Adult Health Nursing Question
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Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing is a comprehensive course focused on the nursing care of adults experiencing common to complex health conditions. Through the integration of theory and clinical practice, students gain an understanding of physiological, psychological, and social factors affecting adult health. The course covers topics such as pathophysiology, patient assessment, evidence-based interventions, pharmacological management, and the promotion of optimal functional health. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, ethical decision-making, patient education, and interdisciplinary collaboration to deliver safe and compassionate care to adults across a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition
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1873 Verified Questions
1873 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suggestions that a home health nurse could make to an elderly client with cataracts to reduce the risk of falls in his home would include
A) arranging scatter rugs to prevent slipping on the hardwood floor.
B) using lower-illumination bulbs to prevent eyestrain.
C) using night lights in every room.
D) wearing soft-soled house shoes indoors.
Answer: C
Q2) Strategies a nurse should use when teaching a client include (select all that apply)
A) using plain, lay language.
B) providing comprehensive information at each session.
C) having the client "teach back" what has been taught.
D) using written material written at a low literacy level.
Answer: A, C, D
Q3) The nurse recognizes the activity that reflects primary prevention is
A) a self-initiated walking regimen.
B) collaboration with a physical therapist.
C) physician-prescribed exercise after a heart attack.
D) tuberculosis screening.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Health Assessment
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the psychosocial assessment includes many more personal aspects of the client's history, the most significant variable that may affect the quality and usefulness of the collected data is the
A) nurse's ability to establish a therapeutic relationship.
B) nurse's difficulty in differentiating normal from abnormal.
C) reluctance of most clients to share information with health care providers.
D) value the client places on the health interview.
Answer: A
Q2) A client had surgery yesterday and is complaining of pain. The best action by the nurse is to
A) ask the patient which pain medication she/he took last.
B) do a complete assessment of the pain.
C) prepare to administer the ordered pain medication.
D) record the client's complaints thoroughly and get the pain medication.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse with 6 year's labor and delivery experience is floated to the intensive care unit. In this situation, the nurse would most likely function at the level of
A) advanced beginner.
B) competent.
C) novice.
D) proficient.
Answer: C
Q2) A nurse who is alert to changes, confident, open-minded, proactive, and questioning is displaying which characteristics?
A) Alfaro's Attitudes and Characteristics of a Critical Thinker
B) Benner's Five Levels of Competency in Nurses
C) Hawk's Model of Critical Thinking in Registered Nurses
D) Universal Intellectual Standards
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of the repetitive, slow, controlled movement involved, the nurse suggests that a client with arthritis may benefit from the CAM therapy of A) Ayurveda.
B) biofeedback.
C) Reiki.
D) Tai Chi.
Q2) A young Hispanic woman tells the nurse that she is going to have a healing ritual to center her spirit after the recent death of her husband. The nurse recognizes the alternative medicine system of A) Ayurveda.
B) Curanderismo.
C) Reiki.
D) Tai Chi.
Q3) An elderly Chinese woman tells the nurse that she must improve the flow of her Qi. The nurse asks the client how long she has been using A) acupuncture.
B) Ayurveda.
C) Tai Chi.
D) yoga.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) In comparing the ambulatory care setting to an inpatient hospital setting, the nurseinstructor is correct in stating that the ambulatory care setting
A) has had so many cost increases that a visit is just as costly as the hospital.
B) is already in decline and offers limited employment opportunities.
C) may create a feeling of greater stress to the client than a hospital setting.
D) provides an environment where the client is less at risk for nosocomial infection.
Q2) An ambulatory care center nurse who is counseling a young client with sickle cell anemia can best access evidence-based practice (EBP) guidelines from
A) consulting current nursing texts or journals.
B) integrated hospital care plans and protocols.
C) the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
D) the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ).
Q3) In a telephone consultation, the ambulatory care center nurse may
A) assess cardiac or fetal monitoring.
B) decide how soon the client should be seen at the center.
C) give advice based on the nurse's phone assessment.
D) teach a specific procedure based on approved protocols.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Acute Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client injured in an automobile accident is now stable but permanently ventilator-dependent and has little potential for further improvement. The client is to be transferred to post-acute care services. The nurse manager recommends a A) general medical-surgical unit.
B) long-term care unit.
C) rehabilitation unit.
D) transitional unit.
Q2) When a nurse is able to work effectively in more than one care area (e.g., general medical-surgical, and cardiac care unit), the nurse is said to be
A) cross-trained.
B) flexibly assigned.
C) nursing intense.
D) skill mixed.
Q3) The prepayment plan developed in 1929 is
A) Blue Cross Health Insurance.
B) Medicare Insurance.
C) Medicaid Insurance.
D) Health Maintenance Organization.
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8
Chapter 7: Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Critical care units (CCUs) have been developed in almost all hospitals because such units
A) allow for concentration of expert personnel.
B) can offer special services to the family.
C) contain costs.
D) separate the seriously ill from the other clients.
Q2) The nurse admitting clients to the critical care unit understands that priority clients for this area are those who need
A) a cleaner environment to prevent nosocomial infections.
B) continuous physiologic monitoring.
C) frequent vital sign checks.
D) private rooms conducive to rest and sleep.
Q3) The ICU nurse planning care for a critically ill client tries to arrange care to minimize the most disruptive stressor for the client, which is
A) alteration in sleep.
B) fear of the unknown.
C) persistent pain.
D) sense of isolation.
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9
Chapter 8: Home Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A home health nurse has a client with permanent left-sided weakness after a stroke; the client is cared for by his wife and daughter. The nurse will design the plan of care to A) help the wife manage the home.
B) limit input from the wife and daughter.
C) reduce the impact of the client's health care beliefs.
D) stimulate the client to become independent.
Q2) The home health nurse uses the Omaha System for planning care and is able to evaluate the client's health status with the portion of that tool known as A) Assessment and Analysis.
B) Intervention Scheme.
C) Problem Classification.
D) Problem Rating Scale.
Q3) The program that had the greatest influence on the number of agencies providing community health care is
A) ADC.
B) Medicaid.
C) Medicare.
D) Social Security.
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10
Chapter 9: Long-Term Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Historically, European countries in the 1700s housed older persons in institutions with A) farmers, who could use them as labor.
B) mentally ill persons.
C) older people of the same gender.
D) those of the same socioeconomic class.
Q2) In regard to nursing services in a long-term care facility, OBRA regulations include
A) a director of nursing that holds at least a master's degree in health administration.
B) availability of vocational nurses on each unit 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
C) the presence of at least four direct caregivers on duty per unit for each shift, regardless of census.
D) the provision of nursing personnel consistent with the level of care and needs of residents.
Q3) The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA) affected nursing homes by
A) allowing residents more choice in the selection of a nursing home.
B) mandating that each resident have a private room and bath.
C) producing profound reforms in nursing home care.
D) providing for better funding to meet the needs of the residents.
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Chapter 10: Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies that the Medicare criteria to qualify for rehabilitation services include that a client will
A) communicate adequately to be understood.
B) participate in 3 hours of therapy daily.
C) require three or more therapeutic modalities.
D) walk independently with crutches, cane, or walker.
Q2) The rehabilitation nurse reminds a client that according to the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), the broad theoretical qualification criterion for rehabilitation services is that the client
A) has impaired mobility in two limbs.
B) has impairments that lead to reduced ability to engage in activities.
C) is no longer capable of independent living.
D) requires assistance in mobility, dressing, and toileting.
Q3) A rehabilitation nurse scores the client at "1" in a functional area on the FIM. This means the client has
A) full independence in that area.
B) independence in that area with use of an assistive device.
C) partial dependence in need of significant assistance.
D) total dependence.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client had a stroke and is now being tube-fed. An important intervention the nurse should include in the care plan related to fluid and electrolyte balance is to
A) consult with a dietitian about providing sufficient calories.
B) check the sodium concentration of the formula.
C) prevent too-rapid infusion by using a feeding pump.
D) provide 1 ml of water per 1 kilocalorie of formula.
Q2) The nurse makes the evaluation that the intake of one of the adult clients in her care is adequate when she measures the total daily intake as
A) 750 ml.
B) 900 ml.
C) 1000 ml.
D) 2000 ml.
Q3) A client with dehydration is being weighed on a standing scale next to the bed. The most important action by the nurse is to
A) assist the client to prevent falls.
B) calibrate the scale per manufacturer's directions.
C) document the weight and compare it with prior ones.
D) explain to the client what is going to happen.
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13
Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-care teaching for a client with hypercalcemia should include
A) administering antidiarrheal medications.
B) decreasing sodium and calcium intake.
C) encouraging foods that increase urine acidity.
D) restricting fluid intake to less than 1 liter a day.
Q2) A client has a magnesium deficit in addition to congestive heart failure (CHF). The most appropriate nursing diagnosis is
A) Altered Comfort.
B) High Risk for Injury.
C) Impaired Skin Integrity.
D) Risk for Decreased Cardiac Output.
Q3) A client has been admitted in a hypercalcemic crisis and the family is distraught. One family member grabs the nurse's hand and states "I just don't know what I'll do if he/she dies!" The best response by the nurse is
A) "Don't worry. We see this and treat it all the time in clients just like this."
B) "I know that you are upset, but I have to take care of the client first."
C) "What has your loved one been eating and drinking during the last week?"
D) "Yes, this is serious but I can come back and answer some questions for you."
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Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is brought to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. The nurse is aware that the associated acid-base imbalance that will require treatment is
A) both respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
B) both respiratory and metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
Q2) The nurse caring for a trauma victim who has received massive transfusions of whole blood is diligent in assessment for metabolic alkalosis because
A) multiple transfusions of whole blood cause a decrease in serum potassium level.
B) the anticoagulant in the blood is metabolized to bicarbonate.
C) transfused blood is less stable, releasing bicarbonate from the blood cells.
D) whole blood utilizes bicarbonate as a preservative.
Q3) The nurse performs Allen's test before obtaining an ABG specimen to determine
A) if an allergy to heparin is present.
B) if ulnar circulation is adequate.
C) the patency of the radial artery.
D) the presence of neuromuscular weakness.
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Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery
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38 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Important actions the nurse takes to avoid "wrong site surgery" include (Select all that apply)
A) asking the surgeon to initial the marked site and operate through the initials.
B) calling a time-out to verify right client, right surgical site before starting the operation.
C) having the client mark the surgical site with permanent marker.
D) involving multiple surgeons in the case to check each other.
Q2) To lessen the postoperative complication of thrombophlebitis, the nurse would
A) assist the client to sit up in bed after surgery.
B) maintain the legs in an elevated position.
C) massage the client's legs.
D) remind the client to exercise the legs and feet.
Q3) The nurse explains to a client that because of alterations in liver function caused by cirrhosis, the client is predisposed to postoperative fluid shifts and wound infection related to
A) elevated creatinine phosphokinase levels.
B) elevated lactic dehydrogenase levels.
C) low albumin levels.
D) low blood urea nitrogen levels.
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Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autosomes are the chromosomes that A) are common to males and females.
B) are inherited from the paternal side.
C) determine gender.
D) exist in paired forms.
Q2) The nurse explains to a client that the condition of a sperm or egg having an irregular number of chromosomes is called A) aneuploidy.
B) genotype.
C) phenotype.
D) polypeptide.
Q3) A nurse educating clients in a genetic screening clinic explains that recessive genes on autosomal chromosomes can be passed on A) to children of either gender.
B) only to males.
C) only to females.
D) to females after skipping a generation.
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Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of new cancer cases diagnosed has increased steadily since 1900. The nurse explains to a client that one of the reasons for this increase is that A) cancer is related to most birth defects.
B) many false-positive cancer results are reported.
C) people who live longer are less prone to cancer.
D) statistical analysis and reporting are more accurate.
Q2) A client has a benign tumor that has originated in adipose tissue. The nurse explains that this type of tumor is classified as a A) fibroma.
B) lipoma.
C) leiomyoma.
D) carcinoma.
Q3) The nurse reviewing a research report recognizes that a discussion of oncogenes will address
A) a chemotherapeutic agent that eradicates viruses that cause cancer.
B) factors in the immune system protecting the client from malignant growths.
C) risk factors in cancer development.
D) segments of DNA that transform normal cells into malignant cells.
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18
Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has the nursing diagnosis Hopelessness, related to concern over cancer diagnosis. The nurse can encourage hope in this client by (Select all that apply)
A) affirming the client's worth as a human.
B) assisting with goal setting.
C) providing symptom relief as needed by the client.
D) reviewing mortality statistics for this type of cancer.
Q2) Before the specially trained nurse gives the prescribed dose of a chemotherapeutic agent, the nurse should
A) collect an extra syringe and needle in case of contamination.
B) cover the client with a water-resistant shield.
C) explain the expected side effects of the drug to the client.
D) verify dose, drug, and schedule with another nurse.
Q3) When a client undergoing systemic chemotherapy reaches the nadir of treatment, priority care by the nurse should be directed toward
A) assisting the client to eat an adequate amount of food to maintain nutrition.
B) enhancing the effects of chemotherapy by encouraging mild activity.
C) improving the mental state of the client by using mental imagery.
D) protecting the client from infection and bleeding.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A frail client with multiple chronic medical conditions has a chronic, infected, malodorous wound. The client begins to cry when the nurse tries to explain to the client an aggressive approach to wound care. The nurse should revise the plan to focus on A) better pain control so the client can tolerate the aggressive therapy.
B) palliative care and quality of life.
C) the client's emotional barrier to the recommended treatment.
D) the possibility of eventual amputation.
Q2) On a client's admission to the hospital, the nurse notes that the client has a yellow sacral decubitus ulcer. The nurse anticipates that the most appropriate wound treatment would be
A) applying antibiotic ointment.
B) surgical removal of eschar.
C) using wet-to-dry dressings.
D) vigorous cleansing with a Water Pik.
Q3) The nurse predicts that the wound capable of becoming "ideally healed" is a(n)
A) abdominal incision.
B) burn scar on the leg.
C) cancerous lesion on the inside of the cheek.
D) severe acne on the face.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse collaborating on a community committee designing responses for a bioterrorism attack would understand that an attack by smallpox (Select all that apply)
A) can be perpetuated through contact with infected items.
B) could be made with only a small amount of the virus.
C) is predicted to be deadly because there is no vaccine available.
D) will create terror because there is no effective treatment for smallpox.
E) would be hard to control because of the long time between infection and illness.
Q2) For clients thought to be in the period of communicability for influenza, the community health nurse will focus the interventions on
A) ensuring that clients do not infect others.
B) evaluating clients' response to the organism.
C) protecting clients from complications.
D) supporting clients' immune systems.
Q3) The nurse can best instruct a client to avoid the acquisition of hookworm by
A) advising the client not to eat raw pork products.
B) advising the client to drink only bottled water when traveling.
C) encouraging the client to wear shoes outdoors.
D) teaching the client good hand-washing technique.
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Chapter 20: Clients with Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reminds a group of student nurses that the most significant problem associated with the use of "demand" or nurse-administered analgesia is
A) determination of the difference between pain control and addiction.
B) inability of heavily assigned nurses to respond in a timely manner.
C) pain medications being administered too close to one another.
D) the nurse's underestimation of the need for medication.
Q2) A client is receiving an opioid analgesic through an epidural catheter. The nurse places the highest priority on
A) assessing for respiratory depression.
B) assisting the client with frequent position changes.
C) establishing a baseline laboratory profile.
D) performing hourly inspection of the catheter insertion site.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a client from the Mexican culture who is moaning and groaning in response to pain. The nurse plans care understanding that this response is viewed in the client's culture as
A) a means to eliminate the pain.
B) a method of expressing unmet needs.
C) a woman-like and weak response to pain.
D) an expression of acceptance of pain.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client on the hospice service develops dyspnea related to the disease process. The nurse checks the order sheet for a(n) (Select all that apply)
A) anti-anxiety agent.
B) bronchodilator.
C) corticosteroid.
D) opioid analgesic.
Q2) A client on hospice service reports experiencing a "colicky" type of pain. To relieve this clinical manifestation, the hospice nurse would request an order for a(n) A) anticholinergic.
B) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.
C) opioid analgesic.
D) salicylate.
Q3) A client near the end of life is experiencing dyspnea, which causes anxiety. To plan holistic care for this client, the best decision by the nurse would be to A) get an order for liberal doses of anxiolytics.
B) have the family stay with the client.
C) prepare the client for a morphine infusion.
D) use an interdisciplinary approach.
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23
Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a community group good sleep hygiene practices. Steps that individuals can take to improve their sleep include (Select all that apply)
A) allowing for one or two restful daytime naps per day.
B) avoiding vigorous exercise within 3 hours of bedtime.
C) establishing a regular bedtime routine associated with preparing for sleep.
D) if you wake at night, work quietly in bed and avoid getting up.
E) maintaining a regular sleep-wake pattern throughout the week.
Q2) The nurse explains to a client with periodic limb movement disorder that the drug that might be helpful in alleviating the clinical manifestations of this sleeping disorder is
A) amitriptyline (Elavil).
B) carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet).
C) fluoxetine (Prozac).
D) haloperidol (Haldol).
Q3) The substance produced in the body that acts a strong sleep inducer is A) acetylcholine.
B) melanin.
C) melatonin.
D) serotonin.
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Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health
Concerns
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client being admitted for surgery has a concurrent history of bipolar disorder. The nurse would assess this client for manifestations of mania that include
A) crying spells.
B) decreased energy level.
C) excessive, rapid speech.
D) sad mood.
Q2) The nonverbal behavior of the nurse that is likely to increase anxiety in a client is
A) speaking slowly in a clear, firm voice.
B) maintaining a brisk, business-like approach.
C) listening with full attention.
D) decreasing noise levels and bright light.
Q3) The nurse explains that although uncomfortable, mild anxiety under normal circumstances usually A) interferes with problem solving.
B) is short-lived.
C) is repressed and forgotten.
D) spirals into panic.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) During history-taking, a client tells the nurse that he is addicted to caffeine and that he drinks 10 to 12 cups of coffee a day as well as several cola drinks and iced tea. The nurse would warn the client that during his NPO status for surgery, he should expect to experience
A) diarrhea.
B) euphoria.
C) headache.
D) itching.
Q2) The assessment by the nurse that would be significant to help prevent a complication from amphetamine use is to A) check oxygen levels frequently.
B) keep the lights on continuously.
C) measure intake and output.
D) perform neurologic assessments.
Q3) The nurse teaching a client taking disulfiram (Antabuse) should focus on A) abstaining from alcohol ingestion.
B) daily exercise.
C) emotional support for the family.
D) skin care.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client describes ripping sounds in his knee during a fall while skiing. The nurse explains to the client that the diagnostic test that will provide the best data is a(n)
A) arthrogram.
B) bone scan.
C) myelogram.
D) x-ray film.
Q2) The nurse assesses the client for common musculoskeletal clinical manifestations, which include (Select all that apply)
A) infection.
B) limited range of motion.
C) pain.
D) stiffness.
E) swelling.
Q3) To evaluate a client's swollen right knee further, the nurse should first A) compare the right knee to the left knee.
B) palpate for crepitus.
C) put the knee through range of motion.
D) test muscle strength.
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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client returns from surgery for a THA with a Hemovac in place. The nurse assesses the first 6 hours drainage as 350 ml. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) change the client's position to supine.
B) drain the Hemovac and record the amount.
C) notify the physician of the amount of drainage.
D) report the excessive drainage to the oncoming nurse.
Q2) A client is being managed for prevention of gout and the nurse is reviewing the client's medication list and teaching about the medications. The nurse evaluates that the client understands the medication when the client says
A) "Allopurinol blocks production of uric acid."
B) "Colchicine can be used with probenecid."
C) "Long-term steroids are needed to prevent attacks."
D) "NSAIDs are not effective against the pain of gout."
Q3) The nurse assesses that the individual most susceptible to osteoporosis is the A) muscular 50-year-old man with diabetes.
B) obese 50-year-old woman who is allergic to milk.
C) thin 70-year-old man with gout.
D) very slender 75-year-old woman.
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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal
Trauma or Overuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two days after an accident in which a client sustained multiple injuries, including fractures, the client becomes confused and dyspneic and has a fever of 103.4° F. The nurse assesses that the client has developed
A) a fat embolism.
B) a pulmonary embolism.
C) compartment syndrome.
D) wound infection.
Q2) The assessment that would alert the nurse to the possibility of cast syndrome in a client with a spica cast is
A) abdominal distention.
B) diminished pulses in the foot.
C) "hot spot" felt on cast.
D) musty, unpleasant odor to cast.
Q3) The nurse assesses an 85-year-old client who has fallen and finds crepitus and swelling below the right elbow. The nurse interprets these findings as A) a closed fracture.
B) a dislocation.
C) manifestations of degenerative joint disease.
D) normal variations related to age.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4026
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse conducting a physical assessment on a client with ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency would assess that the clinical manifestation associated with this problem is
A) bumpy or scaly skin.
B) ecchymotic skin lesions.
C) extremity edema.
D) muscle tetany.
Q2) When the nurse measures waist-to-hip ratio and calculates the midarm muscle circumference (MAMC), the nurse is assessing
A) overall muscle strength and density compared to fat stores.
B) proportion and distribution of muscle mass and body fat.
C) reserves of protein and calories stores in the muscle.
D) the size of the body frame related to body weight.
Q3) A nurse is assessing a client who complains of aching abdominal pain. To correctly assess this client, the nurse would
A) defer palpation altogether.
B) give pain medication before starting.
C) palpate the nonpainful areas first.
D) percuss the abdomen before ausculating.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027
Sample Questions
Q1) In feeding a client with a cognitive impairment, the least helpful nursing action is to A) create a quiet, unhurried environment.
B) distract the client with conversation.
C) orient the client to the feeding equipment.
D) provide several small meals.
Q2) A client who is diagnosed with bulimia would be most likely to manifest the psychosocial alteration of A) denial.
B) depression.
C) self-mutilation.
D) social withdrawal.
Q3) The nurse can reduce the risk of access site infection in a client receiving TPN by A) adding antibiotics to the TPN fluid.
B) changing the catheter every 48 hours.
C) changing the transparent dressing every 72 hours.
D) using a semipermeable dressing on the insertion site.
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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should be mindful that the factor in a client's history most likely to result in esophageal reflux is
A) eating foods high in sodium.
B) heavy consumption of coffee daily.
C) long-term sedentary lifestyle.
D) very-high-fiber diet.
Q2) A client has undergone radiation therapy to reduce the size of an esophageal tumor. The nurse should be especially vigilant in assessing for A) prolonged epistaxis.
B) sudden onset of diarrhea.
C) esophageal stenosis.
D) projectile vomiting.
Q3) When developing the care plan for a client with leukoplakia, the nurse would focus interventions on the primary problem leukoplakia poses to the client, which is A) cancer risk.
B) discomfort.
C) infection.
D) purulent secretions.
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Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who had surgery and will be receiving chemotherapy and radiation treatment for stage III gastric cancer. The client is planning several extensive trips after the chemotherapy and radiation are finished. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?
A) "Before you leave, be sure your will and other advance directives are up to date."
B) "What does your family think of your travel plans?"
C) "What has the physician told you about your disease and treatment?"
D) "Your trip sounds wonderful! Tell me more about it."
Q2) The nurse is monitoring a client who has had gastric surgery for manifestations of dumping syndrome. The nurse should be particularly watchful for the early manifestation of
A) hypertension.
B) pain.
C) tenesmus.
D) vertigo.
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33
Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is complaining of "arthritis" in the hands and wrists. The nurse questions the client about bowel habits and the client asks why. The best response by the nurse is
A) "All the Motrin you are taking for your symptoms can cause other problems."
B) "Arthritis complaints often go along with inflammatory bowel conditions."
C) "Often bowel habits change with a change in physical activity."
D) "The stress from your arthritis can cause you to have diarrhea."
Q2) The history finding in a client with elevated carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) that suggests to the nurse that this result might not be related to colorectal cancer is a
A) high-fiber diet.
B) history of heavy smoking.
C) regular exercise program.
D) sedentary lifestyle.
Q3) A nurse is assessing a client with right upper quadrant pain. The nurse asks questions directly related to the health of the client's A) appendix.
B) kidneys.
C) liver.
D) spleen.
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34
Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4031
Sample Questions
Q1) To help a client with a new ostomy integrate its appearance into the client's body image, the home health nurse would
A) discourage the client's negative remarks about the stoma.
B) discuss clothing options that will hide the appliance.
C) limit family interaction in the client's stomal care.
D) use humor and jokes regarding the ostomy.
Q2) The nurse is instructing a client with a new colostomy on its care and notes that the stoma is large and dusky. The most appropriate nursing intervention at this time is to
A) assess the client's reaction to the ostomy site.
B) assist the client to irrigate the colostomy.
C) notify the surgeon immediately.
D) reassure the client that the stoma will decrease in size.
Q3) A client with ulcerative colitis is scheduled for surgical creation of an ileoanal reservoir (J pouch). What information should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
A) The client will need an easily removable appliance.
B) The client will need to plan for a daily irrigation.
C) The stool will be expelled through the rectum eventually.
D) The transverse loop ostomy will be temporary.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4032
Sample Questions
Q1) In a client with a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs), the nurse would note the need for further teaching when the client says "I
A) am on an oral contraceptive."
B) often take baths instead of showers."
C) use unscented tampons during my period."
D) use a water-soluble lubricant for intercourse."
Q2) A nurse working on a rehabilitation unit is caring for several clients with neurogenic bladder. The client who probably should not be a candidate for intermittent catheterization teaching is the
A) 15-year-old client who cannot understand sterile technique.
B) 26-year-old paraplegic client.
C) 26-year-old woman with an active sex life.
D) 35-year-old man with an erratic work schedule.
Q3) The nurse would realize that additional teaching is needed when the client with a ureteroileostomy says "I
A) am going shopping for new clothing that will better accommodate the pouch."
B) will change the pouch when it begins to leak."
C) won't drink too much so the amount of urine I make will be less."
D) am going to cut down on eating dairy products."
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4033
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would anticipate that a client with rhabdomyolysis would exhibit
A) brown-tinged urine.
B) gross hematuria.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hypophosphatemia.
Q2) A nurse could advise a group of employees at a work-site health fair that one health promotion measure that may help reduce the risk of renal cancer is A) consuming a low-protein diet.
B) getting plenty of exercise.
C) limiting antibiotic use.
D) not smoking.
Q3) A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease who is admitted for pneumonia. The nurse would expect that an appropriate antibiotic that the physician might consider is a/an
A) aminoglycoside.
B) cephalosporin.
C) penicillin.
D) sulfonamide.
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Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4034
Sample Questions
Q1) While caring for a client in the oliguric phase of ARF, the nurse's plan of care should include
A) encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
B) increasing the client's protein intake to prevent muscle wasting.
C) maintaining reverse isolation to prevent infection.
D) meticulous skin care to prevent skin breakdown.
Q2) A client had a kidney transplant and is doing well, except for being concerned that the spouse does not seem happy about it. The assessment by the nurse that would yield the most helpful information is to ask the
A) client what hobbies and activities they enjoy together.
B) client why he/she thinks the spouse is acting that way.
C) spouse how he/she feels about the client's progress.
D) spouse what his/her role was while the client was ill.
Q3) The client with chronic renal failure who would not be a candidate for peritoneal dialysis is a client
A) who has diabetes mellitus.
B) who is a 10-year-old child.
C) with severe cardiovascular disease.
D) with severe respiratory disease.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notices that a client performing a BSE is failing to palpate her breast and axillae completely. To improve her technique, the nurse should teach the client to A) compress the nipple downward.
B) gently slide her fingers over the breast tissue.
C) palpate the breast using a systematic approach.
D) start her examination when standing.
Q2) When calling a woman to inform her that the results of her Pap smear are suspicious, the nurse should first A) interpret the cytologic findings for the client.
B) provide an opportunity to discuss concerns and ask questions.
C) refer the client for further diagnostic evaluation by a physician. D) schedule immediate retesting to validate the findings.
Q3) The nurse obtaining a health history from a male client with a history of hypertension should ask the client about A) renal functioning.
B) sexual functioning. C) testicular problems. D) voiding problems.
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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is collecting a history on a young client being treated for epididymitis. For which past medical condition should the nurse ask if the client has received treatment?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections
B) History of testicular torsion at puberty
C) Problems with erectile dysfunction
D) Sexually transmitted diseases
Q2) A client who had prostate surgery asks the nurse when the suprapubic catheter will be removed. The nurse would reply that it will be left in place until A) about 2 weeks after the surgery. B) antibiotic therapy is completed.
C) no pain medication is necessary.
D) the client is voiding well.
Q3) The nurse preparing health teaching information about the etiology of prostate cancer would omit factors related to A) diet.
B) heredity.
C) race.
D) vasectomies.
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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037
Sample Questions
Q1) The question that the nurse would initially ask an 18-year-old client being assessed for amenorrhea is
A) "Are you taking birth control pills?"
B) "Could you be pregnant?"
C) "Have you been dieting?"
D) "How much do you exercise?"
Q2) The nurse would assess a client with leiomyoma for a history of
A) abnormal vaginal discharge.
B) amenorrhea.
C) excessive uterine bleeding.
D) severe menstrual pain.
Q3) The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing pain on her left side during the entire time of menstrual flow. The nurses assesses the possibility of A) endometriosis.
B) pelvic inflammatory disease.
C) uterine myoma.
D) uterine prolapse.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4038
Sample Questions
Q1) A young client has a breast lump that presents as a fluid-filled cyst and increases slightly in size premenstrually. The nurse would suspect the breast disorder of A) a cyst.
B) a papilloma.
C) carcinoma.
D) ductal hyperplasia.
Q2) A client is receiving chemotherapy with paclitaxel for breast cancer. A priority nursing intervention is to
A) encourage the client to get adequate rest.
B) monitor the client's safety.
C) teach the client about the drug regimen.
D) watch for drug side effects.
Q3) When the client scheduled for a modified radical mastectomy asks the nurse what tissue the surgeon will remove, the nurse would answer
A) breast, skin, and axillary nodes.
B) breast, skin, and muscle.
C) breast, skin, muscle, and axillary nodes.
D) breast, skin, muscle, axillary nodes, and internal mammary nodes.
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Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a community group about STDs, including proper use of condoms. The nurse informs the group that condom failure is generally due to A) environmental concerns.
B) improper or inconsistent use.
C) latex versus non-latex construction.
D) manufacturer's defect.
Q2) The nurse working in an ambulatory clinic explains that the most common bacterial STD in the United States is A) chlamydia.
B) genital herpes.
C) gonorrhea.
D) syphilis.
Q3) The nurse is teaching a client with herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2 appropriate methods to prevent further spread of the virus while lesions are present. The nurse stresses that clients should
A) apply warm soaks to the lesions.
B) complete antibiotic therapy.
C) maintain separate towels and other personal items.
D) stop using condoms because they are irritating.
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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is complaining of abdominal pain described as dull, aching, and cramping. The nurse would record this pain as A) parietal.
B) referred.
C) spasmodic.
D) visceral.
Q2) The nurse performing an assessment of a 69-year-old man with a long history of complex medical problems would be aware that a systemic manifestation suggestive of hepatic dysfunction is A) gynecomastia.
B) hematuria.
C) melena.
D) oily skin.
Q3) A nurse is performing a physical examination on an elderly client. The nurse notes the abdomen is rounded and sagging. The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to
A) ask the client about exercise routines.
B) discuss the client's bowel habits.
C) inquire about any abdominal pain.
D) record this as a normal finding.
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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4041
Sample Questions
Q1) In the assessment of a client with hypothyroidism, the nurse would include
A) serum calcium levels.
B) serum cholesterol levels.
C) urine glucose levels.
D) urine specific gravity.
Q2) In a client with Graves' disease receiving radioiodine, the nurse would monitor for the common treatment complication of
A) hypothyroidism.
B) pulmonary emboli.
C) skin breakdown.
D) urinary tract infection.
Q3) In the initial treatment of a teenager with hyperthyroidism, the nurse would anticipate using
A) levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid).
B) liothyronine sodium (Cytomel).
C) methimazole (Tapazole).
D) radioactive iodine (131I).
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4042
Sample Questions
Q1) Critical actions the nurse takes specifically when caring for the client with Cushing's syndrome who had an adrenalectomy include (Select all that apply)
A) ambulate the client as soon as the client is able.
B) begin discharge planning on admission for the operation.
C) use strict aseptic technique when changing dressings.
D) strongly encourage client to cough and deep breathe.
Q2) During assessment of a 45-year-old man with the medical diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome, the nurse would note the most consistent finding of A) male pattern baldness.
B) peripheral edema.
C) hypertension.
D) jaundice.
Q3) For a client who has undergone transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the aspect of usual postoperative care that the nurse would modify is
A) administration of oxygen.
B) leg exercises.
C) nutrition.
D) oral care.
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Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4043
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would counsel a diabetic client who has developed nephropathy that the best dietary alteration to manage this complication is a
A) high-calorie diet.
B) high-fat diet.
C) low-carbohydrate diet.
D) low-protein diet.
Q2) For a diabetic client weighing 80 pounds, the nurse would anticipate that the starting dose of insulin will be
A) 72 units.
B) 54 units.
C) 36 units.
D) 18 units.
Q3) A teenage diabetic client is admitted for a fourth episode of profound hypoglycemia in 6 months. Besides assessing the client's knowledge level, the nurse should also question the client about
A) deliberate errors in insulin dosage.
B) how often the client performs quality checks on the glucometer.
C) where the client gets diabetic supplies.
D) whether the client uses human- or animal-based insulin brands.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine
Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4044
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy asks the nurse how soon he/she can return to work. The nurse would respond that the final decision is up to the surgeon, but that clients can usually resume work after
A) 24 hours.
B) 3 to 4 days.
C) 5 to 7 days.
D) 2 weeks.
Q2) When a client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of acute cholecystitis, the nurse would anticipate that the immediate medical management will be A) antibiotic therapy.
B) provided by a medical nutritionist.
C) systemic corticosteroid administration.
D) total parenteral nutrition.
Q3) The nurse planning the care of a client admitted with severe pancreatitis would anticipate the diet order of A) clear liquids.
B) enteral feedings.
C) NPO with TPN.
D) soft, low fat.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with cirrhosis is on the transplant list and is now admitted for end-stage liver failure. The spouse breaks down crying, stating "I just can't cope any more. I already have to do every thing at home and for the kids, now if he/she dies, I just don't know what I will do!" The best response by the nurse is
A) "I see you are upset. I will come back in 10 minutes and we can talk."
B) "I'm sure they will find a donor before it is too late."
C) "We do a lot of transplants here and our outcomes are very good."
D) "What has helped you handle all the family responsibilities so far?"
Q2) In a client with esophageal varices who is receiving vasopressin, the nurse would closely monitor for A) chest pain.
B) dramatic onset of hypotension.
C) perforated esophagus.
D) pulmonary effusion.
Q3) The nurse would counsel a client that the portosystemic shunt will A) eliminate the danger of hepatic failure.
B) reduce ascites.
C) reduce portal hypertension only.
D) reverse effects of cirrhosis.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4046
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is undergoing a lengthy series of treatments for a skin disorder. The best method of documenting the client's experience with the treatments is for the nurse to A) document the lesions clearly at each visit using proper terminology.
B) draw the distribution and characteristics of the lesions occasionally.
C) have the client record ongoing changes and include them in the record.
D) photograph the lesions at each clinic visit and use them for comparison.
Q2) After a client's surgical excisional biopsy, the nurse would apply
A) antibiotic ointment and a dry dressing.
B) Band-Aids only.
C) hydrocolloid dressing only.
D) petrolatum gauze and paper tape.
Q3) In a highly pigmented client, the nurse would best assess for erythema by A) follicular accentuation. B) induration.
C) reddening of the skin.
D) striation.
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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has severe cellulitis on the arm. The nurse would anticipate orders to administer medications to eradicate
A) Candida albicans.
B) group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q2) When caring for a client after a chemical peel procedure to the face, the nurse would
A) apply skin moisturizer.
B) cleanse the client's face with an astringent.
C) maintain the client in a head-down position.
D) use abrasive cleaning agents.
Q3) To prevent pressure ulcers in a frail elderly client, the nurse would (Select all that apply)
A) bathe and dry the skin vigorously to stimulate circulation.
B) keep the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees.
C) offer nutritional supplements and frequent snacks.
D) turn the client at least every 2 hours.
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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4048
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse doing a home safety assessment would conclude that the client at highest risk for burns sustained from clothing ignition during meal preparation is
A) an 18-month-old toddler.
B) a 5-year-old child.
C) a 15-year-old teenager.
D) a 75-year-old adult.
Q2) The nurse caring for a burn client would monitor the client's stools for occult blood as assessment for development of
A) bleeding caused by bowel distention.
B) gastric irritation related to smoke.
C) intestinal ileus.
D) stress ulcers.
Q3) A client has a circumferential third-degree burn on the upper left arm. The nursing assessments specific for this client would include
A) assessing capillary refill in the left hand.
B) evaluating left hand strength.
C) measuring left forearm circumference.
D) monitoring blood pressure in the left arm.
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Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4049
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a suspected DVT. The nurse would prepare the client to undergo a A) air plethysmography.
B) ankle-brachial index measurement.
C) computed tomography (CT) scan.
D) ultrasonic duplex scan.
Q2) Age-related changes the nurse incorporates into interpreting the physical assessment for vascular disorders include (Select all that apply)
A) blood pressure readings are often inaccurate in older people.
B) dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses may be more difficult to palpate.
C) peripheral vascular disease is common among the elderly.
D) skin changes, such as dependent rubor, are often seen in people over 65.
Q3) A client has a 30 mm Hg difference in blood pressures in the arms. For subsequent blood pressure readings, the nurse should use
A) a larger blood pressure cuff.
B) a smaller blood pressure cuff.
C) the arm with the higher reading.
D) the arm with the lower reading.
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Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4050
Sample Questions
Q1) In an exercise program for weight reduction in a hypertensive client, the nurse would discourage the use of heavy weights because this may cause
A) lactic acid buildup.
B) muscle strain.
C) rapid vasodilation.
D) vasovagal response.
Q2) In conducting a health interview with a hypertensive client, the nurse would ask the client about the presence of the typical manifestations of the disorder, which are A) increasing muscle weakness.
B) nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
C) none unless the hypertension is sustained.
D) peripheral edema and abdominal bloating.
Q3) For a hypertensive client who reports being "really fired up" about losing weight, the nurse would recognize the need for more education on hearing the client's plan to A) abruptly eliminate sugar from the diet.
B) lose 1 pound a week.
C) use over-the-counter appetite suppressants.
D) walk and climb stairs.
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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would inform a client with a venous ulcer that the client's ulcer will be treated with the traditional protocol of
A) daily warm soaks and application of wet-to-moist saline dressings.
B) enzymatic debridement and the area left open to air.
C) local antibiotic ointment applied twice a day.
D) pressure dressing left in place for 5 to 7 days.
Q2) A client is scheduled for a below-the-knee amputation for treatment of chronic infected arterial ulcers and leg pain. The client seems calm, and even happy. The nurse should respond to this client based on understanding that the client
A) cannot cope effectively with a life-altering procedure.
B) is experiencing dysfunctional grieving for the leg.
C) may prefer an amputation to living with chronic pain.
D) might have cognitive defects preventing full understanding.
Q3) A client is recovering from a leg amputation and is doing well. However, the nurse still cautions the client to
A) avoid any trips with the new prosthesis in the next year or so.
B) call for help when getting out of bed.
C) limit pain medication to prevent dizziness at therapy.
D) not be too excited about progress until fitted with the prosthesis.
Page 55
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Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4052
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would explain to a client that an exercise ECG is useful as one means of detecting
A) cardiac dysrhythmias.
B) coronary artery disease.
C) heart failure.
D) valvular disorders.
Q2) The nurse evaluating the head and neck of a client would assess the carotid arteries by
A) asking the client to bear down and hold the breath while observing the arteries.
B) auscultating the arteries with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.
C) instructing the client to lie down and examining the arteries with oblique lighting.
D) palpating the arteries simultaneously, comparing amplitudes, rates, and rhythms.
Q3) A nurse explains the purpose of echocardiography to a client as
A) a picture of both the structures in the heart and their motion.
B) an image of the heart and great vessels from a posterior view.
C) hemodynamic pressure monitoring and analysis of oxygenation.
D) the use of extra contrast dye to visualize pulmonary arteries.
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Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural
Cardiac Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4053
Sample Questions
Q1) In counseling a client who is considering a heart transplant, the nurse would know the client has an accurate perception of this treatment option when the client says
A) "Less than half of those who survive a heart transplant live 10 years."
B) "People under 75 years of age may have a heart transplant."
C) "The survival rate for patients having a heart transplant is about 80%."
D) "This is an experimental treatment, but I want to take the chance."
Q2) The nurse would recognize that splinter hemorrhages in the nails, painful swollen nodules on the fingertips, and splenomegaly indicate
A) infective endocarditis.
B) mitral stenosis.
C) mitral valve prolapse.
D) pericarditis.
Q3) When performing cardiac auscultation on a client with mitral valve prolapse, the nurse would anticipate hearing a
A) harsh, systolic murmur.
B) loud S2 heart sound.
C) midsystolic click.
D) prominent S4 heart sound.
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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional
Cardiac Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4054
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that in addition to having a PTCA to clear the artery, the client will also have plaque vaporized by the use of
A) anticoagulant therapy.
B) intracoronary stent.
C) laser ablation.
D) transmyocardial revascularization.
Q2) In advising a client with higher levels of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) in proportion to low-density lipoproteins (LDLs), the nurse would suggest that the client A) consult the physician for an anticholesterol prescription.
B) initiate a moderate exercise program.
C) is less likely to develop CHD.
D) should consider a reduced-fat diet.
Q3) A nurse is speaking to a group of high school girls about not smoking. The nurse would caution them that the risk of CHD in women who smoke is greater than that for nonsmoking women by A) two times.
B) three times.
C) four times.
D) five times.
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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4055
Sample Questions
Q1) At the ambulatory care clinic, the nurse counseling a client who has presented with frequent episodes of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia would advise the client to
A) avoid all aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
B) eat a low-salt, low-fat diet that contains plenty of fiber.
C) get 30 minutes of exercise and drink six glasses of water per day.
D) quit smoking and avoid caffeine and alcohol.
Q2) A young athletic client has occasional episode of syncope. On further questioning, the nurse discovers the client has several relatives who had sudden cardiac death. The nurse should suggest the client be screened for
A) atrial dysrhythmias.
B) familial sudden cardiac death syndrome.
C) long QT syndrome.
D) ventricular dysrhythmias.
Q3) The nurse would be most concerned about premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) that
A) are uniform in appearance.
B) fall on a T wave.
C) occur at a rate of four per minute.
D) occur with angina.
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse notes a run of four premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on the monitor of a client with a recent MI, the nurse would
A) administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
B) change the client's ECG leads.
C) continue observing for six PVCs or more.
D) notify the physician immediately.
Q2) The nursing actions that would most help to prevent cardiogenic shock in a client after a myocardial infarction are (Select all that apply)
A) administering vasopressor agents.
B) enhancing the heart's pumping function.
C) giving the client IV lidocaine.
D) providing adequate IV fluids.
E) treating pain rapidly.
Q3) In the discharge teaching plan for a client after MI, the nurse would include that the client should
A) begin walking for short periods every day.
B) continue previous lifestyle when ready.
C) resume sexual intercourse in 3 months.
D) take 1 aspirin every 8 hours as ordered.
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Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4057
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse hears a high, hollow, drum-like sound while percussing the right chest of a young man with a right pneumothorax, the nurse would record this finding as A) dullness.
B) flatness.
C) resonance.
D) tympany.
Q2) The nurse preparing a client for a bronchoscopy would include information about its (Select all that apply)
A) ability to visualize gas exchange at the alveolar level.
B) limitation of not being able to take tissue biopsies.
C) therapeutic use to remove retained secretions.
D) usefulness in diagnosing tumors, inflammation, and strictures.
Q3) Before drawing blood for an arterial blood gas (ABG), the nurse would perform a/an A) Allen's test.
B) incentive spirometer assessment.
C) Schilling's test.
D) test for peripheral perfusion.
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Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4058
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client who has undergone functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS) as part of the surgical management of sinusitis, the nurse would instruct the client
A) "Don't blow your nose for 1 week."
B) "Eat only semi-solid foods."
C) "Lean forward when eating."
D) "Limit the amount of fluids you drink."
Q2) The nurse working with a client who has acute sinusitis plans to teach the client about the routinely-used treatments for this condition, which include (Select all that apply)
A) antibiotics.
B) antihistamines.
C) mucolytic agents.
D) oral alpha-adrenergic vasoconstrictors.
Q3) A client has frequent bouts of laryngitis. When assessing the client the nurse should specifically ask questions regarding the presence of
A) a family history of idiopathic hoarseness.
B) frequent upper respiratory tract infections.
C) gastroesophageal reflux disorder.
D) a history of stomach cancer.
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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nonsmoking client has been diagnosed with mild asthma. The nurse instructs the client to try to identify and reduce or eliminate exposure to triggers, which may include (Select all that apply)
A) being overly excited.
B) household pets.
C) physical exercise.
D) perfumes.
E) second-hand smoke.
Q2) A nurse caring for an elderly client with COPD alters care knowing that in the older population (Select all that apply)
A) COPD is not a common problem in the elderly.
B) impaired nutrition is a common problem in the elderly.
C) multiple co-morbidities may be present that complicate care.
D) sensory disturbances may hinder their ability to provide self-care.
E) there may be more problems with drug-drug interactions.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client with asthma would place the client in the
A) Fowler position.
B) lithotomy position.
C) side-lying position.
D) supine position.
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Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4060
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes that a client in a long-term care facility has become increasingly confused in the last few days. The resident's vital signs are temperature 97.7° F, pulse rate 80 beats/min, respirations 20 breaths/min, and blood pressure (90/62) mm Hg. The nurse would suspect A) cancer of the lung.
B) plural effusion.
C) pneumonia.
D) tuberculosis (TB).
Q2) A client has an interstitial lung disease (ILD) and has questions related to the disease process. The best explanation by the nurse is that ILD
A) causes alveolar walls to thicken and become nonfunctional.
B) is a highly contagious disease and close contacts need treatment.
C) is caused by a recurrent fungal infection in the lung parenchyma.
D) leads to diffuse intrapulmonary cavity formation.
Q3) On physical examination of a client with pneumonia, the nurse would expect A) absence of whispered pectoriloquy over the affected area.
B) increased tactile fremitus over the affected area.
C) tympanic percussion notes over the affected area.
D) vesicular breath sounds over the affected area.
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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4061
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse monitoring a client with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) would closely assess for
A) atelectasis.
B) cor pulmonale.
C) pneumonia.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q2) The nurse planning care for an intubated client includes which interventions to prevent accidental extubation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid opioid analgesics to prevent confusion and sedation.
B) Do not reposition the client unless absolutely necessary.
C) Keep tubing out of the client's reach.
D) Provide adequate sedation and pain control.
E) Use wrist restraints according to hospital policy.
Q3) A nurse is providing community education on home safety. An important safety measure to prevent carbon monoxide poisoning is to instruct clients to
A) have furnaces maintained professionally on a regular basis.
B) inspect all electrical plugs before using them.
C) install smoke detectors on each floor of the house.
D) store a fire extinguisher near or in the kitchen.
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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4062
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse conducting a physical examination is assessing a client's pupillary reactions. To do this correctly, the nurse would
A) ask the client to open the eyes and stare into the penlight.
B) ask the client to stare straight ahead and then turn on the penlight.
C) bring the penlight up from the client's chin to shine directly over the pupil.
D) bring the penlight in from the side to shine directly over the pupil.
Q2) The nurse assessing a client with declining visual acuity would use gentle questioning and tact because (Select all that apply)
A) a client might not give accurate answers if he/she thinks driving will be restricted.
B) lack of a family history might mean a client has no risk of vision disorders.
C) social stigma accompanying blindness may cause the client anxiety.
D) vision disorders affect dependence and independence.
E) vocational barriers may force the client to seek different employment.
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Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4063
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recently diagnosed a client as experiencing Visual Sensory/Perceptual Alterations related to increased intraocular pressure. The priority for the plan of care would be
A) encouraging compliance with drug therapy to prevent loss of vision.
B) managing the severe pain experienced until the optic nerve atrophies.
C) providing anticipatory guidance regarding the eventual loss of peripheral vision.
D) recognizing that damage to the eye caused by glaucoma can be reversed.
Q2) A nurse in an outpatient surgical setting is assessing a client scheduled for cataract removal. The nurse would expect to find that the client has (Select all that apply)
A) a shadow across the visual field.
B) better vision in low light.
C) blurred vision, photophobia, and glare.
D) nausea and vomiting, worse with eye movements.
E) sudden onset of acute eye pain.
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Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate action that the nurse working at a camp would take to remove an insect from a camper's ear is
A) gently irrigate the ear canal with sterile water.
B) instill a few drops of mineral oil into the ear.
C) instruct the camper to tilt the affected ear downward.
D) occlude the ear with a medicated cotton pledget.
Q2) An 82-year-old man tells the nurse he is having difficulty hearing and that he has "too much ear wax." Because of the client's age, the nurse would ask
A) "Did you ever experience impacted cerumen?"
B) "Do you swim in a pool with chlorinated water?"
C) "Have you had an upper respiratory infection?"
D) "Have you noted a change in the color of the ear wax?"
Q3) The nurse assessing a client with an inner ear disorder would be aware that the presenting clinical manifestation will be
A) conductive hearing disorder.
B) otorrhea.
C) sensorineural hearing loss.
D) severe headache.
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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which confidence shared by a female client would alter the decision to use magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) as a diagnostic modality?
A) "I was too embarrassed to tell my doctor that I've had my breasts enlarged."
B) "I didn't tell my doctor that I've had my stomach stapled."
C) "My doctor would think I'm silly to have had a 'tummy tuck,' so I didn't tell him."
D) "No one knows I wear dentures, not even my husband. My doctor doesn't either."
Q2) When testing comprehension in a client who is expressively aphasic, the nurse lays out a pencil, a key, and a ball and then would
A) ask the client to pick up the ball.
B) hold up the key and ask, "What do you do with this?"
C) point to the pencil and ask, "What is this?"
D) point to the ball and ask "What can this be used for?"
Q3) In assessing a client for Babinski's reflex, the nurse would
A) press thumbs under the ball of the client's foot.
B) scrape the sole with a blunt object from heel toward great toe.
C) tap the sole with a percussion hammer at mid-arch.
D) tickle the sole of the client's foot with a fingernail.
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Page 69
Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused
Clients
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse preparing to give mouth care to a comatose client should first place this client into the position of
A) high Fowler.
B) lateral.
C) low Fowler.
D) prone.
Q2) The nursing action that is important to prevent complications from nasogastric feeding in a comatose client receiving tube feedings is to A) check residual volume every 4 hours.
B) feed only small amounts every hour.
C) feed the client in the supine position.
D) stimulate the gag reflex every 8 hours.
Q3) The nurse will hyperoxygenate a comatose client before suctioning the airway to decrease the risk of A) dysrhythmias.
B) hypotension.
C) infection.
D) seizure.
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Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4067
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) should assess for
A) anorexia, numbness, and tingling of extremities.
B) ataxia, nausea, and bleeding tendency.
C) headache, myalgias, and arthralgias.
D) unsteady gait, slurred speech, and blurred vision.
Q2) A nurse is reviewing leisure time activities with a client who has epilepsy. An important self-care measure the nurse teaches the client is to avoid
A) alcoholic beverages.
B) driving a motor vehicle.
C) hiking and camping.
D) light sports.
Q3) The nurse explains to a newly diagnosed epileptic client that the basic pathophysiology of epilepsy is related to
A) a period of hypoxia from sleep apnea.
B) brain waves losing amplitude.
C) excitation of neurons discharging in the brain stem.
D) specific metabolic disturbances.
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Page 71
Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4068
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who has had a stroke appears to understand words that are spoken but cannot verbally respond. The nurse clarifies that this type of aphasia is
A) Broca's.
B) global.
C) receptive.
D) Wernicke's.
Q2) A client is admitted to the hospital with right-sided hemiplegia as a result of a stroke. To help prevent contractures, the nurse should employ which of the following interventions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Give the client a ball to hold to keep fingers in the flexed position.
B) Perform passive ROM to affected limbs at least twice a day after the first 24 hours.
C) Support a completely flaccid arm with pillows when in bed or in a chair.
D) Try placing the client in the prone position for 15-30 minutes at a time.
E) Use high-top tennis shoes or orthotics while in bed to prevent footdrop.
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Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous System Disorders
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Important discharge instructions for the client with a cervical disk problem being discharged with a cervical collar include
A) ambulate carefully to avoid falls.
B) perform active range-of-motion exercises four times daily.
C) release the Velcro strap every 2 hours while awake.
D) wash the collar with mild soap and water daily.
Q2) In performing a neurologic evaluation of a client who had lumbar surgery 36 hours ago, it is important that the nurse assess
A) ability to move shoulders.
B) leg movement.
C) level of consciousness.
D) reflex response.
Q3) A client has returned to the nursing unit after having a cervical fusion from the anterior approach. What piece of equipment does the nurse ensure is at the bedside?
A) A patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump
B) Emergency tracheostomy set
C) Humidified oxygen
D) Suction setup and rigid suction catheter
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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is suspected of having MG. The complaint made by the client that reflects a manifestation commonly seen in clients with this disease is
A) "By the end of the day, my eyelids usually are drooping."
B) "I have a great deal of difficulty getting up after I rest for a while."
C) "I perspire more then I ever have in the past."
D) "When I have a cold, I usually have a strong cough with it."
Q2) A client with MS is being taught self-care measures to prevent constipation. The nurse would realize goals for teaching had been met when the client states he/she will avoid
A) a high-fiber diet.
B) citrus fruits.
C) laxatives.
D) stool softeners.
Q3) A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD). Appropriate nursing care includes
A) administering broad-spectrum antibiotics until culture results are known.
B) giving the client anti-viral medications as ordered.
C) placing the client in contact and airborne isolation.
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D) using standard precautions when handling body fluids.
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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic
Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly client who was found unresponsive at home now opens his eyes when spoken to and answers simple questions when asked; and left alone usually sleeps. The nurse would document this information in the Glasgow Coma Scale using the categories of
A) best verbal response and best motor response.
B) eye opening and best verbal response.
C) eye opening and motor activity.
D) motor activity and motor response.
Q2) The client who is unconscious following a fall has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) increase the patient's intravenous (IV) fluids.
B) notify the physician immediately.
C) provide hyperventilation by adjusting ventilator settings.
D) retake the blood pressure in 15 minutes.
Q3) Urinary complications can be prevented if the nurse adjusts the care plan to include A) checking for post void residuals.
B) encouraging voiding every 2 hours.
C) monitoring the client's urinalysis.
D) placing an indwelling Foley catheter.
Page 75
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Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a hematocrit (Hct) of 30%. The nurse interprets this to mean
A) 30% of the blood will be plasma and plasma products.
B) bleeding disorders are possible.
C) the blood is viscous and concentrated.
D) the individual has fewer red blood cells than normal.
Q2) A client has severe anemia and is being treated with transfusion therapy. The nurse should be alert for a complication of transfusion, such as A) flank pain.
B) hearing loss.
C) liver damage.
D) sore throat.
Q3) Several employees report allergic manifestations. The occupational health nurse would focus an investigation on the workplace's
A) food service vendor.
B) heating and cooling systems.
C) lighting.
D) water supply.
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Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The manifestation that would require immediate investigation in a client with infectious mononucleosis is
A) abdominal pain.
B) joint discomfort.
C) leukocyte count of 12,000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
D) sore throat.
Q2) A client has a hemoglobin level of 8.2 g/dl. The nurse finds the client dyspneic with an O<sub>2</sub> saturation of 98%. The client has oxygen on at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Which intervention by the nurse would be best to meet this client's needs?
A) Call the physician and suggest a transfusion.
B) Find another oximeter and check another saturation.
C) Increase the O<sub>2</sub> to 6 liters per nasal cannula.
D) Prepare to intubate and mechanically ventilate the client.
Q3) The nurse can decrease the danger of transfusion reactions in a client by
A) adding sterile saline to the blood transfusion.
B) forcing fluids.
C) infusing the blood slowly during the first 15 minutes.
D) monitoring the urine output.
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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client with rhinitis would anticipate an order for a/an
A) antihistamine.
B) anticholinergic.
C) corticosteroid.
D) decongestant.
Q2) The nurse instructs the client who has a new prescription for cromolyn sodium (NasalCrom) that the most effective administration schedule is
A) at the start of allergy season, with once-a-day dosing.
B) just after manifestations begin, with twice daily dosing.
C) 1 week before allergy season begins, with four to six doses per day.
D) when manifestations peak only, with two or three doses per day.
Q3) In teaching self-care measures, the nurse would teach the client who has atopic dermatitis to avoid
A) applying a lubricant after bathing.
B) bathing in hot water.
C) keeping fingernails trimmed.
D) using gentle soaps.
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Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client newly diagnosed with RA is depressed after the nurse provides education on the disease process. Important interventions the nurse can offer include helping the client
A) choose a high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet to provide energy.
B) find medical supply companies that carry adaptive devices.
C) learn to participate actively in response to their illness.
D) understand the importance of taking medications on time.
Q2) A client has dermatomyositis. The nurse will include priority interventions in the care plan provisions to meet the problem of
A) difficulty ambulating.
B) difficulty swallowing.
C) disorientation.
D) phlebitis.
Q3) The caution the nurse should give the client who is taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as a remedy for arthritis is to
A) avoid taking NSAIDs with milk.
B) liberalize fluids while taking NSAIDs.
C) take NSAIDs with food.
D) watch for manifestations of skin damage.
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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is afraid of a recent possible HIV exposure. The nurse should explain that the period of time it takes before HIV antibodies can be detected by laboratory tests is generally
A) 1 to 3 days.
B) 7 to 10 days.
C) 1 to 3 weeks.
D) 4 to 12 weeks.
Q2) A client with AIDS has the nursing diagnosis Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements. The nurse should
A) encourage sweet foods and desserts that appeal to the taste.
B) encourage the client to dine alone to focus on food intake.
C) instruct the client to prepare meals, then divide and freeze them.
D) tell the client to eat large meals to result in greater intake.
Q3) When teaching a client who is HIV positive, the nurse should explain that the virus can be transmitted
A) as soon as manifestations of illness appear.
B) once the diagnosis has been made.
C) only to another susceptible host.
D) to anyone having contact with blood or semen.
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Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has been receiving MOPP (mechlorethamine, vincristine [Oncovin], procarbazine, prednisone) therapy for treatment of Hodgkin's disease. The treatment has changed to a protocol of ABVD (doxorubicin [Adriamycin], bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine). When the client asks the nurse for clarification about the change in protocol, the nurse's response will include that ABVD
A) can frequently produce a remission after only 1 cycle.
B) negates the need for radiation therapy.
C) prevents hypercalcemia.
D) reduces the risk of leukemia.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client who had a bone marrow transplant this morning should observe the client for manifestations of A) graft-versus-host disease. B) hemorrhage.
C) pulmonary complications.
D) Sjögren's syndrome.
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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring
Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the law prohibiting the buying and selling of organs is the A) National Transplant Act.
B) Organ Procurement and Transplant Network.
C) Uniform Anatomical Gift Act.
D) United Network of Organ Sharing.
Q2) A nurse working as part of a transplantation team is conducting a group education session. A client waiting for a heart transplant asks why he cannot stay in his rural home to wait. He knows someone who had a kidney transplant and stayed in the same local area waiting for his transplant. The best response by the nurse would be
A) "Because of confidentiality rules, I can't talk about your friend's experience."
B) "How long ago did that occur?"
C) "Different transplant centers have different requirements."
D) "Each organ's viability time is different. Kidneys can last longer than hearts."
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Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem
Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4079
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has been in a motor vehicle accident and sustained significant injuries. The client is in shock and is semi-conscious, but is restless and moaning. The family is concerned the client is in pain and demands the nurse administer ordered morphine. The priority action by the nurse is to
A) check the client's oxygen saturation.
B) give morphine as ordered, slowly.
C) politely decline their request.
D) reposition the client.
Q2) The nurse would assess the individual in the most serious stage of shock as a
A) 22-year-old man with a falling BP.
B) 35-year-old woman with a pulse pressure of 40.
C) 50-year-old woman with a MAP of 90.
D) 60-year-old man with a pulse rate of 100.
Q3) When a client is admitted to the emergency department with a gunshot wound to the abdomen and is experiencing severe blood loss, the nurse anticipates the initial use of
A) dextran.
B) normal saline.
C) packed red blood cells.
D) whole blood.
Page 83
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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4080
Sample Questions
Q1) A teenage girl brings her newborn baby wrapped in a bloody T-shirt into the ED and says she intends to leave the baby there. The nurse should
A) call the police.
B) initiate admission to the pediatric unit.
C) notify social services.
D) restrain the mother.
Q2) A client with a chest injury develops respiratory distress, distended jugular neck veins, and tracheal deviation. The nurse anticipates the client will receive immediate A) chest tube insertion.
B) chest x-ray.
C) intubation.
D) needle thoracotomy.
Q3) A young man is admitted to the ED after sustaining a gunshot wound and dies within a short time. To prepare the body before the family's viewing, the nurse should
A) remove all clothing in order to give it to the family.
B) remove all tubes and instruments used in treatment.
C) wash the body thoroughly.
D) wrap all clothing already removed and place it in a paper bag.
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