others toward a common goal."
B) "Leadership is the ability to influence others."
C) "Leadership focuses on the task at hand."
D) "Leadership is based in formal authority."
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Chapter 13: Evidence-Based Practice and Nursing Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to conduct a research study and is interested in exploring the lived experiences of nurses responsible for approaching patients and family members about the donation of organs. This type of research would be considered:
A) grounded theory.
B) ethnography.
C) historical.
D) phenomenologic.
Q2) The nurse is conducting a literature review to determine the statistical results of all related studies. This type of review is known as:
A) a meta-analysis.
B) an integrative literature review.
C) a systematic review.
D) grounded theory research.
Q3) When applying research to practice, the nurse finds that:
A) it is usually easy to access information at the bedside.
B) research articles are clear in defining nursing practice.
C) bedside care is not directly related to research.
D) nursing research should be used to improve care.
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15
Chapter 14: Health Literacy and Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) On completion of assessment, a nursing diagnosis relevant to the educational needs of the patient or caregiver can be determined. Diagnoses specifically related to patient education include: (Select all that apply.)
A) deficient knowledge.
B) readiness for enhanced knowledge.
C) noncompliance.
D) pain.
E) alteration in elimination.
Q2) In determining patient goals, the nurse should:
A) allow patients to identify what is most important to them.
B) take the lead and determine what is best for the patient.
C) should focus on health promotion and staying healthy.
D) explain the importance of avoiding complications.
Q3) To teach effectively, nurses must recognize that:
A) age and socioeconomic status play a large role in understanding.
B) 90% of Americans possess rudimentary literary skills.
C) the ability to comprehend is a very new concept in health care.
D) most health care teaching is effective and understood.
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Chapter 15: Nursing Informatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) One classification system for nursing informatics competencies uses technical, utility, and leadership categories. Leadership competencies involve:
A) maintaining privacy and confidentiality.
B) using computers and other technological equipment.
C) using a variety of software programs.
D) addressing critical thinking applications.
Q2) The integration of nursing, computers, and information science for the management and communication of data, information, knowledge, and wisdom is:
A) nursing informatics.
B) computer science.
C) medical informatics.
D) informatics.
Q3) The focus of nursing informatics is:
A) direct patient care.
B) increasing documentation time.
C) the introduction of different EHRs.
D) how patient care can be improved.
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Chapter 16: Health and Wellness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic vulnerability of an organism, or risk of disease expression based on genotype, is
A) involuntarily passed from biologic parents to offspring.
B) totally unrelated to environmental factors.
C) non-responsive to alteration by way of lifestyle modification.
D) not a factor in mental illness because it is behavioral.
Q2) The use of seatbelts and airbags in automobiles is an example of:
A) secondary prevention.
B) tertiary prevention.
C) holistic care model.
D) primary prevention.
Q3) The nurse correctly recognizes which one of the following illnesses to trigger the broadest range of emotional and behavioral responses?
A) Ear infection
B) Mild concussion
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Influenza
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18
Chapter 17: Human Development: Conception through Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is assessing a 12-month-old at a well-baby visit. For what developmental milestones does the nurse assess this child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sitting up by himself or herself
B) Transferring objects from one hand to the other
C) Able to roll around on the floor
D) Using fingers as a pincer to grasp objects
E) Trying to imitate words he hears others say
Q2) A nurse is conducting a preschool screening in the community. Which child would the nurse refer for further assessment?
A) A 4-year-old who throws a ball over-handed but better under-handed.
B) A 4-year-old who can skip across the room after being shown how.
C) A 5-year-old who is able to ride a bicycle with training wheels.
D) A 5-year-old who is unable to ride a tricycle without falling.
Q3) To help a hospitalized infant master the tasks in Erikson's stage of Trust versus Mistrust, which action by the nurse is best?
A) Provide calming music during quiet time so the infant can sleep
B) Give the family food vouchers for the hospital cafeteria
C) Arrange to have a cot or small bed placed in the infant's room
D) Do not allow unlicensed assistive personnel to care for the infant
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Human Development Young Adult to Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse plans to develop a comprehensive screening tool to use with young adults, assessing their lifestyles and healthy living habits. What barrier must the nurse plan to overcome in order to make this screening successful?
A) Young adults may not see a health provider regularly.
B) Young adults are so diversified that a screening tool may not be appropriate.
C) Young adults have too many risky lifestyle behaviors to make education relevant.
D) Young adults are too busy with their lives to see a health care provider regularly.
Q2) A nurse who uses Havighurst's theory of development is assessing a young adult. What question does the nurse ask to provide the most relevant information about this person's successful negotiation of this developmental stage?
A) "Do you find yourself doing familiar tasks in new ways to accomplish them?"
B) "Please count backwards from 100 by 7s, such as 100, 93, and so on."
C) "What occupation have you chosen for your life's work?"
D) "Do you still have a good relationship with your parents and siblings?"
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has applied a pulse oximeter to the finger of a patient who is hypothermic. The pulse oximeter does not provide a good reading. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Move the oximeter probe to another finger.
B) Assess the fingers for good circulation.
C) Document that the reading cannot be obtained.
D) Remove any fingernail polish present on the fingernail.
Q2) A patient's blood pressure is 142/76 mm Hg. What does the nurse chart as the pulse pressure?
A) 28
B) 42
C) 58
D) 66
Q3) A nursing student is caring for a patient with metabolic acidosis. The student asks the registered nurse why the patient's respiratory rate is so high. What response by the nurse is best?
A) "The patient's metabolic rate is increased from being ill."
B) "The lungs are trying to rid the body of extra carbon dioxide."
C) "The patient is trying to reduce his temperature through panting."
D) "Patients who are acutely ill often have abnormal vital signs."
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Health History and Physical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient's cranial nerve III. What technique is best?
A) Have patient identify a common scent with closed eyes.
B) Shine a light into the patient's eyes to assess pupil response.
C) Have the patient read a newspaper or use the Snellen chart.
D) Assess if patient can hear both spoken and whispered words.
Q2) A nurse is assessing a patient's cranial nerves and notes an abnormal response to testing cranial nerve VI. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Ask the patient about recent facial trauma.
B) Inform the provider immediately.
C) Document findings in the patient's chart.
D) Have the patient frown and lift the eyebrows.
Q3) The nurse reads in a chart that a patient has a paronychia. What assessment technique is most appropriate?
A) Auscultate the patient's bowel sounds.
B) Test the cranial nerves for sensory function.
C) Inspect the patient's nails and surrounding skin.
D) Inspect the skin using the ABCDE mnemonic.
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Chapter 21: Ethnicity and Cultural Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The new nurse tells the preceptor that since she is not prejudiced against ethnic minorities, they will not be discriminated against while in the hospital. What statement by the preceptor is most appropriate?
A) Discrimination can occur at the societal level.
B) The hospital needs more nurses like her.
C) Prejudice and discrimination are not the same thing.
D) There is always some discrimination against minorities.
Q2) A patient in the emergency department needs an emergency operation. The patient refuses to consent and wants the nurse to call a respected elder in the community for consent. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Explain that this violates privacy laws.
B) Call the elder to get consent for the operation.
C) Tell the woman she has the right to consent.
D) Arrange for admission without the operation.
Q3) What does the nursing student learn about race?
A) It is biologically based.
B) It is a social construct.
C) It is chosen by the person.
D) It helps establish superiority.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Spiritual Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is considering a life-saving procedure that is not accepted by his faith community. What nursing diagnosis is a priority as the nurse plans care?
A) Spiritual distress
B) Impaired religiosity
C) Moral distress
D) Decisional conflict
Q2) The student nurse asks why spirituality is important in health care. What response by the registered nurse is best?
A) "All people have a spiritual aspect to their beings."
B) "Spirituality affects behavior, which also affects health."
C) "Knowledge of it is needed to understand a patient holistically."
D) "People who are less spiritual have worse outcomes."
Q3) A patient is scheduled to have an MRI and has a metal religious icon pinned to his gown, which can't go in the scanner. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Take the icon off the patient's gown until she returns.
B) Give the icon to the patient's family for safekeeping.
C) Pin the icon to the patient's pillow so it can go to radiology.
D) Explain the restriction and ask the patient's preference.
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Chapter 23: Public Health, Community Base, and Home Health Care
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Q1) A home health care nurse is working with the family of a patient who has Alzheimer disease and requires 24-hour care. What assessment by the nurse indicates the family is meeting an important goal for caregiver role strain?
A) Family eats dinner together every night.
B) Family uses respite care one night a week.
C) Family investigates research trials for patient.
D) Family verbalizes exhaustion from caregiving.
Q2) A nurse is a case manager for a home health care agency. The nurse often orders supplies for patients seen by the agency. What action by the nurse is best?
A) Negotiate for cheaper prices from suppliers.
B) Investigate what each patient's insurance will cover.
C) Refer the patient to the closest supply source.
D) Use the same supplier for all patients' needs.
Q3) A nurse is interested in epidemiology. What work activity would best fit this role?
A) Studying census data to determine common causes of death
B) Researching population variables that contribute to disease
C) Developing sanitary measures to prevent foodborne illness
D) Designing research to determine the connection between pollution and cancer
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Chapter 24: Human Sexuality
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient states, "I just don't conform to my gender role." What does the nurse understand about this statement?
A) The patient is a homosexual.
B) The patient's behaviors are abnormal.
C) The patient's actions differ from what is expected.
D) The patient is having a gender crisis.
Q2) A nurse wishes to incorporate an assessment of patient sexuality into all patient encounters but is concerned about appearing inappropriate. What action by the nurse is best?
A) State, "I always ask my patients permission to discuss sexuality. Is this alright?"
B) Wait for the patient to bring the subject of sexuality up to the nurse.
C) Give the patient written material on sexuality, then ask if he/she has questions.
D) Tell patients that if they have any sexual concerns, you would be happy to discuss them.
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Chapter 25: Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is working with a student nurse to teach her about restraint use in patients. Which statement by the student nurse indicates a learning need regarding restraints?
A) "Having all four side rails up on the bed is considered a restraint."
B) "The use of restraints has been shown to decrease fall-related injuries."
C) "Death has been associated with the use of restraints."
D) "Medications administered to control behavior are considered a chemical restraint."
Q2) The ER nurse is triaging a patient with suspected poisoning. Who should the nurse anticipate contacting first?
A) Family services
B) Radiology
C) Poison Control Center
D) Respiratory
Q3) Which statement by the nurse correctly identifies the UAP role in patient restraint use?
A) "The UAP can perform initial assessment."
B) "The UAP can apply a restraint."
C) "The UAP can assist with applying and monitoring of a physical restraint."
D) "The UAP can contact the physician and request an order for restraints."
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Chapter 26: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse understands that which set of vitals most likely indicates infection?
A) 98.6, 75, 18, 120/80
B) 99, 80, 19, 110/70
C) 100.5, 96, 22, 150/100
D) 98.9, 65, 18, 98/62
Q2) The second line of defense that leads to local capillary dilation and leukocyte infiltration is known as:
A) normal flora.
B) inflammatory response.
C) immune response.
D) humoral immunity.
Q3) The nurse is teaching a group of patient about diseases such as Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever that are transmitted by ticks. The nurse's explanation would be correct if she states that the tick functions as:
A) vectors.
B) bacteria.
C) viruses.
D) fungi.
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Chapter 27: Hygiene and Personal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding perineal care, which nursing action is appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A) The nurse applies gloves prior to performing perineal care
B) The nurse ignores the erection of a male patient during perineal care
C) The nurse documents the perineal care.
D) The nurse only completes perineal care with daily bathing
Q2) Which statement by the patient indicates a teaching need?
A) "I use bobby pins to remove excessive ear wax."
B) "I use soap and a warm cloth to clean the outside of my ear."
C) "My doctor sometimes gives me oil drops for my ears."
D) "I never use Q-Tips."
Q3) The nurse knows that which areas are at increased risk of excoriation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Exposed areas such as the face
B) Areas exposed to stool
C) Skin on skin areas
D) Area under pendulous breasts
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Chapter 28: Activity, Immobility, and Safe Movement
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Q1) The nurse is correctly demonstrating the use of a transfer belt when engaging in the following: (Select all that apply.)
A) The belt is placed around the patient's hips.
B) The belt is secure, leaving only enough room for the nurse to grasp the belt.
C) The nurse stands on the weaker side.
D) The nurse holds the belt on the side of the patient.
Q2) The nurse knows that a patient with a compromised cardiopulmonary system has a diminished capacity for exercise because of the following: (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased tissue perfusion
B) Loss of sensation
C) Hemiparesis
D) Diminished respiratory capacity
Q3) The nurse appropriately delegates care of her patient to the properly trained UAP when she: (Select all that apply.)
A) assigns the UAP to reposition the patient.
B) assigns the UAP to complete the MORSE falls risk scale.
C) assigns the UAP to provide range-of-motion exercises.
D) assigns the UAP to ambulate the patient in the hallway.
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Chapter 29: Skin Integrity and Wound Care
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Q1) The nurse is performing a wet/damp to dry dressing change when the patient begins to complain of severe pain. What should the nurse do first?
A) Notify the physician.
B) Notify the wound care nurse.
C) Stop the procedure.
D) Give the patient pain medication.
Q2) The nurse is educating the patient about the use of heat/cold therapy at home. The following statement by the patient indicates the need for further education?
A) "I should fill my ice bag 2/3 full of ice."
B) "I should use distilled water in my Aqua-K pad."
C) "I can warm up my hot pack in the microwave."
D) "I should check the order for how long to leave the compress on."
Q3) The nurse knows the following types of wounds heal by tertiary intention:
A) An acute wound in which the patient has sutures placed when it happened
B) A pressure ulcer that was treated with dressing changes and healed
C) An acute wound in which surgical glue was used to close the wound
D) A wound that was left open initially and closed later with sutures
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Chapter 30: Nutrition
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Q1) The nurse is caring for an adolescent patient with anorexia nervosa. She knows the best treatment option is:
A) hospitalization with skill nursing care.
B) compulsory tube feedings.
C) individually determined by a collaborative team.
D) outpatient treatment.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse knows she should change the tubing every:
A) 72 hours.
B) 48 hours.
C) 24 hours.
D) 12 hours.
Q3) The nurse knows that patients should consume the following amounts of fiber every day:
A) 25-35 g
B) 20-35 g
C) 25-40 g
D) 20-40 g
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32
Chapter 31: Cognitive and Sensory Alterations
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Q1) The nurse is assessing the patient's ability to hear. Which is the correct procedure for the doing this?
A) The nurse whispers to the patient while standing on each side of the patient.
B) The nurse speaks in a normal voice while standing on each side of the patient.
C) The nurse speaks in a normal voice while standing directly in front of the patient.
D) The nurse speaks in a normal voice while standing slightly behind the patient.
Q2) The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient with visual alterations. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education?
A) "I should make sure the passageways are wide."
B) "I should remove all the throw rugs."
C) "I should keep the lights dim."
D) "I can use a cane to feel for objects in front of me."
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Chapter 32: Stress and Coping
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Q1) The nurse knows an appropriate goal for Stress overload is:
A) The patient will attend a weekly support group.
B) The patient will discuss possible coping strategies during weekly office visits.
C) The patient will discuss strategies for coping with relationship violence within 24 hours.
D) The patient's family will use respite care once a week for the next month.
Q2) The nurse is assessing the patient's use of coping skills in response to stressful situations. Which of the following questions is the most useful?
A) "Have you been evaluated for stress?"
B) "Do you have someone you can go to for help when you are stressed?"
C) "How have you managed stressful situations in the past?"
D) "Does stress cause you to experience muscle tension or headaches?"
Q3) The nurse is educating the patient on the use of relaxing therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education?
A) "I should relax my muscles from head to toe."
B) "I visual the relaxed muscle."
C) "I should do this three times a week."
D) "I focus on muscles that are tense."
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Chapter 33: Sleep
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Q1) The nurse is providing discharge education for a patient with narcolepsy. The following statement by the patient indicates a need for further education:
A) "Daytime naps are helpful."
B) "Taking the medication will cure it."
C) "High protein meals are helpful."
D) "I should avoid alcohol."
Q2) The nurse knows the following changes in sleep patterns occur in the older adult: (Select all that apply.)
A) Sleep increases to approximately 8 to 10 hours a night.
B) REM sleep is shorter.
C) Stage 4 NREM is decreased.
D) The use of medication may interfere with sleep.
E) Older adults awaken more at night.
Q3) The nurse knows that cataplexy includes:
A) an uncontrolled desire to sleep.
B) falling asleep for several minutes.
C) loss of voluntary muscle tone.
D) a sleep cycle that begins with NREM.
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Chapter 34: Diagnostic Testing
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a deep leg wound that is badly infected. Which laboratory test results will the nurse expect to find in the patient's chart?
A) C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.5 mg/dL
B) Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
C) Serum bilirubin 0.5 mg/dL
D) Prothrombin time (PT) 11.5 sec
Q2) The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient who will be doing fingerstick blood glucose testing at home. What is the best way for the nurse to ensure that the patient can perform the procedure correctly?
A) Quiz the patient on the steps of the procedure.
B) Have the patient perform the procedure in front of the nurse.
C) Ask the patient if he has any questions about the test.
D) Use terminology that the patient can easily understand.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who recently had a liver biopsy. To whom must the nurse give the results?
A) The patient
B) The patient's physician
C) The patient's insurance provider
D) The patient's spouse
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Medication Administration
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking many prescription medications for various health problems. Which direction from the nurse will help the patient avoid dangerous drug interactions?
A) Only take over-the-counter medications.
B) Have all of the prescriptions filled at the same pharmacy.
C) Avoid taking generic preparations of prescribed medications.
D) Only take the medications that the patient feels are necessary.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who will give himself medication injections at home after discharge. How can the nurse best determine that the patient understands the technique and can administer the injections correctly?
A) Provide written instructions about how to administer the injections.
B) Watch the patient give himself an injection.
C) Call the patient the next day to ask if he is having difficulty with the injections.
D) Ask the patient if he understands how to administer the injections.
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Chapter 36: Pain Management
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is in constant severe pain. Which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority for this patient?
A) Impaired walking r/t patient's need to use a cane or walker with ambulation
B) Readiness for enhanced comfort r/t sedentary lifestyle and poor physical condition
C) Effective therapeutic regimen management r/t mistrust of health care personnel
D) Chronic pain r/t ongoing inflammatory tissue damage and joint destruction
Q2) The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient who has painful neuropathy in her feet. The patient asks why the nurse is administering gabapentin (Neurontin) when she does not have a history of seizure disorder. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Neurontin will help you sleep at night so you can deal with the pain more effectively."
B) "Long-term diabetes can put patients at risk for certain type of seizures."
C) "Neurontin can help relieve your anxiety from being admitted to the hospital."
D) "Neurontin works on the nervous system to help relieve the burning pain in your feet."
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Chapter 37: Perioperative Nursing Care
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Q1) Which action by the nurse best demonstrates accountability in the operating room?
A) Applying warm blankets when the patient reports feeling chilly
B) Holding the patient's hand to allay anxiety before anesthesia is administered
C) Double-checking that the surgical site is clearly marked and visible after draping
D) Using calming speech with a reassuring tone of voice when speaking with the patient
Q2) The nurse is caring for a preoperative patient who has just received sedation prior to general anesthesia in the OR. What is the priority action of the nurse?
A) Check to make sure that the consent form was signed.
B) Turn off the lights and provide a quiet environment.
C) Raise the side rails on the patient's stretcher.
D) Indicate the surgical site with an indelible marker.
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Chapter 38: Oxygenation and Tissue Perfusion
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Q1) Which of the following patients would benefit from postural drainage?
A) A patient with a heart murmur and jugular venous distention
B) A patient with asthma and audible wheezing
C) A patient with right-sided heart failure and pitting edema
D) A patient with chronic bronchitis and congested cough
Q2) The preceptor is working with a new nurse to provide care for a patient with a new tracheostomy. Which actions by the new nurse indicate need for additional teaching about the procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A) The outer cannula is cleaned with the brush and half-strength H S1U1B12S1U1B0OS1U1B12S1U1B0
B) The new tracheostomy holder is secured before the old soiled one is removed.
C) A Yankauer suction catheter is used to remove secretions from the patient's mouth.
D) Sterile gloves are applied before the soiled dressing is removed from the tracheostomy.
E) Half-strength HS1U1B12S1U1B0OS1U1B12S1U1B0 is used to remove crusted secretions around the tracheostomy site.
F) Pain medication is administered to the patient prior to suctioning.
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Chapter 39: Fluid, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who takes furosemide (Lasix) daily to treat congestive heart failure. The nurse will watch for which electrolyte imbalance that may occur as a result of this therapy?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hypernatremia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hyperphosphatemia
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a peripheral IV who tells the nurse that the IV site is painful and puffy. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Discontinue the IV and start another line in the other arm.
B) Aspirate to check for blood return and flush the IV with sterile saline.
C) Clean the IV site with chlorhexidine and apply a new sterile dressing.
D) Change the IV tubing and administer prescribed pain medication.
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the patient's laboratory results. Which result must be communicated to the physician immediately?
A) Serum chloride level 85 mEq/L
B) Serum sodium level 134 mEq/L
C) Serum potassium level 6.8 mEq/L
D) Serum magnesium level 2.3 mEq/L
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Chapter 40: Bowel Elimination
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has an ileostomy. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for the patient?
A) Impaired skin integrity r/t localized skin irritation from liquid stool
B) Social isolation r/t potential leakage of stool from ostomy appliance
C) Knowledge deficit r/t care and maintenance of ostomy appliance
D) Disturbed body image r/t presence of stoma and altered elimination
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who will undergo colonoscopy testing. Which intervention will the nurse include in the patient's plan of care for the day before the test?
A) Provide the patient with zinc oxide skin barrier cream for the perineal area.
B) Obtain an order for a gentle laxative to be given once the test is completed.
C) Carefully assess the patient's ability to swallow liquids through a straw.
D) Check the patient for allergies to shellfish and iodine-based contrast dyes.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is to have a cleansing enema. Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates a need to contact the prescriber and question the order?
A) The patient is recovering from a traumatic brain injury.
B) The patient has not had a bowel movement for 3 days.
C) The patient is to have a lower GI series the following morning.
D) The patient had an upper GI series performed the previous day.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Urinary Elimination
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is to undergo computed tomography (CT) of the kidneys and ureters. Which assessment finding by the nurse must be reported to the physician and radiologist before the patient has the procedure?
A) The patient is allergic to bananas and latex.
B) The patient thinks that she might be pregnant.
C) The patient has a family history of bladder cancer.
D) The patient currently has a urinary tract infection.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had an intravenous pyelography (IVP) completed. Which assessment is the nurse's highest priority after the patient returns from the test?
A) Carefully calculate of the patient's intake and output.
B) Monitor for discoloration of the patient's urine.
C) Assess for possible iodine or shellfish allergies.
D) Inquire if the patient has burning or pain with urination.
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Chapter 42: Death and Loss
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Q1) The hospice nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient. The patient's son is distraught because the patient will probably die within the next few days and there is nothing he can do about it. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient's son at this time?
A) Chronic sorrow r/t impending death of mother
B) Impaired religiosity r/t difficulty adhering to religious beliefs
C) Powerlessness r/t progression of mother's terminal illness
D) Complicated grieving r/t desired avoidance of mourning
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just died in a motor vehicle accident. What is the priority action of the nurse before the patient's family arrives to see the patient's body?
A) Gently wash the body and provide perineal care.
B) Remove the patient's dentures and jewelry.
C) Ensure that the death certificate has been signed.
D) Determine which funeral home will pick up the body.
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