Adult Health Nursing Exam Review
Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of adult patients experiencing acute and chronic health conditions. This course emphasizes the development of clinical reasoning and critical thinking skills necessary for assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating evidence-based nursing care. Students explore a range of health alterations affecting major body systems, and learn strategies for promoting health, preventing illness, and managing diverse patient needs in a variety of healthcare settings. Through theoretical instruction and clinical practice, students are prepared to deliver safe, patient-centered care, collaborate with interdisciplinary teams, and advocate for adults across the continuum of care.
Recommended Textbook
Seidels Guide to Physical Examination 9th Edition by Jane W. Ball
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26 Chapters
648 Verified Questions
648 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The History and Interviewing Process
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To what extent should the patient with a physical disability or emotional disorder be involved in providing health history information to the health professional?
A) The patient should be present during information collection but should not be addressed directly.
B) All information should be collected from past records and family members while the patient is in another room.
C) The patient should be involved only when you sense that he or she may feel ignored.
D) The patient should be fully involved to the limit of his or her ability.
Answer: D
Q2) After you ask a patient about her family history, she says, "Tell me about your family now." Which response is generally most appropriate?
A) Ignore the patient's comment and continue with the interview.
B) Give a brief, undetailed answer.
C) Ask the patient why she needs to know.
D) Tell the patient that you do not discuss your family with patients.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Cultural Competency
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The motivation of the healthcare professional to "want to" engage in the process of becoming culturally competent, not "have to," is called:
A) cultural knowledge.
B) cultural awareness
C) cultural desire
D) cultural skill.
Answer: C
Q2) A 22-year-old female nurse is interviewing an 86-year-old male patient. The patient avoids eye contact and answers questions only by saying, "Yeah," "No," or "I guess so."
Which of the following is appropriate for the interviewer to say or ask?
A) "We will be able to communicate better if you look at me."
B) "It's hard for me to gather useful information because your answers are so short."
C) "Are you uncomfortable talking with me?"
D) "Does your religion make it hard for you to answer my questions?"
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Examination Techniques and Equipment
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Expected normal percussion tones include:
A) dullness over the lungs.
B) hyperresonance over the lungs.
C) tympany over an empty stomach.
D) flatness over an empty stomach.
Answer: C
Q2) You are caring for a nonambulatory 80-year-old male patient and he tells you, a female nurse, that he feels like he is having drainage from his rectum. Which initial nursing action is appropriate?
A) Drape the patient and observe the rectal area.
B) Tell the patient that his doctor will be notified of his problem.
C) Tell the patient that you will ask the male nurse on the next shift to check on the problem.
D) Give the patient an ice pack to apply to the area.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Clinical Reasoning
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adage that "common problems occur commonly" advises the practitioner to:
A) always diagnose the patient's problem in terms of what their practice usually sees.
B) refer any uncommon complaints to specialists as soon as possible.
C) not consider more than one diagnosis unless necessary.
D) examine uncommon problems critically before assuming that the issue is an unusual presentation of a common problem.
Q2) A specific test is one that has the ability to:
A) correctly identify those who have the disease.
B) correctly identify those who do not have the disease.
C) be exclusively used to make a diagnosis.
D) exclude competing explanations for another test finding.
Q3) The most important guide to sequencing actions should be:
A) probability and utility.
B) assumption and intuition.
C) costs and risks of procedures.
D) reimbursement potential and patient acceptance.
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6
Chapter 5: Documentation
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical examination. This visit would be documented by creating a(n):
A) progress note.
B) accident report.
C) problem-oriented medical record.
D) triage note.
Q2) The patient's perceived disabilities and functional limitations are recorded in the: A) problem list.
B) general patient information.
C) social history.
D) history of present illness.
Q3) Drawing of stick figures is most useful to:
A) compare findings in extremities.
B) demonstrate radiation of pain.
C) indicate consistency of lymph nodes.
D) indicate mobility of masses.
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Chapter 6: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Underestimation of blood pressure will occur if the cuff's width covers:
A) less than half of the upper arm.
B) less than 5 inches of the lower arm.
C) more than two-thirds of the upper arm.
D) more than 4 inches of the lower arm.
Q2) Which occurs with malignant hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blurred vision
B) Sleep disturbance
C) Tachycardia
D) Dyspnea
E) Encephalopathy
Q3) The fifth vital sign is:
A) pain.
B) orientation.
C) waist-to-hip ratio.
D) body mass index (BMI).
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8
Chapter 7: Mental Status
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which observation would be most significant when assessing the condition of a patient who has judgment impairment?
A) Repeated failure to fulfill family obligations
B) Forgetting family members' birth dates
C) Going to church three times a week
D) Planning for retirement in 20 years
Q2) A clinical syndrome of failing memory and impairment of other intellectual functions, usually related to obvious structural diseases of the brain, describes:
A) delirium.
B) dementia.
C) depression.
D) anxiety.
Q3) Under most conditions, adult patients should be able to repeat forward a series of _____________ numbers.
Q4) The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is _________ old.
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Chapter 8: Growth, Measurement, and Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the youngest age at which pubic hair growth in the male may be considered normal?
A) 7 years
B) 8 years
C) 9 years
D) 10 years
Q2) Mrs. Raymonds is a 24-year-old patient who has presented for a routine concern over her current weight. In your patient teaching with her, you explain the importance of macronutrients. Which of the following is a macronutrient?
A) Iron
B) Thiamin
C) Calcium
D) Fat
Q3) The term large for gestational age (LGA) indicates that an infant is larger than ____% of infants born at the same number of weeks' gestation.
Q4) An 11-year-old boy is brought in for an annual physical examination by his mother. The boy's height is 60 inches. You suspect Marfan syndrome because the boy's arm span is greater than _______________ inches.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Skin, Hair, and Nails
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49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Dennie-Morgan fold is probably caused by:
A) birth trauma.
B) high fever.
C) excess adipose tissue.
D) chronic rubbing.
Q2) Pigmented, raised, warty lesions over the face and trunk should be assessed by an experienced practitioner who can distinguish:
A) cutaneous tags from lentigines.
B) furuncles from folliculitis.
C) sebaceous hyperplasia from eczema.
D) seborrheic keratoses from actinic keratoses.
Q3) You are inspecting the lower extremities of a patient and have noted pale, shiny skin of the lower extremities. This may reflect:
A) systemic disease.
B) a history of vigorous exercise.
C) peptic ulcer disease.
D) mental retardation.
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Chapter 10: Lymphatic System
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A red streak that follows the course of the lymphatic collecting duct is a finding associated with:
A) Hodgkin disease.
B) lymphangitis.
C) lymphedema.
D) lymphoma.
Q2) Mrs. Sing is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the office with a complaint of enlarged lymph nodes. When enlarged, which lymph nodes are most likely to be a sign of pathology (e.g., malignancy)?
A) Occipital
B) Anterior cervical
C) Supraclavicular
D) Femoral
Q3) Which nodes are most often associated with inflammation?
A) Shotty
B) Movable
C) Fixed
D) Tender
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Chapter 11: Head and Neck
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs. Britton brings her 16-year-old son in with a complaint that he is not developing correctly into adolescence. Which structures disproportionately enlarge in the male during adolescence?
A) Coronal sutures
B) Hyoid and cricoid cartilages
C) Mandible and maxilla bones
D) Nose and thyroid cartilages
Q2) You are palpating a patient's thyroid and find that its broadest dimension measures 4 cm. The right lobe is 25% larger than the left. These data would indicate:
A) a congenital anomaly.
B) a multinodular goiter.
C) a normal thyroid gland.
D) thyroiditis.
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding a cephalohematoma?
A) It is bound by suture lines.
B) The affected part feels soft.
C) It is obvious at birth.
D) The margins are poorly defined.
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Chapter 12: Eyes
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition in which the eyelids do not completely meet to cover the globe is called:
A) glaucoma.
B) lagophthalmos.
C) exophthalmos.
D) hordeolum.
Q2) When inspecting the region of the lacrimal gland, palpate:
A) the lower orbital rim, near the inner canthus.
B) in the area between the arch of the eyebrow and upper lid.
C) beneath the lower lid, adjacent to the inner canthus.
D) adjacent to the lateral aspect of the eye, just beneath the upper lid.
Q3) Opacities of the red reflex may indicate the presence of:
A) hypertension.
B) hydrocephalus.
C) cataracts.
D) myopia.
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Chapter 13: Ears, Nose, and Throat
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When conducting an adult otoscopic examination, you should:
A) position the patient's head leaning toward you.
B) grasp the handle of the otoscope as you would a baseball bat.
C) select the largest speculum that will fit in the canal.
D) ask the patient to keep his or her eyes closed.
Q2) To inspect the lateral borders of the tongue, you should:
A) ask the patient to extend the tongue outward.
B) insert the tongue blade obliquely against the tongue.
C) lift the tongue upward with gloved fingers.
D) pull the gauze-wrapped tongue to each side.
Q3) A 5-year-old child presents with nasal congestion and a headache. To assess for sinus tenderness, you should palpate over the:
A) sphenoid and frontal sinuses.
B) maxillary and frontal sinuses.
C) maxillary sinuses only.
D) sphenoid sinuses only.
Q4) When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.
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Chapter 14: Chest and Lungs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of apnea requires immediate action?
A) Primary apnea
B) Secondary apnea
C) Sleep apnea
D) Periodic apnea of the newborn
Q2) Which finding suggests a minor structural variation?
A) Barrel chest
B) Clubbed fingers
C) Pectus carinatum
D) Chest wall retractions
Q3) Which site of chest wall retractions indicates a more severe obstruction in the asthmatic patient?
A) Lower chest
B) Along the anterior axillary line
C) Above the clavicles
D) At the nipple line
Q4) An Apgar score of __________ is given to the infant who demonstrates irregular respiratory effort.
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Chapter 15: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) A palpable rushing vibration over the base of the heart at the second intercostal space is called a:
A) heave.
B) lift.
C) thrill.
D) thrust.
Q2) An apical PMI palpated beyond the fifth intercostal space may indicate:
A) decreased cardiac output.
B) obesity.
C) left ventricular hypertrophy.
D) hyperventilation.
Q3) Which one of the following is a common symptom of cardiovascular disorders in the older adult?
A) Fatigue
B) Joint pain
C) Poor night vision
D) Weight gain
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Blood Vessels
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bounding pulse in an infant may be associated with:
A) patent ductus arteriosus.
B) coarctation of the aorta.
C) decreased cardiac output.
D) peripheral vaso-occlusion.
Q2) You are examining Mr. S, a 79-year-old diabetic man complaining of claudication. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with the diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease?
A) Thick, calloused skin
B) Ruddy, thin skin
C) Warmer temperature of extremity in contrast to other body parts
D) Loss of hair over the extremities
Q3) In infants or small children, a capillary refill time of 4 seconds:
A) is normal.
B) indicates hypervolemia.
C) indicates dehydration or hypovolemic shock.
D) indicates renal artery stenosis.
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18
Chapter 17: Breasts and Axillae
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When examining axillary lymph nodes, the patient's arm is:
A) raised fully above the head.
B) extended at the side.
C) flexed at the elbow.
D) crossed over the chest.
Q2) A firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40-year-old patient's breast. You should:
A) ask the patient if she has a history of breast cancer.
B) refer the patient to a surgeon.
C) ask the patient to have a mammogram as soon as possible.
D) record the finding in the patient's record.
Q3) A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your response to this finding is to:
A) instruct her that this is a side effect of birth control injection therapy.
B) suggest pregnancy testing.
C) question her use of tanning beds.
D) schedule an appointment with a surgeon.
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19
Chapter 18: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect that the patient may have:
A) cholecystitis.
B) pancreatitis.
C) pyelonephritis.
D) ulcerative colitis.
Q2) Mrs. James is 7 months' pregnant and states that she has developed a problem with constipation. She eats a well-balanced diet and is usually regular. You should explain that constipation is common during pregnancy because of changes in the colorectal areas, such as:
A) decreased movement through the colon and increased water absorption from the stool.
B) increased movement through the colon and increased salt taken from foods.
C) looser anal sphincter and fewer nutrients taken from foods.
D) tighter anal sphincter and less iron eliminated in the stool.
Q3) An umbilical assessment in the newborn that is of concern is:
A) a thick cord.
B) umbilical hernia.
C) one umbilical artery and two veins.
D) pulsations superior to the umbilicus.
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Chapter 19: Female Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you plan to obtain cytologic studies, speculum introduction may be facilitated by:
A) lubrication with gel.
B) lubrication with warm water.
C) use of a plastic speculum.
D) opening the blades completely.
Q2) Which structure is located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice?
A) Skene glands
B) Clitoris
C) Perineum
D) Bartholin glands
Q3) Which one of the following is a proper technique for the use of a speculum during a vaginal examination?
A) Allow the labia to spread, and insert the speculum slightly open.
B) Insert one finger, and insert the opened speculum.
C) Press the introitus downward, and insert the closed speculum obliquely.
D) Spread the labia, and insert the closed speculum horizontally.
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Chapter 20: Male Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature infant's scrotum will appear:
A) bifid.
B) loose.
C) ridged.
D) smooth.
Q2) Inspection of the scrotum should reveal:
A) lightly pigmented skin.
B) two testes per sac.
C) smooth scrotal sacs.
D) the left scrotal sac lower than the right.
Q3) The most common cancer in young men ages 15 to 30 years is:
A) testicular.
B) penile.
C) prostate.
D) anal.
Q4) Which condition is a complication of mumps in the adolescent or adult?
A) Cystitis
B) Epididymitis
C) Orchitis
D) Paraphimosis
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Anus, Rectum, and Prostate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thrombosed hemorrhoids are:
A) flabby skin sacs.
B) red, inflamed, and painful.
C) fluctuant soft papules.
D) blue, shiny, painful masses.
Q2) Baby Sue is born with an imperforate anus. However, her outward anal appearance is normal. Which sign would indicate to the healthcare provider that she has a closed anal passageway?
A) Development of a scaphoid abdomen
B) Vomiting after her first feeding
C) Bleeding from the rectum
D) Failure to pass meconium stool
Q3) Pinworms and Candida may both cause:
A) constipation.
B) hemorrhoids.
C) perirectal irritation.
D) perirectal protrusion.
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23
Chapter 22: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient flexes forward at the waist, which spinal observation would lead you to suspect scoliosis?
A) Prominent lumbar hump
B) Prominent cervical concave curve
C) Lateral curvature of the spine
D) Restricted ability to flex at the hips
Q2) A common finding in markedly obese patients and pregnant women is:
A) kyphosis.
B) lordosis.
C) paraphimosis.
D) scoliosis.
Q3) When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when:
A) irregular bony surfaces rub together.
B) supporting muscles are excessively spastic.
C) joints are excessively lax.
D) there is excess fluid within the synovial membrane.
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Chapter 23: Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a:
A) dermatome.
B) nerve pathway.
C) spinal accessory area.
D) cutaneous zone.
Q2) The ability to recognize a number traced on the skin is called:
A) stereognosis.
B) graphesthesia.
C) an extinction phenomenon.
D) two-point discrimination.
Q3) When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing:
A) cerebellar function.
B) emotional status.
C) sensory function.
D) tendon reflexes.
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Chapter 24: Sports Participation Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is:
A) performing push-ups.
B) duck walking.
C) twisting at the waist.
D) crossing the arms over the chest.
Q2) The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation is critical because at this point:
A) all completed forms are distributed.
B) parental signatures are obtained.
C) the relevant history is obtained.
D) the coordination of follow-ups is reviewed.
Q3) Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation?
A) Asthma
B) Fever
C) Controlled seizures
D) HIV-positive status
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Chapter 25: Putting it All Together
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greatest risk for potential health problems occurs in which age group?
A) Newborn
B) Toddler
C) School-age
D) Adolescence
Q2) As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented?
A) Auscultation
B) Inspection
C) Measurement
D) Palpation
Q3) Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n):
A) adolescent.
B) infant.
C) older adult.
D) young adult.
Q4) To inspect the abdominal muscles, ask the:
A) supine patient to raise their head.
B) standing patient to bend forward.
C) prone patient to raise their lower legs.
D) standing patient to stand on tiptoes.
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Chapter 26: Emergency or Life-Threatening Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have gone by ambulance to a construction site where an adult male is lying on the street. The only information you have is that he fell three stories. His neck is immobilized with sacks of concrete mix on either side. Your first action should be to determine:
A) airway patency.
B) bleeding sites.
C) cranial nerve function.
D) limb position.
Q2) In life-threatening emergencies, consent for treatment:
A) is obtained before treatment to protect the facility from liability.
B) is not necessary.
C) occurs after treatment is administered.
D) is not valid because the patient is not competent.
Q3) You would complete a Glasgow Coma Scale rating during the: A) health history.
B) physical examination.
C) primary survey.
D) secondary survey.
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