Adult Health Nursing
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of adult patients experiencing acute and chronic health conditions across a variety of healthcare settings. The course emphasizes the assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of nursing interventions designed to promote optimal health and well-being in adults. Students will explore clinical decision-making, patient safety, therapeutic communication, and the management of complex illnesses, while integrating evidence-based practice and interdisciplinary collaboration to address the unique physiological and psychosocial needs of adult populations.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 17th Edition by Clayton
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49 Chapters
915 Verified Questions
915 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information
Sources
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18857
Sample Questions
Q1) Meperidine (Demerol)is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency.Under which classification does this drug fall?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Answer: B
Q2) Which statement is true about over-the-counter (OTC)drugs?
A) They are not listed in the USP NF.
B) A prescription from a health care provider is needed.
C) They are sold without a prescription.
D) They are known only by their brand names.
Answer: C
Q3) Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
A) Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
B) Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
C) Controlled Substances Act (1970)
D) Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Principles of Drug Action and Drug
Interactions
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient developed hives and itching after receiving a drug for the first time.Which instruction by the nurse is accurate?
A) Stop the medication and encourage the patient to wear a medical alert bracelet that explains the allergy.
B) Explain to the patient that these are signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction.
C) Emphasize to the patient the importance to inform medical personnel that in the future a lower dosage of this drug is necessary.
D) Instruct the patient that it would be safe to take the drug again because this instance was a mild reaction.
Answer: A
Q2) What occurs when two drugs compete for the same receptor site,resulting in increased activity of the first drug?
A) Desired action
B) Synergistic effect
C) Carcinogenicity
D) Displacement
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the definition of cumulative effect of a drug?
A) Drug toxicity related to overmedication
B) Drug buildup related to decreased metabolism
C) The inability to control the ingestion of drugs
D) The need for higher dosage to produce the same effect as previous lower dosages
Answer: B
Q2) Which intervention would be considered to reduce accumulation of a drug in a patient who has decreased liver function?
A) Decreasing the time interval between dosages
B) Reducing the dosage
C) Administering the medication intravenously
D) Changing the drug to one that has a longer half-life
Answer: B
Q3) Which drugs cause birth defects?
A) Teratogens
B) Carcinogens
C) Metabolites
D) Placebos
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is experiencing adverse effects of a medication.Which information obtained by the nurse is subjective?
A) Cough
B) Edema
C) Nausea
D) Tachycardia
Q2) Prior to the administration of a nephrotoxic drug,the nurse determines that the kidney lab data are within normal range.Which step of the nursing process is being used?
A) Assessment
B) Nursing diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Evaluation
Q3) What is the priority nursing diagnosis for an older adult with diabetes who is hospitalized for pneumonia?
A) Deficient knowledge related to lack of information about diabetic medication
B) Risk for falls related to weakness
C) Impaired gas exchange related to decreased pulmonary ventilation
D) Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements related to obesity
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Patient Education to Promote Health
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a Spanish-speaking patient uses the assistance of an interpreter to help with preoperative teaching.While implementing the education,the nurse should
A) look directly at the patient.
B) never use pantomime gestures.
C) ask lengthy questions to provide clarity.
D) ask a family member to assist with interpretation.
Q2) The nurse and patient are participating in cooperative goal setting regarding drug therapy.The nurse is aware that it is imperative to encourage the patient to perform which task(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Contact the hospital for advice regarding discontinuation of medication.
B) Keep records of essential data needed to evaluate prescribed therapy.
C) See the health care provider regularly.
D) Avoid community-based agencies for assistance.
E) Monitor parameters used to evaluate therapy.
Q3) Which represents the psychomotor domain of learning?
A) The patient draws up insulin in a syringe.
B) The patient expresses a belief about medication use.
C) The patient is able to verbalize foods that should be avoided.
D) The patient relates past experience with smoking cessation.
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Chapter 6: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement(s)is/are true regarding computerized prescriber order entry (CPOE)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Integrates the ordering system with the pharmacy, laboratory, and nurses' stations
B) Provides instant access to online information to facilitate patient care needs
C) Facilitates review of ordered medications for potential drug interactions
D) Facilitates review of drugs for appropriateness of dosages
E) Alleviates the need to perform mathematical computations
Q2) The nurse determines that a prescribed medication has not been administered as ordered on the previous shift.What action will the nurse take?
A) Administer the medication immediately.
B) Complete an incident report.
C) Notify the nurse responsible for the error.
D) Record the occurrence in the nurse's notes.
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8
Chapter 7: Percutaneous Administration
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where will the nurse administer a medication that was ordered to be given sublingually?
A) Between the molar teeth and cheek
B) Below the skin surface
C) Under the tongue
D) Into the conjunctival sac
Q2) Which order(s)would be examples of percutaneous medication administration?(Select all that apply.)
A) Timolol 0.5% 1 drop to each eye daily
B) Albuterol nebulizer 2.5 mg qid
C) Heparin 5000 units IV
D) Lasix 20 mg PO every AM
E) Silvadene 1% topically to affected area
Q3) Which medications must be sterile?
A) Topical
B) Vaginal
C) Ophthalmic
D) Nasal
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9
Chapter 8: Enteral Administration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of lubricant would the nurse use to administer a rectal suppository?
A) Petroleum jelly
B) Mineral oil
C) Water soluble
D) Anesthetic
Q2) In which position would the nurse place a patient before the administration of an enteral feeding?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler's
C) Left lateral
D) Prone
Q3) Which data will the nurse document when administering a PRN oral pain medication to a patient?(Select all that apply.)
A) Date, time, drug name, dosage, and route of administration
B) Essential patient education about the drug completed
C) Administration receptacle used
D) Signs and symptoms of adverse drug effects
E) Evaluation of therapeutic effectiveness
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10
Chapter 9: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of Parenteral
Medications
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After teaching a diabetic patient about proper disposal of used syringes and needles,which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Even needles with sleeves should be disposed of appropriately."
B) "It is unusual that anyone could get a needle injury or disease from used needles."
C) "It is important for me to use the designated container to dispose of my syringes and needles."
D) "I am going to purchase the 'Sharps by Mail Disposal System' once I am home."
Q2) What is an advantage of administering a drug parenterally?
A) The duration of action is longer.
B) Medications given by this route are inexpensive.
C) The onset of action is more rapid.
D) The dose is usually larger than an oral dose.
Q3) Which part of the syringe contains the calibrations for drug volume measurement?
A) Plunger
B) Tip
C) Luer Lok
D) Barrel
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Intradermal,
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer kindergarten immunizations at the local health clinic.Which anatomic site would be best for the injection of the immunizations containing 0.5 mL?
A) Rectus femoris
B) Dorsogluteal
C) Deltoid
D) Ventrogluteal
Q2) Which nursing action is accurate when administering an IM injection using the Z track method?
A) Use a 1-inch needle.
B) Add 0.5 mL of air to the syringe.
C) Vigorously massage the injection site.
D) Pinch up the skin.
Q3) Which is the preferred IM site for injecting a 6-month-old child?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Abdominal
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Deltoid muscle
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Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with cancer and requires 6 months of chemotherapy infusions.Which type of intravenous (IV)access device will likely be used?
A) Peripheral venous access device
B) Midline catheter
C) Winged needle venous access device
D) Implantable venous infusion port
Q2) Following the insertion of a central venous access device,the nurse notes a weak,thready pulse and decreased blood pressure.The patient complains of shortness of breath and palpitations.Which action will the nurse take first?
A) Place the patient on the left side.
B) Reassess vital signs.
C) Stop the infusion.
D) Verify placement of the device.
Q3) Which condition would the nurse expect to be treated with an isotonic solution?
A) Fluid overload
B) Hemorrhagic shock
C) Cellular dehydration
D) Cerebral edema
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13
Chapter 12: Drugs That Affect the Autonomic Nervous System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder(s)would indicate the use of anticholinergic agents?(Select all that apply.)
A) Glaucoma
B) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
C) Bradycardia
D) Parkinson's disease
E) Preparation for surgery
F) Stimulation of the vagus nerve
Q2) Which instruction(s)given by the nurse will assist a patient to cope with the common adverse effects of anticholinergic medications?(Select all that apply.)
A) "Take the medication with meals."
B) "Increase fluids daily."
C) "Decrease fiber in the diet."
D) "Suck on candy or ice chips."
E) "Monitor blood glucose."
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14
Chapter 13: Drugs Used for Sleep
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient prior to discharge from same day surgery following an incisional breast biopsy.When assessing the patient's central nervous system (CNS)function following sedative-hypnotic therapy,what will the nurse include?(Select all that apply.)
A) Level of alertness
B) Orientation
C) Ability to perform motor functions
D) Blood pressure
E) Usual pattern of sleep
Q2) The nurse is caring for an older patient recently admitted to an assisted living center who is experiencing insomnia associated with the recent relocation.At bedtime,which nursing action will assist the patient to sleep?
A) Offering the patient hot tea
B) Encouraging the patient to ambulate in the hallway
C) Performing back massage
D) Administering an analgesic
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15
Chapter 14: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parkinson's disease has which characteristic symptom(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Muscle tremors
B) Posture alterations
C) Muscle flaccidity
D) Tachycardia
E) Slow body movement
Q2) What is the pharmacologic action of entacapone,a potent catechol O methyl transferase (COMT)inhibitor?
A) Slows the deterioration of dopaminergic nerve cells
B) Inhibits the relative excess of dopaminergic activity
C) Reduces the destruction of dopamine in peripheral tissues
D) Enhances the cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease
Q3) Which cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease are reduced with anticholinergic drugs?
A) Cognitive impairments
B) Rigidity
C) Tremors and drooling
D) Postural abnormalities
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16
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse transcribes an order for lorazepam for a patient experiencing nausea and vomiting as a result of alcohol withdrawal.The most appropriate route of administration for lorazepam with this patient would be
A) by mouth.
B) rectally.
C) intramuscularly.
D) subcutaneously.
Q2) A female patient is admitted to the adult psychiatric floor with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder.Anxiolytic medications and group therapy have been prescribed.Evaluation of therapeutic outcomes related to her acute stay can be measured by which assessment(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) She is able to sleep 5 hours during the night.
B) The tremor and pacing she exhibited on admission are reduced.
C) She is able to attend and actively participate in group sessions.
D) She is eating only 10% of her meals.
E) She complains of chest pain before group therapy.
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Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Depressive and Bipolar Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lithium (Eskalith)is the drug of choice for which of the following disorders?(Select all that apply.)
A) Psychotic episodes
B) Obsessive compulsive disorders (OCDs)
C) Bipolar disorders
D) Depressive disorders
Q2) Which postoperative narcotic analgesic will most likely be prescribed to a patient whose current medications include a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI),a thyroid hormone,and a multivitamin?
A) Meperidine (Demerol)
B) Morphine
C) Ibuprofen (Advil)
D) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Q3) A patient taking vilazodone has been vomiting persistently for 12 hours.The priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is
A) nausea.
B) imbalanced nutrition (less than body requirements).
C) fluid volume deficit.
D) altered peripheral tissue perfusion.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of nonadherence to antipsychotic pharmacologic treatment?
A) Expense
B) Increased symptoms of chemical dependency
C) Extrapyramidal effects
D) Inability of the patient to understand the need to take medications
Q2) Which adverse effect(s)may occur as a result of antipsychotic drug therapy?(Select all that apply.)
A) Acute dystonia
B) Akathisia
C) Weight loss
D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
E) Hypoglycemia
F) Tardive dyskinesia
Q3) Dystonic reactions,pseudoparkinsonism,akathisia,and tardive dyskinesia are types of which effect?
A) Extrapyramidal symptoms
B) Allergic reactions
C) Idiosyncratic reactions
D) Therapeutic responses
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Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a guideline for the nurse when administering phenytoin (Dilantin)intravenously?
A) Deliver rapidly.
B) Monitor for signs of tachycardia.
C) Assess for hypertensive crisis.
D) Administer without mixing with other medications.
Q2) The pediatric nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with refractory seizures.The physician orders a ketogenic diet.When the child receives his food tray,the nurse should remove any food containing high levels of
A) fat.
B) salt.
C) carbohydrates.
D) vitamin K.
Q3) Which premedication assessment by the nurse is most important prior to the initiation of carbamazepine (Tegretol)therapy?
A) Determine patient's ancestry.
B) Monitor blood pressure (BP) lying, sitting, and standing.
C) Auscultate lung sounds.
D) Obtain smoking history.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition(s)may be managed by salicylates?(Select all that apply.)
A) Migraine headache
B) Swollen joints
C) Fever
D) Muscle aches
E) Myocardial infarction
Q2) How long after the administration of a parenteral pain medication will the nurse complete the next pain assessment to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
A) 10 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 2 hours
Q3) In which case would the nurse be correct in withholding an opiate agonist?
A) Evidence of postural hypotension
B) Presence of constipation
C) Pain rating of 7 on a 0 to 10 scale
D) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
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21
Chapter 20: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weight: 140 pounds.Height: 5 feet 4 inches.What is the BMI?
Q2) What lifestyle choice(s)may aggravate metabolic syndrome?(Select all that apply.)
A) Excessive tobacco smoking
B) Inadequate hydration
C) Excessive exercise
D) Inadequate caloric intake
E) Excessive consumption of alcohol
Q3) A patient with a body mass index (BMI)of 25 would be considered to be in which weight category?
A) Underweight
B) Normal weight
C) Overweight
D) Obese
Q4) Weight: 70 kilograms.Height: 164 cm (1.65 m).What is the BMI?
Q5) What is the most critical approach to the treatment of metabolic syndrome?
A) Psychotherapy
B) Pharmacotherapy
C) Lifestyle management
D) Patient education
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Chapter 21: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18877
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the desired effect of any antilipemic therapy?
A) Reduced LDLs and total cholesterol levels
B) Reduced HDLs and total cholesterol levels
C) Reduced LDLs and HDLs
D) Reduced HDLs and dietary cholesterol levels
Q2) The nurse is providing education to a patient who has recently been prescribed niacin.Which information given by the nurse is accurate?
A) "Weigh yourself weekly because of the risk of fluid retention."
B) "Nausea can be decreased if you take this medication with food."
C) "Because your blood pressure may increase while taking this drug, have it checked monthly."
D) "You should not take aspirin while on this medication."
Q3) Why are statins,or HMG CoA reductase inhibitors,administered at bedtime?
A) The stomach is empty.
B) Metabolic needs of the body are decreased.
C) Cholesterol production is at its peak.
D) The body temperature is increased.
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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication is often administered with hydralazine to reduce reflex physiologic responses to the drug?
A) Beta blockers
B) Renin inhibitor
C) ACE inhibitor
D) Angiotensin II receptor blocker
Q2) The nurse is explaining to a patient how ACE inhibitors affect blood pressure.Which statement accurately describes the action of these medications?
A) They increase aldosterone secretion.
B) They inhibit vasoconstriction.
C) They lower heart rate.
D) They promote sodium retention.
Q3) A patient asks the nurse how amlodipine (Norvasc)works to reduce the blood pressure.Which response will the nurse provide?
A) "It causes blood vessel dilation."
B) "It helps you get rid of fluid."
C) "It helps your heart beat stronger."
D) "It slows your heart rate."
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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is started on phenytoin (Dilantin),who is also taking amiodarone (Cordarone),should be assessed for what possible effect?
A) Central nervous system depression and sedation
B) Decrease in effectiveness of phenytoin
C) Respiratory depression
D) Increase in serum phenytoin levels
Q2) How many milligrams of lidocaine will the nurse administer via intravenous (IV)bolus to a 30-year-old patient with ventricular tachycardia who weighs 75 kg after a myocardial infarction?
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
Q3) The patient recently prescribed quinidine is at highest risk for which common adverse effect?
A) Chills
B) Diarrhea
C) Nausea
D) Rash
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which therapy(ies)is/are used in the treatment of angina pectoris?(Select all that apply.)
A) ECG
B) Coronary artery bypass
C) Coronary angioplasty
D) Avoidance of caffeine and emotional stress
E) Use of nitrates
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about nitroglycerin prior to discharge to home.Which instruction will the nurse provide the patient?
A) "Report any headaches following self-administration to your health care provider."
B) "Carry the medication in a pocket directly next to the body."
C) "Carry the medication with you at all times."
D) "Store nitroglycerin in a clear glass container with a tight lid."
Q3) What is the rationale behind administering calcium channel blockers to patients with angina?
A) They decrease heart rate.
B) They dilate blood vessels.
C) They increase cardiac contractility.
D) They promote fluid excretion.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has a good understanding of PVD?
A) "Symptoms are warning signs of the increased potential to develop diseases."
B) "Pharmacologic treatments can reverse the disease process."
C) "Surgical interventions will cure the disease."
D) "Controlling contributing factors may affect the progression of the disease."
Q2) The nurse is preparing to provide personal care to a patient with peripheral vascular disease.When providing foot care,the nurse will
A) assist the patient to a supine position.
B) keep feet moistened with lotion.
C) trim toenails daily.
D) change socks daily.
Q3) The nurse has admitted a resident with the diagnosis of PVD to a long-term care facility.When providing care to this patient,the nurse will(Select all that apply.)
A) initiate elevation of lower extremities.
B) implement pain management as ordered.
C) assess skin temperature.
D) vigorously dry feet after washing.
E) palpate pedal pulses.
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Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)is ordered on a patient following knee replacement surgery.When providing education on this medication to the patient,the nurse conveys that treatment will continue
A) only while hospitalized.
B) for 35 days postsurgically.
C) for 12 days postsurgically.
D) as long as creatinine clearance is less than 30.
Q2) What is the rationale for administering fibrinolytic agents,such as streptokinase,within hours of the onset of myocardial infarction?
A) Enhances myocardial oxygenation
B) Lyses the blood clot
C) Promotes platelet aggregation
D) Inhibits clotting mechanisms
Q3) Which is an accurate nursing action when administering subcutaneous enoxaparin,a low-molecular-weight heparin product?
A) Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe.
B) Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds after injection.
C) Administer the medication into the deltoid muscle.
D) Massage the site after injection to increase absorption.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug will be administered to a patient being admitted with severe digoxin intoxication?
A) Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
C) Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)
D) Digitalis glycoside
Q2) Which statement(s)about vasodilators is/are true?(Select all that apply.)
A) They reduce systemic vascular resistance.
B) They increase afterload.
C) They reduce preload.
D) They decrease pulmonary congestion.
E) They increase tissue perfusion to muscles and organs.
F) They increase the volume of blood returning to the heart.
Q3) Which contributing factor(s)to heart failure is/are modifiable?(Select all that apply.)
A) Hypertension
B) Addiction to smoking
C) Genetic history
D) Exercise tolerance
E) Age
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29
Chapter 28: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18884
Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication,if administered with spironolactone (Aldactone),will alert the nurse to assess the patient for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia?
A) Propranolol (Inderal)
B) Captopril (Capoten)
C) Furosemide (Lasix)
D) Ibuprofen (Motrin)
Q2) Which sign(s)and/or symptom(s)of dehydration may occur as a result of a diuretic?(Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased urine specific gravity
B) Skin remains peaked on turgor assessment
C) Bounding peripheral pulses
D) Neck vein engorgement
E) Soft, sunken eyeballs
Q3) When teaching a patient who is taking thiazide diuretics,the nurse will encourage the patient to increase the intake of which electrolyte?
A) Calcium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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18 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a serious adverse effect of decongestants?
A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Orbital edema
D) Facial flushing
Q2) Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching a patient with seasonal rhinitis and blocked nasal passages about intranasal corticosteroid therapy?
A) "Clear your nasal passage after administration."
B) "Anticipate a therapeutic benefit within 24 hours."
C) "Use a decongestant prior to administration."
D) "Report nasal burning to your health care provider."
Q3) Which principle(s)will the nurse include in a teaching plan for antihistamine therapy?(Select all that apply.)
A) It is typical to experience an increase in energy.
B) Dietary fiber and fluids should be increased.
C) Do not take with prescription medications unless approved by a physician.
D) Blurred vision is an expected adverse effect.
E) Over-the-counter (OTC) medications are safe to use with any currently prescribed prescription medications.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A resident in a long-term care facility diagnosed with COPD has a new medication order for indacaterol.When the nurse is providing education to the resident regarding this medication,information will include that
A) it is a short-acting beta antagonist.
B) the patient should wait approximately 5 minutes between inhalations.
C) onset of action is within 5 minutes.
D) duration of action is about 12 hours.
Q2) A child has been diagnosed with asthma and the nurse is providing education to the family.Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will place the stuffed animals in the freezer overnight."
B) "We will confine our dog to the kitchen area."
C) "I should wash bedding in hot water."
D) "A damp cloth should be used when I dust."
Q3) From where do the fluids of the respiratory tract originate?
A) Specialized mucous glands called goblet cells
B) Lymph fluid drawn across nasal membranes by osmosis
C) Specialized beta cells in the islets of Langerhans
D) Cells that produce aqueous humor
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32
Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to discomfort,which are adverse effects of xerostomia?(Select all that apply.)
A) Reduced taste and appetite
B) Excessive salivation
C) Difficulty chewing and swallowing food
D) Increase in dental caries
E) Difficulty with speech
F) Improved taste and enjoyment of food
Q2) What is the primary pharmacologic therapy for Candida albicans?
A) Steroids
B) Antifungal agents
C) Topical anesthetics
D) Topical anti-inflammatory agents
Q3) A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)uses a corticosteroid inhaler bid.Which adverse effect is associated with this medication?
A) Mucositis
B) Plaque
C) Xerostomia
D) Candidiasis
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing dietary and lifestyle changes with a patient diagnosed with GERD.When reviewing necessary modifications,the nurse will include information regarding
A) limiting coffee intake to 2 cups/day.
B) smoking cessation.
C) avoiding NSAIDs.
D) decreasing protein foods.
E) using nonfat milk.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that a patient has sucralfate ordered qid.When is the best time to administer this medication?
A) 1 hour before meals
B) With meals
C) 1 hour after meals
D) With a bedtime snack
Q3) Which is a common adverse effect of magnesium-based antacid preparations?
A) Heartburn
B) Rebound indigestion
C) Constipation
D) Diarrhea
34
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Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient expresses concerns about motion sickness.Which medication is most effective in preventing motion sickness?
A) Serotonin antagonists
B) Phenothiazines
C) Corticosteroids
D) Anticholinergics
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient with nausea and vomiting.Which additional autonomic symptoms that often accompany vomiting will the nurse observe?
A) Bradycardia, diarrhea, and flushing
B) Pallor, sweating, and tachycardia
C) Urinary urgency, chills, and dizziness
D) Fever, hyperventilation, and bradycardia
Q3) The nurse would expect to administer which drug when treating hyperemesis gravidarum?
A) THC (Marinol)
B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
C) Dexamethasone (Prednisone)
D) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
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Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom is the patient with a lactase deficiency most likely to exhibit?
A) Constipation
B) Excessive salivation
C) Diarrhea
D) Vomiting
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient with constipation.Which situation(s)would cause constipation?(Select all that apply.)
A) Diet low in fiber and/or residue
B) Excessive fluid intake
C) Diet low in cheese and yogurt
D) Iron supplements
E) Use of morphine
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving palliative care with opioid-induced constipation.Laxative therapy has been unsuccessful in treating this patient.Which PRN medication should the nurse provide to best alleviate this type of constipation?
A) Methylnaltrexone
B) Bisacodyl
C) Mineral oil
D) Docusate
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Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruction by the nurse is accurate to include when providing teaching to a patient recently diagnosed with diabetes who has been prescribed insulin?
A) Beta blockers can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia.
B) Lipodystrophy increases the absorption of insulin.
C) Infection will decrease the need for insulin.
D) Excessive exercise will increase the need for insulin.
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient with diabetes mellitus regarding urine testing for ketones.Information provided will include that ketone testing should be done(Select all that apply.)
A) when illness occurs.
B) during pregnancy.
C) before and after physical exercise.
D) when blood glucose is above usual range.
E) every morning upon awakening.
Q3) When is the best time for the nurse to administer Lispro?
A) After the patient has started eating
B) Within 10 to 15 minutes of eating
C) 30 minutes before a meal
D) 45 to 60 minutes before a meal
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of heart failure has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism.The drug interaction with glycosides and thyroid replacement therapy will most likely require which change in therapy?
A) Decrease in the daily digoxin dosage
B) Gradual increase in the daily glycoside dosage
C) Inability to begin thyroid replacement therapy because of the underlying heart condition
D) Increased thyroid replacement dosage
Q2) A patient recently completed radiation treatment for throat cancer and presents to the health care provider's office with symptoms indicating possible hypothyroidism.Which symptom(s)would most likely be exhibited and/or reported?(Select all that apply.)
A) Inability to sleep
B) Weight gain
C) Lethargy
D) Nervousness
E) Cold intolerance
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Chapter 37: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which will the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient asking about the use of salt substitutes while on a sodium-restricted diet?
A) Salt substitutes may be high in potassium and should be used sparingly.
B) Salt substitutes are safe for unlimited use.
C) The salty flavor is reduced, so additional amounts are needed for desired flavor.
D) Salt substitutes may interact with the patient's medications.
Q2) What are functions of glucocorticoids?(Select all that apply.)
A) Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
B) Have anti-inflammatory activities
C) Regulate protein, carbohydrate, and fat metabolism
D) Provide relief of rheumatoid arthritis
E) Include aldosterone
Q3) Which condition would require mineralocorticoid replacement?
A) Addison's disease
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Myxedema
D) Glomerulonephritis
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Chapter 38: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true regarding androgen therapy?
A) Androgen use may cause hyperglycemia.
B) Androgens should be administered with food or milk to avoid gastric irritation.
C) Signs of masculinization will appear and are reversible.
D) Electrolyte imbalances are extremely rare.
Q2) When teaching a patient about estrogen therapy,which drug(s)will the nurse identify as causing drug interactions?(Select all that apply.)
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Warfarin (Coumadin)
C) Thyroid hormones
D) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
E) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Q3) The nurse is teaching a young woman about birth control pills.For which situation will the patient need to seek immediate follow-up with the health care provider?
A) Breakthrough bleeding
B) Nausea
C) Missed dose
D) Light menstrual flow
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Chapter 39: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is 32 weeks pregnant and has been examined by the health care provider on June 1.She is scheduling her next appointment.The most appropriate day for the nurse to schedule the appointment is
A) June 9.
B) June 16.
C) June 30.
D) July 7.
Q2) A patient is a gravida 1,Rh-negative woman at a 28 weeks' gestation.The father of her child is Rh positive.The mother is asking the nurse about the effect on her unborn child of RhoGAM that has been ordered.What is the nurse's best reply?
A) "Your child will do well after birth once transfusions are administered."
B) "If the baby is Rh negative at birth, he or she will need RhoGAM also."
C) "RhoGAM kills antibodies you make, so your child will be protected."
D) "Your baby may be Rh positive and cause you to make antibodies. These won't affect this baby but could affect future children if RhoGAM isn't given."
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Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will teach the patient beginning therapy with alfuzosin,an alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agent,to expect which common (and usually self-limiting)adverse effect(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Nausea
B) Insomnia
C) Dizziness
D) Headache
E) Lethargy
F) Anorexia
Q2) The health care provider has instructed a patient to use over-the-counter miconazole (Monistat)cream to treat her vaginal yeast infection.What information is important to include in patient education?(Select all that apply.)
A) Wash the genital area thoroughly before inserting the vaginal cream.
B) Wash the applicator before usage.
C) Wear a minipad to catch remaining discharge following vaginal administration.
D) Wash hands before and after administration.
E) The sexual partner may require treatment as well.
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Chapter 41: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking an antimicrobial agent prescribed to treat a UTI for 2 days.She contacts the health care provider's office to report persistence of symptoms.In evaluating the medication effectiveness,which assessment(s)would be important?(Select all that apply.)
A) Complete emptying of the bladder
B) Amount of pain with urination as well as frequency
C) Amount of daily fluid intake and output
D) GI symptom complaints
E) Bleeding with urination
F) Persistence of nocturia
Q2) How often is fosfomycin (Monurol)usually administered when used in the treatment of UTIs?
A) In a one-time dose
B) Once per day
C) Once per week
D) Monthly
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43
Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism of action of osmotic agents when used to decrease IOP?
A) Promoting outflow of the aqueous humor into the tear ducts
B) Increasing plasma osmolarity and drawing extracellular fluid into the blood
C) Blocking production of aqueous humor
D) Decreasing viscosity of the tears and allowing fluid to drain away from the eye
Q2) A factory worker had a chemical inadvertently splashed into his right eye.An eyewash was used at the work site.Which nursing assessment(s)would be important to include?(Select all that apply.)
A) Visual acuity
B) Presence of pain, blurred or halo vision, or lack of vision
C) Type of chemical
D) Presence of nystagmus
E) Presence of contacts or use of eyeglasses
Q3) Which medication is used to produce miosis following a diagnostic procedure?
A) Pilocarpine (Pilocar)
B) Mannitol (Osmitrol)
C) Atropine (Isopto Atropine)
D) Epinephrine (EpiPen)
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Cancer
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When educating the patient on chemotherapy regarding skin care,the nurse will include(Select all that apply.)
A) vigorously drying the skin with a bath towel.
B) avoiding sunlight.
C) using mild soap.
D) avoiding moisturizer.
E) bathing in lukewarm water.
Q2) Which assessment by the nurse would be a sign of neurotoxicity related to chemotherapy?
A) Paresthesia
B) Euphoria
C) Nausea
D) Hallucinations
Q3) Major chemotherapeutic agents include(Select all that apply.)
A) alkylating agents.
B) antineoplastic antibiotics.
C) hormones.
D) antimetabolites.
E) antinuclear antibodies.
F) chelating agents.
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used to Treat the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are neuromuscular-blocking agents used?(Select all that apply.)
A) Alleviation of pain
B) Reducing the use and adverse effects of general anesthetics
C) Easing endotracheal intubation and prevent laryngospasm
D) Producing amnesia during painful procedures
E) Decreasing muscular activity in electroshock therapy
Q2) When assessing a patient for signs and symptoms of early respiratory depression immediately after leaving the postoperative area,the nurse will be alert for signs of what?(Select all that apply.)
A) Restlessness
B) Anxiety
C) Lethargy
D) Increased mental alertness
E) Cyanosis
Q3) Which medication will be prescribed for a patient complaining of muscle spasms resulting from a back injury?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Morphine sulfate
C) Bethanechol (Urecholine)
D) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Antimicrobial Agents
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17 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18901
Sample Questions
Q1) What adverse effect may manifest as dizziness,tinnitus,and progressive hearing loss?
A) Ear infection
B) Drug allergy
C) Ototoxicity
D) Idiosyncratic reaction
Q2) The health care provider has prescribed penicillin and probenecid for a patient with a sexually transmitted disease.What is the purpose of combining these medications?
A) To accelerate the excretion of the penicillin
B) To inhibit the absorption of penicillin to allow the drug to remain in the transport phase
C) To inhibit the excretion of the penicillin
D) To reduce toxic effects associated with penicillin
Q3) Which patient can safely be treated with a fluoroquinolone medication?
A) A 40 year old on steroid therapy
B) A 15 year old with a sore throat
C) A 70 year old with a gait abnormality
D) A 30 year old with a fractured tibia
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Chapter 46: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly admitted patient asks the nurse why the physician has ordered the DASH diet for him.The nurse informs the patient that this diet is ordered to encourage healthy eating specifically for the diagnosis of A) diabetes.
B) hypertension.
C) arthritis.
D) seizure disorder.
Q2) Which meal contains the best sources of dietary fiber?
A) Eggs, bacon, orange juice
B) Salad, whole wheat toast, sliced peach
C) Roast beef, mashed potatoes with gravy, corn, milk
D) Grilled hamburger on a bun, fresh carrot sticks, potato chips
Q3) Which is a macronutrient that is a separate factor necessary for complete nutrition and wellness?
A) A phytochemical
B) A trace mineral
C) Fiber
D) A vitamin
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Chapter 47: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A high school male athlete reports that he is taking creatine supplements to enhance his athletic performance and bulk up his muscles.Which important teaching point(s)and/or recommendation(s)should be made for this supplement?(Select all that apply.)
A) Adverse effects may include muscle cramping, dehydration, GI bloating, and diarrhea.
B) Inform the health care provider of usage, should future nephrotoxic medicines be prescribed.
C) It is important to limit fluid.
D) Creatine causes a weight gain of 3 to 6 lb because of water retention.
E) Recommended dosage is 5 to 6 g four times daily for 5 to 7 days, followed by doses of 2 g/day.
Q2) Which herb is used to stimulate the innate immune system?
A) Aloe
B) Echinacea
C) Chamomile
D) Ginger
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49
Chapter 48: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which protects individuals who have been successfully rehabilitated from substance abuse from discrimination related to past addiction?
A) Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
B) National Council on Alcoholism and Drug Dependence
C) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF)
D) American Medical Association (AMA)
Q2) What will the nurse instruct patients who are on daily disulfiram (Antabuse)to avoid?
A) All forms of cough syrup
B) Alcohol
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Aspirin products
Q3) Which patient assessment will the nurse expect to observe when a patient has ingested alcohol while on disulfiram (Antabuse)?
A) Unconsciousness
B) Hypertension
C) GI bleeding
D) Severe vomiting
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Miscellaneous Agents
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Q1) Which condition(s) and/or circumstance(s) warrant caution when colchicine is used for a patient with gout?(Select all that apply.)
A) Older adult
B) Compromised immunity
C) Psychosis
D) Renal failure
E) Cardiac compromise
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with gout who has elevated uric acid levels.Which medication will likely be administered?
A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B) Disulfiram (Antabuse)
C) Lactulose (Cephulac)
D) Memantine (Namenda)
Q3) Which nursing action is accurate when administering colchicine?
A) Administer the medication subcutaneously.
B) Maintain fluid intake of at least eight 8-ounce glasses daily.
C) Increase fiber in the diet to prevent constipation.
D) Inform the patient that pain will be alleviated in 2 weeks.
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