
Course Introduction

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Adult Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of adult patients experiencing a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. This course emphasizes evidence-based nursing interventions, critical thinking, clinical decision-making, and effective communication skills needed to manage adult patients in various healthcare settings. Students gain knowledge related to physiological, psychological, and sociocultural factors that influence health and illness in adulthood, and explore concepts of health promotion, disease prevention, and patient education. Through case studies and hands-on clinical experiences, learners develop the competencies needed to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate holistic nursing care for adults, while fostering professional values and interdisciplinary collaboration.
Recommended Textbook
Adult Health Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Christensen
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676 Verified Questions
676 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of tissue composed of cells that contract in response to a message from the brain or spinal cord is
A) epithelial.
B) connective.
C) membrane.
D) muscle.
Answer: D
Q2) The thoracic and abdominal cavities are separated by the A) pleura.
B) diaphragm.
C) spinal column.
D) peritoneum.
Answer: B
Q3) Passive transport in movement of material across cell membranes includes A) infiltration and diffusion.
B) pinocytosis and phagocytosis.
C) osmosis and filtration.
D) anaphase and telophase.
Answer: C
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Q1) Frequent assessment of a postoperative patient is essential. One of the first signs and symptoms of hemorrhage may be
A) increasing blood pressure.
B) decreasing pulse.
C) restlessness.
D) weakness, apathy.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient, age 65, underwent a right hemicolectomy. On postoperative day 4, her surgical wound dehisced. This means that
A) there is partial or complete wound separation.
B) there has been inadequate wound closure.
C) abdominal viscera protrude through the walls.
D) the wound will not heal well when it is resutured.
Answer: A
Q3) What is the responsibility of the nurse regarding informed consent?
A) Explain the surgical options.
B) Explain the operative risks.
C) Obtain the patient's signature.
D) Check form for appropriate signatures.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Major functions of the skin include: (Select all that apply.)
A) excretion of wastes.
B) protection.
C) vitamin D synthesis.
D) temperature regulation.
E) prevention of dehydration.
F) None of the above
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Q2) A patient, age 27, sustained thermal burns to 18% of her body surface area. After the first 72 hours, the nurse will have to observe for the most common cause of burn-related deaths, which is
A) shock.
B) respiratory arrest.
C) hemorrhage.
D) infection.
Answer: D
Q3) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
Answer: melanoma
Malignant melanoma is a cancerous neoplasm that invades the epidermis, dermis, and sometimes the subcutaneous tissue.
Page 5
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has sustained a fractured femur in a car accident. The physician has stated concern about the possibility of a fat embolism. The patient's wife asks the nurse about the cause of a fat embolism. The nurse's most appropriate response would be
A) "Arterial blood flow is interrupted at the site of injury."
B) "Floating fat sometimes causes problems."
C) "The break in the bone forces molecules of fat into the bloodstream."
D) "We don't know the cause. We just know that it sometimes happens."
Q2) A patient, age 24, has a compartment syndrome after a fracture of his radius and ulna. Nursing assessment will include careful observation for signs and symptoms of A) buccal petechiae.
B) thromboembolism.
C) Volkmann's contracture.
D) fat embolism.
Q3) __________ traction is utilized to provide support for the patient with a hip fracture.
Q4) A patient's patellar-femoral cartilage has deteriorated due to arthritis. The medial and lateral cartilage is undamaged. This patient is likely to undergo _________ knee replacement surgery.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gavage
A) Internal application of pressure by means of inflated balloon to prevent GI bleeding
B) Irrigation of stomach to remove secretions
C) Relieve abdominal distention
D) Instillation of liquid nutritional supplements into stomach
Q2) Sulfasalazine is the recommended medication for treatment of Crohn's disease. Patient teaching should include:
A) taking medication 2 hours before meals.
B) limiting fluid intake.
C) ensuring adequate hydration to prevent crystallization in kidneys.
D) increased effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
Q3) Colonoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
Q4) An ileostomy was performed on a patient for the treatment of debilitating ulcerative colitis disease. A problem the nurse should watch for in patients after this surgery is A) fluid imbalance.
B) sexual activity restriction.
C) skin excoriation.
D) the collecting appliance being bulky and large.
Page 7
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________ is a condition characterized by yellowing of the sclera and the skin.
Q2) The patient has cirrhosis of the liver and an albumin/globulin ratio of 0.9 g/dL. The normal ratio is 1.2 to 2.2 g/dL. In collecting objective data for her, the nurse would probably note which outstanding clinical sign?
A) Jaundice
B) Edema
C) Pruritus
D) Pallor
Q3) Viral hepatitis may be treated at home. Teach the patient's family: (Select all that apply.)
A) Clothes should be laundered separately with hot water.
B) Personal items and drinking glasses should not be shared.
C) Articles soiled with feces do not require extra care.
D) Hands need to be thoroughly washed after toileting.
E) Contaminated items may be disposed of with regular trash.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse implement as the most important measure in preventing transmission of harmful pathogens to patients with depressed bone marrow function?
A) Strict and frequent handwashing by all people having contact with the patient
B) Placement of patients in private rooms with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filtration
C) Administration of combinations of prophylactic antibiotics
D) Creation of a "sterile" environment for the patient with the use of laminar airflow rooms
Q2) The patient, age 35, is admitted with aplastic anemia. He asks the nurse what aplastic anemia is. An accurate response would be that
A) the activity of the bone marrow is depressed.
B) the bone marrow fails to produce lymphocytes.
C) the bone marrow fails to produce red blood cells.
D) red cells are absent as a result of chronic blood loss.
Q3) The typical medical treatment of polycythemia vera involves A) transfusion of packed cells.
B) therapeutic phlebotomy.
C) cryoprecipitate infusion.
D) appendectomy.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Edema and pulmonary congestion are treated with:
A) Unlimited activity, high protein diet, weights weekly
B) Bed rest, normal diet, weights four times daily
C) Increase in fluids, no activity restrictions
D) Diuretics, restriction of sodium diet and fluid intake
Q2) The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of Ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased arterial blood flow for a patient with chronic arterial insufficiency. In evaluating the patient outcomes after patient teaching, which statement by the patient does the nurse recognize as indicating a need for further instruction?
A) "For about 40 minutes each day, I will walk to the point of pain, then rest, than walk again until I develop pain."
B) "I will drink hot coffee several times a day to increase the circulation and warmth in my feet."
C) "I will wear loose clothing that doesn't bind across my legs or waist."
D) "I will change my position every hour and avoid long periods of sitting with my legs down."
Q3) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a ___________, which is secreted by the heart in response to an expanded left ______________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 83-year-old patient is admitted with a temperature of 102° F (38.8° C), chest pain, and fatigue. The chest radiograph reveals an accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which the physician removes by performing a thoracentesis. The nurse correctly records the purulent exudate as:
A) effusion.
B) emphysema.
C) sputum.
D) empyema.
Q2) A patient, age 69, has emphysema. On assessing him, the nurse notes the presence of a "barrel chest." This pathology results from a(n)
A) increase in the lateromedial area from hypertrophy of mucous glands in the bronchi.
B) increased anteroposterior diameter caused by overinflation of the alveoli.
C) decrease in anteroposterior diameter caused by chronic dilation of the bronchi.
D) widening of the sternocostal area secondary to chronic constriction of smooth muscles in the airways leading to bronchospasms.
Q3) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
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Q1) A patient has nephrotic syndrome. Which of these statements made by the patient indicates that she understands the dietary modifications?
A) "I will need to increase protein and decrease sodium intake."
B) "I will need to drink more milk to get my calcium."
C) "Carbohydrate restriction will be difficult."
D) "Potassium restriction won't be hard since I don't like fruit."
Q2) As the nurse and the dietitian review a patient's diet plan with her, she becomes very angry, shouting that with her diabetes and now the kidney failure, there is just nothing she can eat. She says she might as well eat what she wants, because these diseases will kill her anyway. Based on the patient's response, which nursing diagnosis does the nurse identify?
A) Noncompliance, risk for, related to feelings of anger
B) Risk for ineffective health maintenance, related to complexity of therapeutic regimen
C) Anticipatory grieving, related to actual and perceived losses
D) Ineffective coping, related to emotional liability
Q3) _________ training involves developing the muscles of the perineum to improve voluntary control over voiding; bladder training may be modified for different problems.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human insulin whose onset of action occurs within ____ minutes is Humalog (Lispro).
A) 30
B) 60
C) 15
D) 45
Q2) A patient with a history of Graves' disease is admitted to the unit with shortness of breath. The nurse notes the patient's vital signs: T 103° F, P 160, R 24, BP 160/80. The nurse also notes distended neck veins. The nurse suspects the patient has which medical emergency?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Thyroid storm
D) Cushing crisis
Q3) The nurse is administering long-acting insulin once a day that provides insulin coverage for 24 hours. This insulin is _________________.
Q4) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
Q5) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 41, has had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for endometriosis. She asks the nurse if she will have "hot flashes." The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that
A) only the uterus was removed, and the ovaries are still producing estrogen.
B) the patient is too young to have hot flashes associated with menopause.
C) the uterus, ovaries, and fallopian tubes were removed, and she will have surgically induced menopause.
D) the uterus and fallopian tubes were removed, and she will not experience "hot flashes."
Q2) A patient, age 26, has had a tubal insufflation (Rubin's test) to ascertain whether her fallopian tubes are patent. She complains of pain in her right shoulder. The nurse's most appropriate response would be
A) "Don't worry, that is a normal reaction."
B) "I'll report the findings immediately to the head nurse."
C) "That is a symptom that resulted from your position on the operating table."
D) "That is from the carbon dioxide passing from the fallopian tubes into your abdomen."
Q3) _____________ are benign tumors of the uterus.
Q4) ________ are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
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Q1) The patient, age 42, has chronic otitis media. Otoscopic examination reveals a central perforation of the eardrum with purulent drainage into the ear canal. A CT scan confirms the presence of a cholesteatoma in the middle ear, and he is scheduled for a tympanoplasty. Which postoperative activity does the nurse teach him about preoperatively?
A) Elevation of head of bed with operative side facing upward
B) Enforce bed rest for 72 hours
C) Frequent turning, coughing, and deep breathing
D) Continuous irrigation of the ear canal with antibiotic solutions
Q2) A 32-year-old construction worker has suffered a penetrating wound to his right eye. The best intervention for anyone to perform at the scene while waiting to be transported to the hospital is to
A) gently remove the object.
B) wipe away the blood and tears.
C) cover both eyes with a paper cup and tape.
D) do nothing; rush to the hospital.
Q3) _____________ is a medical term for blurred vision.
Q4) Schiötz tonometry is a diagnostic test for __________.
Q5) Decreasing visual acuity is a sign of _________ __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notices her left eyelid is drooping. The nurse's notes would document this as ___________ of the eyelid.
Q2) A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain which specimen?
A) Serum
B) Cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)
C) Urine
D) Arterial blood gases
Q3) Important nursing measures needed when feeding a hemiplegic patient include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Mixing liquids and solid foods together
B) Taking the patient's dentures out to prevent choking
C) Checking the affected side of mouth for food accumulation
D) Offering small bites of food
E) Elevating the patient to no more than 30 degrees
F) Adding a thickening agent to liquids
Q4) A ___________ is a diagnostic procedure used to identify lesions by observing the flow of radiopaque dye through the subarachnoid space and is similar to a lumbar puncture.
Q5) The avoidance of ___________ __________ decreases the risk for lung cancer.
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a bee sting, a patient's face becomes edematous and she begins to wheeze.
Based on this assessment, the nurse would be prepared to administer:
A) aminophylline.
B) diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
C) diazepam (Valium).
D) epinephrine.
Q2) If a nurse is sensitive to latex gloves, what potential food sensitivities might the nurse develop? (Select all that apply.)
A) Peanuts
B) Avocados
C) Milk
D) Bananas
E) Tomatoes
F) Potatoes
Q3) The delayed major process that leads to organ transplant rejection is
A) hypersensitivity.
B) cellular immunity.
C) autoimmune factors.
D) immunodeficiency.
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Q1) Interventions such as promotion of nutrition, exercise, and stress reduction should be undertaken by the nurse for patients who have HIV infection, primarily because these interventions will
A) promote a feeling of well-being in the patient.
B) improve immune function.
C) prevent transmission of the virus to others.
D) increase the patient's strength and ability to care for him- or herself.
Q2) The HIV patient asks the nurse about what to expect in terms of disease progression. The nurse tells this patient that although the disease can vary greatly among individuals, the usual pattern of progression includes
A) viremia, clinical latency, opportunistic diseases, and death.
B) asymptomatic phase, clinical latency, ARC, and AIDS.
C) acute retroviral syndrome, early infection, early symptomatic disease, and AIDS.
D) transitional viral syndrome, inactive disease, early symptomatic infection, and opportunistic diseases.
Q3) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with HIV virus.
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Q1) A patient, age 62, has been receiving external radiation and chemotherapy for oropharyngeal carcinoma. His oral mucosa is denuded and edematous. He has ulcerations over his bucca and tongue, and his saliva is thick and ropey. Which intervention does the nurse teach to this patient?
A) Use a soft diet until the acute reaction subsides.
B) Gargle and rinse his mouth several times a day with a commercial mouthwash.
C) Use cotton-tipped swabs dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean his teeth.
D) Avoid hot beverages.
Q2) The American Cancer Society recommends a clinical breast examination by a health care professional for women between the ages of 20 and 39 years every ________ years.
Q3) A patient is undergoing internal radiation therapy. In planning her care for the day, the nurse must remember to
A) stand at the greatest distance away from the site where an internal radiation device is in the patient's body.
B) spend as much time as possible with the patient because of the patient's fear.
C) retrieve the applicator and replace if it becomes dislodged.
D) provide the patient's family with chairs near the patient.
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