Adult Health Nursing Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing focuses on the care of adult patients experiencing various acute and chronic health conditions. The course covers comprehensive assessment, evidence-based interventions, and management strategies to promote optimal health outcomes among adults. Students learn about common medical-surgical disorders, pharmacological and non-pharmacological therapies, and holistic approaches tailored to diverse populations. Emphasis is placed on clinical reasoning, patient safety, interdisciplinary collaboration, health promotion, and the development of effective communication skills within the context of adult healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Huether
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42 Chapters
1238 Verified Questions
1238 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11274
Sample Questions
Q1) During which process are bacteria engulfed for ingestion?
A) Endocytosis
B) Pinocytosis
C) Phagocytosis
D) Exocytosis
Answer: C
Q2) A nurse teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor includes information that platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)stimulates the production of:
A) platelets.
B) epidermal cells.
C) connective tissue cells.
D) fibroblast cells.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors?
A) Oxygen
B) Ribosomes
C) Amphipathic lipids
D) Ligands
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the diagnosis of a 13-year-old female who has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present? Her features include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and a reduced carrying angle at the elbow.
A) Down syndrome
B) Cri du chat syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome
Answer: C
Q2) A patient, age 9, is admitted to a pediatric unit with Duchenne muscular dystrophy.When planning care the nurse recalls the patient inherited this condition through a trait that is:
A) X-linked dominant.
B) X-influenced.
C) X-limited.
D) X-linked recessive.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Epigenetics and Disease
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has provided support for the theory that epigenetic modifications can result from deficient in utero nutrition causing which chronic disease? (select all that apply)
A) Obesity
B) Asthma
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Diabetes
E) Crohn's disease
Answer: A, C, D
Q2) Mutations in the encoding of histone-modifying proteins have been shown to influence the development of what congenial condition?
A) Cleft palate
B) Acephalous
C) Heart disease
D) Webbed digits
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old male sustained a closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident.CT scan revealed a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain.Which type of injury will the nurse be caring for?
A) Subdural hematoma
B) Epidural hematoma
C) Contusion
D) Abrasion
Q2) While reading a textbook, a student reads the term apoptosis.The student recalls that apoptosis is a condition in which cells program themselves to:
A) atrophy.
B) die.
C) regenerate.
D) age.
Q3) The early dilation (swelling)of the cell's endoplasmic reticulum results in:
A) increased aerobic metabolism.
B) failure of DNA.
C) reduced protein synthesis.
D) increased Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup> pump function.
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Chapter 5: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions would cause the nurse to monitor for hyperkalemia?
A) Excess aldosterone
B) Acute acidosis
C) Insulin usage
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Q2) Which patient should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis? A patient diagnosed with:
A) diabetes insipidus.
B) pulmonary disorders.
C) Cushing syndrome.
D) renal failure.
Q3) A 35-year-old male weighs 70 kg.Approximately how much of this weight is considered the total volume of body water?
A) 5 L
B) 10 L
C) 28 L
D) 42 L
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After teaching the staff about the clotting system, which statement indicates the teaching was successful? The end product of the clotting system is:
A) plasmin.
B) fibrin.
C) collagen.
D) factor X.
Q2) An 8-year-old female presents with edema of the cutaneous and mucosal tissue layers.Her mother reports that the condition is recurrent and seems to occur more often during stressful situations.The child is diagnosed with hereditary angioedema.Which of the following is deficient in this child?
A) C1 esterase inhibitor
B) Carboxypeptidase
C) Neutrophils
D) Plasmin
Q3) The macrophage secretion that stimulates procollagen synthesis and secretion is:
A) angiogenesis factor.
B) matrix metalloproteinase.
C) vascular endothelial growth factor.
D) transforming growth factor-beta.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An immunology nurse is caring for a patient.While planning care, which principle will the nurse remember? The primary role of IgA1 is to prevent infections in the:
A) blood.
B) kidneys.
C) lungs.
D) mucous membranes.
Q2) A macrophage was isolated and analyzed for major histocompatibility complex.Which of the following would be expected?
A) MHC I only
B) MHC II only
C) MHC I and II
D) Neither MHC I nor MHC II
Q3) A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard.He experiences a severe allergic reaction and has to go to the ER.The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of:
A) toxoids.
B) IgA.
C) IgE.
D) IgM.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old female experiences decreased blood pressure, decreased oxygen delivery, cardiovascular shock, and subsequent death.A complication of endotoxic shock is suspected.Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A) Gram-positive bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Gram-negative bacteria
D) Virus
Q2) The nurse would correctly respond that the etiology of a congenital immune deficiency is due to a(n):
A) negative response to an immunization.
B) adverse response to a medication.
C) renal failure.
D) genetic defect.
Q3) After studying about fungi, which information indicates a correct understanding of fungi? Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:
A) are easily treated with penicillin.
B) are extremely rare.
C) never occur with other infections.
D) are commonly opportunistic.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Stress and Disease
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing the effects of elevated ?-endorphins in a patient, which of the following should the nurse monitor?
A) Peripheral vasoconstriction
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Pain inhibition
D) Decreased immune cell activity
Q2) Stress-induced catecholamine release from the adrenal medulla may result in:
A) decreased blood flow to the brain.
B) elevated blood pressure.
C) decreased glycogen synthesis.
D) decreased muscle contraction.
Q3) A student arrives at school to find that he/she has an exam for which he/she is unprepared.Which physiological response would be expected?
A) Decreased lipolysis
B) Bronchoconstriction
C) Decreased cortisol release
D) Increased glucagon release
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Chapter 10: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old male develops a tumor of the breast glandular tissue.What type of tumor will be documented on the chart?
A) Carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Sarcoma
D) Lymphoma
Q2) What is the effect of telomere caps on cancer cells?
A) Repeated divisions
B) Clonal distinction
C) Limited mitosis
D) Mutation abilities
Q3) A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus.After 2 months, the virus is still active.Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?
A) B-cell lymphoma
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) T-cell leukemia
D) T-cell lipoma
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Chapter 11: Cancer Epidemiology
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks why indoor pollution is worse than outdoor pollution.How should the nurse respond? Indoor pollution is considered worse than outdoor pollution because of cigarette smoke and:
A) fireplace wood smoke.
B) radon.
C) benzene.
D) chlorine.
Q2) Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for basal cell carcinoma?
A) Dark complexion, light eyes, underweight
B) Light complexion, dark eyes, overweight
C) Medium complexion, light eyes, smoker
D) Light complexion, light eyes, fair hair
Q3) When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should the oncologist discuss?
A) Increasing hypersensitivity
B) Facilitating new mutations
C) Promoting cell death
D) Enhancing mitosis
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Chapter 12: Cancer in Children
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a parent that young children diagnosed with Down syndrome are at higher risk for developing:
A) nephroblastoma.
B) rhabdomyosarcoma.
C) leukemia.
D) retinoblastoma.
Q2) When an aide asks why carcinomas rarely occur in childhood, how should the nurse respond? (select all that apply)
A) Carcinomas cannot develop in an immunosuppressed environment.
B) Carcinomas need a long time from exposure to occurrence.
C) Carcinomas are due to environmental exposures.
D) Carcinomas occur primarily in secondary sexual organs.
E) Carcinomas are mesodermal.
Q3) A nurse is preparing to teach the most common malignancy in children.Which malignancy should the nurse discuss?
A) Leukemia
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Wilms tumor
D) Retinoblastoma
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a neuroglial cell? (select all that apply)
A) Astrocyte
B) Oligodendrocyte
C) Neuron
D) Ependymal cell
E) Melanocyte
Q2) Which structure ensures collateral blood flow from blood vessels supplying the brain?
A) Carotid arteries
B) Basal artery
C) Circle of Willis
D) Vertebral arteries
Q3) A 19-year-old college student reports to his primary care provider that he cannot stay awake in class regardless of how much sleep he gets.Under-stimulation of which area of the brain is likely the site of the problem?
A) Corpora quadrigemina
B) Reticular activating system
C) Cerebellum
D) Hypothalamus
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Chapter 14: Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks the nurse how often REM sleep occurs.The nurse responds, "About every _____ minutes."
A) 15
B) 30
C) 60
D) 90
Q2) A patient scrapes both knees while playing soccer and reports sharp and well-localized pain.Which of the following should the nurse document to most accurately characterize the pain?
A) Chronic pain
B) Referred pain
C) Somatic pain
D) Visceral pain
Q3) Exogenous pyrogens are:
A) interleukins.
B) endotoxins.
C) prostaglandins.
D) corticotropin-releasing factors.
Q4) Fever of unknown origin (FUO)is characterized by a fever of ____° F or greater.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is diagnosed with noncommunicating hydrocephalus.What is an immediate priority concern for this patient?
A) Metabolic edema
B) Interstitial edema
C) Vasogenic edema
D) Ischemic edema
Q2) The patient is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure.This increase results in:
A) brain tissue hypoxia.
B) intracranial hypotension.
C) ventricular swelling.
D) expansion of the cranial vault.
Q3) A 20-year-old experiences a severe closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident.Which of the following structures is most likely keeping the patient in a vegetative state (VS)1 month after the accident?
A) Cerebral cortex
B) Brainstem
C) Spinal cord
D) Cerebellum
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Chapter 16: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with acute low back pain.There is no history of trauma.An MRI reveals that the vertebra at L5 has slipped forward relative to those below it.Which of the following conditions will be documented on the chart?
A) Degenerative disk disease
B) Spondylolysis
C) Spondylolisthesis
D) Spinal stenosis
Q2) A 72-year-old patient demonstrates left-sided weakness of upper and lower extremities.The symptoms lasted less than an hour and resolved with no evidence of infarction.The patient most likely experienced a(n):
A) stroke in evolution.
B) arteriovenous malformation.
C) transient ischemic attack.
D) cerebral hemorrhage.
Q3) Most causes of encephalitis are which of the following?
A) Bacterial
B) Viral
C) Fungal
D) Toxoid
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should the nurse assess for the vomiting and headache that are the classic symptoms of childhood brain tumors?
A) Morning
B) Early afternoon
C) As the sun goes down and darkness begins
D) During the middle of the night
Q2) A 3-year-old has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis.What should the nurse expect to find on the lab report for the most common cause of this bacterial meningitis?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) Streptococcus pneumonia
D) Escherichia coli
Q3) Which of the following diseases does the nurse screen for in all newborns?
A) Epilepsy
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Pica
D) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Q4) The percent of retinoblastomas that are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait is ____%.
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Chapter 18: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the main site of aldosterone synthesis?
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Adrenal cortex
D) Hypothalamus
Q2) Which organ contains prolactin-inhibiting factor's target tissue?
A) Hypothalamus
B) Anterior pituitary
C) Mammary glands
D) Posterior pituitary
Q3) If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which substance would the nurse monitor?
A) Melatonin
B) Epinephrine
C) Cortisol
D) Somatostatin
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with Addison disease reports weakness and is easily fatigued.What is the root of these symptoms?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hypocortisolism
D) Metabolic acidosis
Q2) What is the earliest manifestation of diabetes-induced kidney dysfunction?
A) Polyuria
B) Glycosuria
C) Microalbuminuria
D) Decreased glomerular filtration
Q3) What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
A) Pituitary hyposecretion
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Parathyroid gland injury
D) Hypothalamic inactivity
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21
Chapter 20: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult patient's blood sample is analyzed in a laboratory.Assuming a normal sample, which type of white blood cell accounts for the highest percentage?
A) Neutrophil
B) Eosinophil
C) Basophil
D) Lymphocyte
Q2) When a staff member asks how erythrocytes can carry oxygen, the nurse should describe which of the following properties that allow erythrocytes to function as gas carriers? (select all that apply)
A) Biconcavity
B) Reversible deformability
C) Undergoes mitotic division
D) Presence of many mitochondria
E) Presence of a nucleus
Q3) The predominant phagocyte of early inflammation is the:
A) eosinophil.
B) lymphocyte.
C) macrophage.
D) neutrophil.
22
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hematologic Function
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 21-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia.Her hematocrit is 32%.Which of the following treatments would the nurse expect to be prescribed for her?
A) Iron replacement
B) Splenectomy
C) A bone marrow transplant
D) No treatment is necessary
Q2) The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
A) United States
B) Japan
C) Denmark
D) Netherlands
Q3) A 62-year-old reports experiencing regular night sweats and unintentionally losing weight.Physical exam reveals enlarged neck lymph nodes that do not appear to be painful.These findings support a diagnosis of which type of cancer?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) Hodgkin lymphoma
C) Acute leukemia
D) Burkitt lymphoma
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 16-month-old female presents with tachycardia, pallor, anorexia, and systolic murmur.The nurse is checking the lab results, and the hemoglobin determination indicates a level below _____ grams per deciliter.
A) 5
B) 7
C) 10
D) 14
Q2) What is the most serious complication of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
A) Respiratory infection
B) Asymmetric bruising
C) Intracranial bleeding
D) Immunosuppression
Q3) Which major symptom indicates to the nurse that patient diagnosed with sickle cell anemia is experiencing a vasoocclusive crisis?
A) Peripheral edema
B) Pain
C) Petechiae
D) An enlarged spleen
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24
Chapter 23: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structures act as anchors for the atrioventricular valves?
A) Chordae tendineae
B) Great vessels
C) Coronary ostia
D) Trabeculae carneae
Q2) One difference between cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle is that:
A) cardiac muscle cells are arranged in branching networks.
B) skeletal muscle cells have only one nucleus.
C) cardiac muscle cells appear striped.
D) skeletal muscle cells contain sarcomeres.
Q3) What represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarization?
A) PR interval
B) QRS complex
C) QT interval
D) P wave
Q4) Muscle contractions occur when there is a decreased:
A) distance between Z lines.
B) A band length.
C) Z line length.
D) H zone distance.
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Chapter 24: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old female presents to her primary care provider with fever, cardiac murmur, and petechial skin lesions and is diagnosed with infective endocarditis.The most likely cause of the disease is:
A) bacteria.
B) viruses.
C) fungi.
D) parasites.
Q2) A 60-year-old female has survived a myocardial infarction.The nurse is providing care for impaired ventricular function because:
A) there is a temporary alteration in electrolyte balance.
B) there is too much stress on the heart.
C) the cells become hypertrophic.
D) the resulting ischemia leads to hypoxic injury and myocardial cell death.
Q3) A 35-year-old presents with pulmonary hypertension and is diagnosed as being in right heart failure.Which is the most likely cause of this condition?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Tricuspid regurgitation
C) Aortic regurgitation
D) Mitral regurgitation
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old pregnant woman is concerned about the health of her unborn child.She has phenylketonuria (PKU)and recently had a viral infection.If the child is born with a congenital heart defect, which of the following is the most likely based on the mother's history? (select all that apply)
A) Coarctation of the aorta
B) Pulmonic stenosis
C) Ventricular septal defect
D) Patent ductus arteriosus
E) Tetralogy of Fallot
Q2) An infant undergoes an echocardiogram for a suspected heart defect.Tests reveal an opening in the middle of the atrial septum.What term would the nurse use to describe this defect?
A) Ostium primum
B) Ostium secundum
C) Sinus venosus
D) Eisenmenger syndrome
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Chapter 26: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What physiology is present at the base of the lungs?
A) Arterial perfusion pressure is less than that of alveolar gas pressure.
B) Arterial perfusion pressure and alveolar gas pressure are less than they are at the apex.
C) Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure.
D) Arterial perfusion and alveolar gas pressure are equal.
Q2) While reviewing the results of the pulmonary functions test, the nurse is aware that the maximum amount of gas that can be displaced (expired)from the lung is called:
A) vital capacity (VC).
B) total lung capacity.
C) functional capacity.
D) residual volume.
Q3) What nerve provides the lungs with parasympathetic innervation?
A) Vagus
B) Phrenic
C) Brachial
D) Pectoral
Q4) ____% of oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)enters the bloodstream bound to hemoglobin.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What phrase describes the condition in which a series of alveoli in the left lower lobe receive adequate ventilation but lack adequate perfusion?
A) A right-to-left shunt
B) Alveolar dead space
C) A low ventilation-perfusion ratio
D) Pulmonary hypotension
Q2) Which is a characteristic of idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH)? (select all that apply)
A) Male gender
B) Fatigue
C) Dyspnea
D) Jugular vein distention
E) Weight gain
Q3) Which assessment findings will the nurse observe in a patient diagnosed with severe pulmonary edema?
A) Thick mucous secretions
B) Pink, frothy sputum
C) Hypocapnia
D) Wheezing
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-year-old female is diagnosed with croup.Which of the following symptoms is most likely to be present when the nurse performs an assessment? (select all that apply)
A) Barking cough
B) Stridor
C) Hoarseness
D) Drooling
E) Truncal rash
Q2) Cystic fibrosis (CF)is an _____ disease.
A) autosomal recessive
B) autosomal dominant
C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
Q3) Asthma affects ____% of children between birth and 17 years of age.
Q4) A 9-year-old contracted influenza.Which of the following complications is of greatest concern to the nurse?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Bronchiolitis obliterans
C) Emphysema
D) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
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Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The renin-angiotensin system will be activated by:
A) increased blood volume.
B) elevated sodium concentrations.
C) decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles.
D) renal hypertension.
Q2) Which type of nephron determines the concentration of the urine?
A) Juxtamedullary
B) Midcortical
C) Cortical
D) Medullary
Q3) When the nurse discusses the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule together, it is referred to as the renal:
A) corpuscle.
B) capsule.
C) medulla.
D) pyramid.
Q4) A nurse would chart that a patient is experiencing oliguria when a 24-hour urine output is less than ________ milliliters per day.
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Q5) A nurse recalls the superficial cortical nephrons account for ____% of all nephrons.
Chapter 30: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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23 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11303
Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and anemia and is diagnosed with chronic renal failure.What is the cause of this patient's anemia?
A) Red blood cells being lost in the urine
B) Inadequate production of erythropoietin
C) Inadequate iron absorption in the gut
D) Red blood cells being injured as they pass through the glomerulus
Q2) A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, and hematuria.These signs and symptoms support which diagnosis?
A) Acute cystitis
B) Renal calculi
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Postrenal renal failure
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing a urinary obstruction.Which symptoms would be most likely experienced?
A) Anuria
B) Hematuria
C) Pyuria
D) Flank pain
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11304
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis.History reveals that he had an infection 3 weeks before the onset of this condition.The infection was most likely located in the:
A) bone.
B) gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
C) respiratory tract.
D) ear.
Q2) A 6-year-old male diagnosed with vesicoureteral reflux is experiencing urine reflux from the urinary bladder into a grossly dilated ureter and calyces.This condition would be graded:
A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q3) Which of the following clusters of symptoms would support a child's diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?
A) Pyuria, fever, and abdominal pain
B) Proteinuria, hypotension, and ascites
C) Dysuria, urinary frequency, and abdominal tenderness
D) Gross hematuria, edema, and hypertension
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11305
Sample Questions
Q1) The female erectile organ that secretes smegma is called the:
A) introitus.
B) Bartholin glands.
C) clitoris.
D) labia minora.
Q2) Menstruation is followed by the _____ phase of the menstrual cycle.
A) follicular
B) luteal
C) secretory
D) ischemic
Q3) Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle then develops into:
A) an atretic follicle.
B) a theca cell.
C) a corpus luteum.
D) scar tissue.
Q4) A 25-year-old female has a menstrual cycle of 28 days' duration and asks the nurse what day of the cycle will ovulation occur.The nurse responds that ovulation will most likely occur on day _____.
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Chapter 33: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following signs is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer?
A) Dimpling
B) Nipple discharge
C) Chest pain
D) A painless lump
Q2) A 35-year-old nonpregnant female presents with breast discharge and is diagnosed with galactorrhea.The condition is most likely caused by:
A) infection.
B) prolactin imbalance.
C) tissue injury.
D) cancer.
Q3) During a routine pelvic exam, a 34-year-old female is found to have an ovarian cyst containing skin, hair, cartilage, and bone.This cyst is classified as a _____ cyst.
A) follicular
B) dermoid
C) corpus luteal
D) micro
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Chapter 34: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is an inflammation of the glans penis.
A) Phimosis
B) Balanitis
C) Priapism
D) Hydrocele
Q2) An important risk factor in the development of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)among Americans is:
A) recurrent prostatitis.
B) a diet high in fat.
C) cigarette smoking.
D) increased age.
Q3) The risk of testicular cancer is greater for which group? (select all that apply)
A) With a history of cryptorchidism
B) With a history of phimosis
C) Who are of white ethnicity
D) Who are of black descent
E) Between 15 and 35 years of age.
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36
Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The blood supply of the large intestine is derived from which vessel(s)?
A) Celiac
B) Superior and inferior mesenteric
C) Hepatic and portal
D) Omental
Q2) When parasympathetic nervous system activity is inhibited what is the expected effect on salivary glands?
A) Hyperactive function
B) Hypoactive function
C) Atrophy
D) Enlargement
Q3) Mucus production to form the mucosal barrier in the stomach is stimulated by the release of:
A) somatostatin.
B) gastrin.
C) prostaglandins.
D) histamine.
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Digestive Function
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:
A) hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
B) fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
C) impaired ammonia metabolism.
D) decreased cerebral blood flow.
Q2) A 56-year-old is diagnosed with gastric ulcers.Which of the following characterizes this disorder? (select all that apply)
A) Pain occurs immediately after eating
B) Anorexia
C) History of NSAID use
D) Occurrence is typically a single event
E) Occur more frequently in females
Q3) A 20-year-old recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea.This diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.
A) osmotic
B) secretory
C) hypotonic
D) motility
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11310
Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of "currant jelly" stool.Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve.Which term is used to describe this type of obstruction?
A) Prolapse
B) Pyloric stenosis
C) Intussusception
D) Imperforation
Q2) A 2-month-old is diagnosed with Hirschsprung disease with the resulting development of a megacolon.What is the most likely cause of this condition?
A) Absence of intrinsic ganglion cells resulting in impaired peristalsis
B) The use of cow's milk instead of formula
C) Excessive use of glycerin suppositories to promote bowel elimination
D) Additional ganglion cells throughout the length of the colon
Q3) What is the most common symptom of Meckel diverticulum observed in children?
A) Constipation
B) Vomiting
C) Rectal bleeding
D) Ascites
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse observed the patient's muscle contracted, but the limb did not move.How should the nurse chart this muscle contraction?
A) Isotonic contraction
B) Isometric contraction
C) Eccentric contraction
D) Concentric contraction
Q2) The nursing student has a good understanding of glycoproteins when he states which of the following glycoproteins are present in the bone? (select all that apply)
A) Osteocalcin
B) Sialoprotein
C) Bone albumin
D) Alpha-glycoprotein
E) Collagen
Q3) What is the major difference between compact and spongy bone?
A) Organization of the structural elements
B) Location within the body
C) Activating chemicals in each
D) Types of minerals in the bone matrix
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11312
Sample Questions
Q1) The cause of Paget disease is:
A) fluoride deficiency.
B) unknown at present.
C) excess vitamin A.
D) osteogenic sarcoma.
Q2) A 21-year-old is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis (AS).The most likely joint to be affected would be the:
A) sacroiliac.
B) carpal.
C) shoulder.
D) knee.
Q3) A 35-year-old suffers a broken clavicle following a motor vehicle accident.X-ray reveals that the bone surfaces in the joint partially lost contact with each other.This condition is called:
A) dislocation.
B) subluxation.
C) distortion.
D) nonunion.
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polyarthritis is a type of juvenile arthritis in which more than _____ joints are affected.
Q2) While performing an assessment of a 2-month-old, the nurse notes a positive Ortolani click.The nurse would suspect the child has:
A) a hip fracture.
B) hip dysplasia.
C) osteogenesis imperfecta.
D) osteomyelitis.
Q3) A major predictor of poor prognosis for Ewing sarcoma is:
A) age of onset.
B) size of tumor.
C) presence of metastasis.
D) gender of child.
Q4) A 13-year-old presents with pain at night, cough, and dyspnea and is diagnosed with a metastasizing malignant bone tumor.The most likely type of tumor is:
A) nonossifying fibroma.
B) chondrosarcoma.
C) Ewing sarcoma.
D) osteosarcoma.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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33 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 52-year-old female diagnosed with systemic scleroderma is at risk for which complication?
A) Cutaneous vasculitis
B) Raynaud phenomenon
C) Cellulitis
D) Infection
Q2) A patient wants to know which malignant skin lesion is the most serious.The correct response is:
A) basal cell carcinoma.
B) squamous cell carcinoma.
C) Kaposi sarcoma (KS).
D) malignant melanoma.
Q3) A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second- and third-degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion.Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia.Lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
A) sickle cell syndrome.
B) fluid movement out of the vascular space.
C) renal failure.
D) increased vascular protein secondary to increased metabolism.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molluscum contagiosum affects the skin and:
A) nails.
B) tongue.
C) conjunctiva.
D) hair follicles.
Q2) A 3-year-old develops tinea capitis after playing with the family dog.This infection is caused by a:
A) fungus.
B) bacterium.
C) virus.
D) parasite.
Q3) A 5-year-old is diagnosed with tinea corporis following development of lesions on the nonhairy parts of the face, trunk, and limbs.What is a common source of this condition?
A) Kitten
B) Pet bird
C) Hamster
D) Horse
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