Adult Health Nursing Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of adult patients experiencing acute and chronic health conditions. This course covers the principles of medical-surgical nursing, evidence-based practice, patient assessment, therapeutic interventions, and the management of complex health problems. Emphasis is placed on the development of clinical reasoning, effective communication, interdisciplinary collaboration, and the use of technology in patient care. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical experiences, students learn to promote health, prevent illness, and provide holistic, patient-centered care in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 8th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance
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1557 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mode of chemical signaling uses local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized?
A)Paracrine
B)Autocrine
C)Neurotransmitter
D)Hormone
Answer: A
Q2) The action of platelet-derived growth factor is to stimulate the production of which cells?
A)Platelets
B)Epidermal cells
C)Connective tissue cells
D)Fibroblast cells
Answer: C
Q3) Which cAMP-mediated response is related to antidiuretic hormone?
A)Increased heart rate and force of contraction
B)Secretion of cortisol
C)Increased retention of water
D)Breakdown of fat
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology: Environmental Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient suffered multiple traumatic injuries and received many blood transfusions within a few days of the injuries. For which medical condition should the healthcare professional monitor the patient for?
A)High blood pressure
B)HIV infection
C)Hemosiderosis
D)Kidney damage
Answer: C
Q2) After ovulation, the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen. This process is an example of what hormonal process?
A)Hyperplasia
B)Dysplasia
C)Hypertrophy
D)Anaplasia
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does vomiting-induced metabolic alkalosis cause?
A)Retained sodium to bind with the chloride
B)Hydrogen to move into the cell and exchange with potassium
C)Retention of bicarbonate to maintain the anion balance
D)Hypoventilation to compensate for the metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C
Q2) A student asks about natriuretic peptides. Which statement by the professor is most accurate?
A)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.
B)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.
C)Increase heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.
D)Decrease heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Answer: A
Q3) The pathophysiologic process of edema is related to which mechanism?
A)Sodium depletion
B)Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
C)Increased plasma oncotic pressure
D)Lymphatic obstruction
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of intellectual disability?
A)Down syndrome
B)Fragile X syndrome
C)Klinefelter syndrome
D)Turner syndrome
Q2) The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder?
A)Cri du chat
B)Down syndrome
C)Klinefelter syndrome
D)Turner syndrome
Q3) What is the technique for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities at 10 to 12 weeks' gestation?
A)Gene mapping
B)Linkage analysis
C)Amniocentesis
D)Chorionic villus sampling
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
A)Ovarian
B)Lung
C)Uterine
D)Pancreatic
Q2) What are empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?
A)Chromosomal testing
B)Direct observation
C)Liability thresholds
D)Relative risks
Q3) When a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is how many times greater?
A)2
B)3
C)6
D)10
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prader-Willi syndrome causes a chromosomal defect that is what?
A)Initiated by postnatal exposure to a virus
B)Inherited from the father
C)Related to maternal alcohol abuse
D)Transferred from mother to child
Q2) What is the difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications?
A)DNA sequence mutations can be directly altered.
B)Leukemia is a result of only DNA sequence mutation.
C)Epigenetic modifications potentially can be reversed.
D)No known drug therapies are available for epigenetic modifications.
Q3) When microRNA (miRNA) are methylated their messenger RNA (mRNA) targets are over-expressed. What would be the resulting effect on existing cancer?
A)Cell death
B)Metastasis
C)Remission
D)Relapse
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Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acute inflammatory response is characterized by fever that is produced by the hypothalamus being affected by what?
A)Endogenous pyrogens
B)Bacterial endotoxin
C)Antigen-antibody complexes
D)Exogenous pyrogens
Q2) What is the role of fibroblasts during the reconstructive phase of wound healing?
A)Generate new capillaries from vascular endothelial cells around the wound.
B)Establish connections between neighboring cells and contract their fibers.
C)Synthesize and secrete collagen and the connective tissue proteins.
D)Provide enzymes that débride the wound bed of dead cells.
Q3) An individual's acquired immunity is dependent on the function of which cells?
(Select all that apply.)
A)T lymphocytes
B)B lymphocytes
C)Macrophages
D)Opsonins
E)Neutrophils
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Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is believed to be true concerning Th2 cells?
A)Th2 cells are induced by antigens derived from allergens.
B)They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells.
C)Th2 cells produce IL-2, TNF-ß, and IFN-g.
D)They assist in the development of cell-mediated immunity.
Q2) In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?
A)Thymus gland
B)Regional lymph nodes
C)Bone marrow
D)Spleen
Q3) Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response?
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgA
D)IgE
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Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
A)Iron
B)Zinc
C)Iodine
D)Magnesium
Q2) Considering the effects of nutritional deficiencies on the immune system, severe deficits in calories and protein lead to deficiencies in the formation of which immune cells?
A)B cells
B)T cells
C)Natural killer cells
D)Neutrophils
Q3) Exposure to which of these could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.)
A)Poison ivy
B)Neomycin
C)Dairy products
D)Nickel
E)Detergents
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Chapter 10: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?
A)Viruses
B)Bacteria and fungi
C)Protozoa and Rickettsiae
D)Mycoplasma
Q2) A student asks the healthcare professional to describe exotoxins. Which statement by the professional is best?
A)Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
B)Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria.
C)Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades.
D)Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Q3) Which of these play a role in the control of fungal infections? (Select all that apply.)
A)Cytokines
B)Macrophages
C)Natural killer cells
D)Neutrophils
E)T lymphocytes
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Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A severely stressed patient has cold, clammy skin. The healthcare professional quizzes the student about this effect. The student correctly answers that this effect is directly from which action?
A)Epinephrine dilating blood vessels leading to the vital organs
B)Norepinephrine constricting blood vessels in the skin
C)Dilating the airways to increased oxygenation of the tissues
D)Dysfunctional temperature regulation from cortisol secretion
Q2) The effect epinephrine has on the immune system during the stress response is to increase which cells? (Select all that apply.)
A)NK cells
B)Immunoglobulins
C)Cytokines
D)T cells
E)Th cells
Q3) Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where?
A)Prefrontal cortex
B)Anterior pituitary
C)Limbic system
D)Hypothalamus
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Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the most common causes of nosocomial infections among patients with cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A)Indwelling medical devices
B)Suppressed immune system
C)Visitor-introduced microorganisms
D)Poor appetite
E)Inadequate wound care
Q2) In a normal, nonmutant state, what is an oncogene referred to as?
A)Basal cell
B)Target cell
C)Caretaker gene
D)Proto-oncogene
Q3) Which statement supports the hypothesis that intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in the development of colon cancer?
A)Cancer cells accumulate slower than noncancer cells.
B)An accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required to develop cancer.
C)Tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.
D)Apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli, including excessive growth.
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Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?
A)Alcohol
B)Steroids
C)Antihistamines
D)Antidepressants
Q2) The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as which BMI range?
A)18.5 to 24.9
B)25 to 29.9
C)30 to 39.9
D)40 to 50.9
Q3) In teaching a women's community group, which risk factor does the healthcare professional teach is related to high morbidity of cancer of the colon, uterus, and kidney?
A)Women older than 45 years of age
B)Women who have never had children
C)Women who have a high body mass index
D)Woman who have smoked for more than 10 years
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Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
A)Wilms tumor
B)Retinoblastoma
C)Osteosarcoma
D)Rhabdomyosarcoma
Q2) Which statements are true regarding cancers that develop in children? (Select all that apply.)
A)Childhood cancers tend to be fast growing.
B)Childhood cancers are diagnosed during growth spurts.
C)Childhood cancer generally metastasizes by the time of diagnosis.
D)Childhood cancer is typically at low risk for aggressive metastasis.
E)Childhood cancers respond well to standardized treatment modalities.
Q3) What do most childhood cancers arise from?
A)Epithelium
B)Mesodermal germ layer
C)Embryologic ectodermal layer
D)Viscera
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16
Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the region responsible for the motor aspects of speech located?
A)Wernicke area in the temporal lobe
B)Broca speech area in the frontal lobe
C)Wronka area in the parietal lobe
D)Barlow area in the occipital lobe
Q2) Which nerves are capable of regeneration?
A)Nerves within the brain and spinal cord
B)Peripheral nerves that are cut or severed
C)Myelinated nerves in the peripheral nervous system
D)Unmyelinated nerves of the peripheral nervous system
Q3) The aging process brings about what changes to human cells? (Select all that apply.)
A)Increased neurofibrillary tangles
B)Imbalance of neurotransmitters
C)Increased neuron production
D)Decreased myelin presence
E)Altered dendrite structure
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does open-angle glaucoma occur?
A)Decreased production of aqueous humor
B)Increased production of vitreous humor
C)Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor
D)Excessive destruction of vitreous humor
Q2) Which factors contribute to sensorineural hearing loss? (Select all that apply.)
A)Ménière disease
B)Aging
C)Diabetes mellitus
D)Noise exposure
E)Outer ear trauma
Q3) Enkephalins and endorphins act to relieve pain by which process?
A)Inhibiting cells in the substantia gelatinosa
B)Stimulating the descending efferent nerve fibers
C)Attaching to opiate receptor sites
D)Blocking transduction of nociceptors
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18
Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has finally been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) after seeing several physicians. The patient expresses frustration that the diagnosis has taken so long. What information can the healthcare professional give to the patient about this situation?
A)Many diseases cause weakness and fatigue.
B)Only upper motor neurons are involved.
C)Several nerves are connected to each muscle.
D)Lack of sensation makes it hard to describe.
Q2) What stimulus causes posthyperventilation apnea (PHVA)?
A)Changes in PaO levels
B)Changes in PaCO levels
C)Damage to the forebrain
D)Any arrhythmic breathing pattern
Q3) Which midbrain dysfunction causes pupils to be pinpoint size and fixed in position?
A)Diencephalon dysfunction
B)Oculomotor cranial nerve dysfunction
C)Dysfunction of the tectum
D)Pontine dysfunction
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Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common primary central nervous system (CNS) tumor?
A)Microglioma
B)Neuroblastoma
C)Astrocytoma
D)Neuroma
Q2) Where are atheromatous plaques most commonly found?
A)In larger veins
B)Near capillary sphincters
C)At branches of arteries
D)On the venous sinuses
Q3) In children, how are most intracranial tumors located?
A)Infratentorially
B)Supratentorially
C)Laterally
D)Posterolaterally
Q4) Spinal cord injuries occur most frequently in which region?
A)Cervical and thoracic
B)Thoracic and lumbar
C)Lumbar and sacral
D)Cervical and thoracic lumbar
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they do what?
A)Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse
B)Increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse
C)Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse
D)Decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse
Q2) A patient has started on clozapine. The healthcare professional educates the patient that this drug blocks which neurotransmitter receptor?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)Serotonin
D)Dopamine
Q3) A patient has positive signs of schizophrenia and is scheduled for a brain scan. What part of the brain does the healthcare professional expect the scan will focus on?
A)Parietal lobe
B)Limbic system
C)Temporal lobe
D)Hypothalamus
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A baby demonstrates asymmetric pathological reflexes and microcephaly at a 9-month checkup. The baby appeared normal at birth. What action by the healthcare professional is best?
A)Determine the baby's risk for developing an HIV infection since birth.
B)Assess the baby for other signs of child abuse or neglect.
C)Ask the mother if she uses drugs or alcohol in excess.
D)Perform spinal cord imaging and other diagnostic studies.
Q2) Which defect of neural tube closure is most common?
A)Anterior
B)Posterior
C)Lateral
D)Midline
Q3) What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is missing?
A)Anencephaly
B)Myelodysplasia
C)Cranial meningocele
D)Hydrocephaly
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Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone?
A)Pharmacologic
B)Permissive
C)Synergistic
D)Direct
Q2) Which compound or hormone is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
A)Cortisol
B)Epinephrine
C)Androgens
D)Aldosterone
Q3) What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
A)Increases serum calcium
B)Decreases serum calcium
C)Decreases serum magnesium
D)Increases serum magnesium
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes the microvascular complications in patients with diabetes mellitus?
A)The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
B)Pressure in capillaries increases as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water.
C)The capillary basement membranes thicken, and cell hyperplasia develops.
D)Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.
Q2) A patient has an enlarged tongue, body odor, rough skin, and coarse hair. Which laboratory result does the healthcare professional associate with this presentation?
A)Decreased blood glucose
B)Increased growth hormone
C)Decreased ACTH
D)Increased TSH
Q3) Which serum glucose level would indicate hypoglycemia in a newborn?
A)28 mg/dL
B)40 mg/dL
C)60 mg/dL
D)80 mg/dL
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Chapter 23: Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student asks the health care professional why obese people are at higher risk for hypertension than non-obese individuals. What response by the professional is best?
A)They produce more ghrelin in the stomach.
B)Their thyroid gland secretes less hormone.
C)They produce more angiotensinogen.
D)They secrete fewer endocannabinoids.
Q2) A researcher is moving to an area with a year-round cold climate. The researcher asks the health care professional how people in these areas are able to adjust to the temperature. What response by the professional is most accurate?
A)They have less adipose tissue.
B)They have more beige (bAT) adipose tissue.
C)Their bone marrow produces more adipose tissue.
D)They gain weight which insulates them.
Q3) Which individual does the health care professional determine is obese?
A)Body mass index 23 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
B)Body mass index 25 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C)Body mass index 29 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
D)Body mass index 32 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
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25
Chapter 24: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?
A)Gradual decrease in estrogen levels
B)Sudden increase of LH
C)Sharp rise in progesterone levels
D)Gradual increase in estrogen levels
Q2) The absence of which major hormone is a determinant of sexual differentiation (Wolffian system) in utero?
A)Estrogen
B)Progesterone
C)Growth hormone
D)Testosterone
Q3) Which hormone promotes the development of the lobular ducts in the breasts?
A)Progesterone
B)Prolactin
C)Oxytocin
D)Estrogen
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Chapter 25: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?
A)Premenstrual syndrome
B)Abnormal uterine bleeding
C)Polycystic ovary syndrome
D)Primary dysmenorrhea
Q2) A woman has been diagnosed with cervical carcinoma in situ and asks the healthcare professional to explain it to her. What description by the professional is best?
A)It involves the full epithelial thickness of the cervix.
B)It involves abnormal cells growing on the cervix.
C)It is when cancer has spread to the peritoneum.
D)It is when only the top layer of the cervix is affected.
Q3) Which term is used to identify benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium and are commonly called uterine fibroids?
A)Endometrial polyps
B)Myometrial polyps
C)Leiomyomas
D)Myometriomas
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Chapter 26: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student in the medical clinic is reviewing a patient's medical record and sees the diagnosis of Peyronie's disease and asks the healthcare professional for an explanation of this disorder. What statement by the professional is most accurate?
A)When the man's foreskin is retracted and cannot go back over the glans
B)When the man's foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis
C)A very painful condition of prolonged erection seen in some diseases
D)A fibrotic condition that leads to curvature of the penis and sexual dysfunction
Q2) What are the clinical manifestations of testicular cancer?
A)Firm, nontender testicular mass
B)Painful, mobile, firm testicular mass
C)Painful fluid-filled testicular mass
D)Soft, nontender testicular mass
Q3) A 7-year-old child has cryptorchidism. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A)Educate the child and parents on orchiectomy.
B)Instruct the parents to give the child all the antibiotics.
C)Describe skin precautions used during radiation therapy.
D)Describe the correct administration of GnRH.
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28
Chapter 27: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true concerning the sexually transmitted infection (STI) lymphogranuloma venereum? (Select all that apply.)
A)Lymphogranuloma venereum is an STI commonly diagnosed in the United States.
B)It begins in the skin or mucus membranes.
C)Lymphogranuloma venereum spreads to lymph tissues.
D)Rectal lesions are readily apparent with this STI.
E)A 60-day course of oral erythromycin is the recommended treatment.
Q2) A healthcare professional had taught a pregnant woman about the risk of transmitting herpes simplex virus (HSV) from her to her fetus. What statement by the woman indicates the professional needs to provide more information?
A)Neonatal infection with HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period.
B)The risk is higher in women who have a primary HSV infection.
C)The risk is higher in women who experience prolonged ruptured membranes.
D)The risk is higher when internal fetal monitoring devices are used.
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of thromboxane A (TXA ) in the secretion stage of hemostasis?
A)Stimulates the synthesis of serotonin.
B)Promotes vasodilation.
C)Stimulates platelet aggregation.
D)Promotes formation of cyclooxygenase.
Q2) What are the primary anticoagulant mechanisms? (Select all that apply.)
A)Antithrombin III
B)Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
C)Hematopoiesis
D)Protein C
E)Phagocytosis
Q3) The student learns that Langerhans cells are only found in which organ?
A)Skin
B)Intestinal lining
C)Kidney
D)Thyroid
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Erythrocytes, Platelets, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional in an urban clinic is seeing a patient who has iron deficiency anemia (IDA). What question by the professional is most appropriate to assess for the cause of IDA?
A)"How many times a week do you have iron-rich foods?"
B)"Have you ever noticed any blood in your stool?"
C)"Do you have a history of heart valve replacement?"
D)"Have you had any recent viral infections?"
Q2) How is the effectiveness of vitamin B therapy measured?
A)Reticulocyte count
B)Serum transferring
C)Hemoglobin
D)Serum vitamin B
Q3) An allogenic bone marrow transplantation remains the preferred method for treating which anemia?
A)Polycythemia vera
B)Aplastic
C)Sideroblastic
D)Anemia of chronic disease (ACD)
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Leukocyte and Lymphoid
Function
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46461
Sample
Questions
Q1) The two major forms of leukemia, acute and chronic, are classified by which criteria?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Predominant cell type
B)Rate of progression
C)Age of individual when cells differentiation occurs
D)Stage of cell development when malignancy first occurs
E)Serum level of leukocytes
Q2) What are the clinical manifestations of advanced non-African Burkitt lymphoma?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Abdominal swelling
B)Night sweats
C)Fever
D)Weight gain
E)Dementia
Q3) Which virus is associated with Burkitt lymphoma in African children?
A)Cytomegalovirus
B)Adenovirus
C)Human papillomavirus
D)Epstein-Barr virus
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46462
Sample Questions
Q1) A student asks the professor why hemophilia A is seen mostly in men. The professor explains that hemophilia A is considered to be what type of inherited disorder?
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked recessive
D)X-linked dominant
Q2) Which mother does the healthcare professional prepare to administer Rh immune globulin (Rho-GAM) to?
A)Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative
B)Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive
C)Has type A blood and the fetus has type O
D)Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B
Q3) A newborn displays pallor, tachycardia, and has a systolic murmur. What hemoglobin value does the healthcare professional correlate with these manifestations?
A)11 g/dL
B)9 g/dL
C)7 g/dL
D)5 g/dL
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33
Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46463
Sample Questions
Q1) Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood?
A)Superior vena cava
B)Aorta
C)Inferior vena cava
D)Pulmonary veins
Q2) Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by what mechanism?
A)Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart, arterioles, and veins
B)Sympathetic stimulation of the heart, arterioles, and veins
C)Autonomic control of the heart only
D)Somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins
Q3) What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated?
A)Refractory
B)Hyperpolarization
C)Threshold
D)Sinoatrial (SA)
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46464
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in the Emergency department is suspected of having a myocardial infarction (MI). The initial cardiac troponin 1 level was negative. What action by the healthcare professional is best?
A)Prepare the patient for thrombolytic therapy.
B)Dismiss the patient because the lab was negative.
C)Schedule repeat lab within a few hours.
D)Give the patient oxygen and pain medication.
Q2) What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
A)Altered body chemistry
B)Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
C)Prolonged immobility
D)Effects of aging on postural reflexes
E)Any condition that produces volume overload
Q3) What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
A)Atherosclerotic lesions
B)Hyperlipidemia
C)Myocardial necrosis
D)Myocardial ischemia
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is assessing a baby in the neonatal intensive care unit who is very unstable. The professional hears a systolic ejection click at the upper left sternal border with a thrill palpated at the upper left sternal border. What procedure does the professional prepare the parents for the baby to have?
A)Heart transplant
B)Balloon angioplasty
C)Prostaglandin infusion
D)High dose aspirin
Q2) The student studying pathophysiology learns which fact about circulation at birth?
A)Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall.
B)Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung.
C)Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises.
D)Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
Q3) When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to increase?
A)One month before birth
B)During the beginning stage of labor
C)One hour after birth
D)Once the placenta is removed from circulation
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46466
Sample Questions
Q1) Stretch receptors and peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to which location in the brain?
A)Pneumotaxic center in the pons
B)Apneustic center in the pons
C)Dorsal respiratory group (DRG) in the medulla oblongata
D)Ventral respiratory group (VRG) in the medulla oblongata
Q2) Which describes the pressure in the pleural space?
A)Atmospheric
B)Below atmospheric
C)Above atmospheric
D)Variable
Q3) A healthcare professional tells the student that a properly placed endotracheal tube for mechanical ventilation is 5 to 7 cm above the tracheal bifurcation. Where does this bifurcation occur?
A)Larynx
B)Bronchi
C)Carina
D)Nasopharynx
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46467
Sample Questions
Q1) The student asks the healthcare professional to explain how pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia. What description by the professional is best?
A)Creates alveolar dead space
B)Decreases the oxygen in inspired gas
C)Creates a right-to-left shunt
D)Impairs alveolocapillary membrane diffusion
Q2) Fluid in the pleural space characterizes which condition?
A)Pleural effusion
B)Atelectasis
C)Bronchiectasis
D)Ischemia
Q3) The student learns that which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Histamine
B)Bradykinin
C)Leukotrienes
D)Prostaglandins
E)Neutrophil proteases
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7 year-old-child presents to the clinic where parents report signs and symptoms consistent with asthma. What does the healthcare professional do in order to confirm this diagnosis?
A)Assess for a parental history of asthma
B)Draw serum levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) and eosinophil levels
C)Measure expiratory flow rate with spirometry testing
D)Give a trial of asthma medication and check for improvement
Q2) What abnormalities lead to the mucus plugging seen in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A)Excess mucus plugs the gut and keeps it from absorbing water effectively.
B)A weak inflammatory response allows bacterial to colonize the mucus.
C)Defective chloride secretion and excess sodium absorption thicken the mucus.
D)Pulmonary vascular remodeling occurs that leads to chronic hypoxia.
Q3) What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children?
A)Chronic respiratory infections
B)Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
C)Obligatory mouth breathing
D)Paradoxical breathing
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46469
Sample Questions
Q1) A student asks the professor to explain what effect natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates. Which response by the professor is best?
A)Stimulates antidiuretic hormones
B)Inhibits antidiuretic hormones
C)Stimulates renin and aldosterone
D)Inhibits renin and aldosterone
Q2) Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?
A)Peripheral nerves
B)Parasympathetic fibers
C)Sympathetic nervous system
D)Tenth thoracic nerve roots
Q3) Which renal change is found in older adults?
A)Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
B)Sharp decline in renal blood flow
C)Decrease in the number of nephrons
D)Decrease in urine output
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40
Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46470
Sample Questions
Q1) How does progressive nephron injury affect angiotensin II activity?
A)Angiotensin II activity is decreased.
B)Angiotensin II activity is elevated.
C)Angiotensin II activity is totally suppressed.
D)Angiotensin II activity is not affected.
Q2) Hypothyroidism, edema, hyperlipidemia, and lipiduria characterize which kidney disorder?
A)Nephrotic syndrome
B)Acute glomerulonephritis
C)Chronic glomerulonephritis
D)Pyelonephritis
Q3) Which urine characteristics are indicative of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) caused by intrinsic (intrarenal) failure?
A)Urine sodium >30 mEq/L
B)Urine osmolality >500 mOsm
C)Fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) <1%
D)Urine sediment has no cells, some hyaline casts
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46471
Sample Questions
Q1) What information does the student learn about hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia characterizes HUS.
B)Thrombocytopenia is a comorbid condition.
C)Wilms tumors are often the trigger for HUS.
D)Most common community-acquired cause of acute renal failure in young children.
E)HUS is chronic in nature.
Q2) A child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is voiding smoky, brown-colored urine and asks the healthcare professional to explain what causes it. What explanation by the professional is best?
A)Presence of red blood cells
B)Presence of urobilinogen
C)Slough from the collecting tubules
D)Protein in the urine
Q3) When does an individual have their full complement of renal nephrons?
A)At birth
B)At 6 months of age
C)At puberty
D)Between the ages 18 and 21 years
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are Kupffer cells best described?
A)Natural killer cells that produce interferon-gamma (IFN-g)
B)Contractile and therefore capable of regulating the sinusoid blood flow
C)Bactericidal and therefore central to innate immunity
D)Able to metabolize estrogen, progesterone, and androgens
Q2) Bilirubin is a byproduct of the destruction of which aged cells?
A)Platelets
B)Protein
C)Leukocytes
D)Erythrocytes
Q3) Gastric emptying is delayed by the presence of which substances? (Select all that apply.)
A)Solids
B)Carbohydrates
C)Nonisotonic solutions
D)Bacteria
E)Fats
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student asks the healthcare professional to explain the pathophysiologic process of alcoholic cirrhosis. What statement by the professional would not be consistent with complete knowledge about this process?
A)Inflammation and damage leading to cirrhosis begin in the bile canaliculi.
B)Alcohol is transformed to acetaldehyde, which promotes liver fibrosis.
C)Mitochondrial function is impaired, decreasing oxidation of fatty acids.
D)Acetaldehyde inhibits export of proteins from the liver.
Q2) How many stools per day are considered the upper limits of normal?
A)Two
B)Three
C)Five
D)Seven
Q3) The adult intestine processes approximately how many liters of luminal content per day?
A)3
B)6
C)9
D)12
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44
Chapter 43: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable, and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. What treatment does the healthcare professional prepare the infant for?
A)Corrective surgery
B)Reduction enema
C)Gastric decompression
D)Anal dilation
Q2) Parents report their 3-week-old infant who eats well and has gained weight began to vomit forcefully for no apparent reason. What treatment option does the healthcare professional prepare to educate the parents on?
A)A gastric feeding tube
B)Wheat-free diet
C)Corrective surgery
D)Lactose-free diet
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45
Chapter 44: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46475
Sample Questions
Q1) Which minerals are stored in bones? (Select all that apply.)
A)Carbonate
B)Phosphate
C)Selenium
D)Magnesium
E)Calcium
Q2) Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction?
A)Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation
B)Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling
C)Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction
D)Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation
Q3) The hyaline cartilage joints between the ribs and sternum are examples of which type of joint?
A)Synchondrosis
B)Symphysis
C)Gomphosis
D)Syndesmosis
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the primary sources of bacterial infections that lead to hematogenous bone infection? (Select all that apply.)
A)Sinus
B)Ear
C)Dental
D)Cutaneous
E)Throat
Q2) Which pathophysiologic alteration precedes crush syndrome after prolonged muscle compression?
A)Muscle ischemia
B)Myoglobinuria
C)Volkmann contracture
D)Neural injury
Q3) What is the tear in a ligament referred to as?
A)Fracture
B)Strain
C)Disunion
D)Sprain
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46477
Sample Questions
Q1) A child has scoliosis with a 40-degree curvature of the spine, and the parent is worried about pulmonary involvement. What statement by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A)"Scoliosis is a bone disorder and does not affect the lungs."
B)"Yes, we should obtain pulmonary function studies soon."
C)"Scoliosis severe enough to involve the lungs would be fatal."
D)"The lungs aren't affected until the curvature is over 80 degrees."
Q2) The anatomic makeup of which bone structures make them susceptible locations for osteomyelitis in children? (Select all that apply.)
A)Hip joint
B)Distal femur
C)Proximal humerus
D)Distal radius
E)Lateral ankle
Q3) An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
A)C
B)B12
C)B6
D)D
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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37 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bowen disease is a form of which type of cancer?
A)Kaposi sarcoma
B)Malignant melanoma
C)Basal cell carcinoma
D)Squamous cell carcinoma
Q2) A patient has psoriasis. Which drug classifications does the healthcare professional advise the patient to avoid if possible? (Select all that apply.)
A)Antibiotics
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D)Beta-blockers
E)Lithium
Q3) In allergic contact dermatitis, which cells possess the antigens and present them to T cells?
A)Langerhans cells
B)Merkel cells
C)Keratinocytes
D)Macrophages
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Chapter 48: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The healthcare professional teaches a parent group that which organism causes thrush?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Streptococcus
C)Herpesvirus
D)Candida albicans
Q2) Rubella (German or 3-day measles) is caused by what type of organism?
A)Virus
B)Bacterium
C)Fungus
D)Yeast
Q3) The disruption in cellular adhesion observed in bullous impetigo is caused by an exfoliative toxin related to which organism?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Escherichia coli
D)Candida albicans
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is determining the disposition of four burn patients in the Emergency department. Which patients will the professional refer to the burn center?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Partial thickness burn 20% TBSA
B)Burn of the genitals
C)Lightening injury
D)Both arms burned
E)Concomitant trauma
Q2) The release of catecholamine by the adrenal glands provides which compensatory mechanism in hypovolemic shock?
A)Interstitial fluid moves out of the vascular compartment.
B)Systemic vascular resistance is decreased.
C)Heart rate is increased.
D)Water excretion is increased.
Q3) Blistering of the skin within minutes occurs in which type of burn injury?
A)First degree
B)Superficial partial thickness
C)Deep partial thickness
D)Full thickness
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Chapter 50: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypotension is likely to occur when an infant or child is greater than _____ % dehydrated.
A)2
B)5
C)7
D)10
Q2) The healthcare professional plans care for a child in shock. What are the primary goals for the treatment of shock?
A)Maximizing oxygen delivery and minimizing oxygen demand
B)Maintaining hydration and adequate urinary output
C)Supporting all facets of the cardiovascular system
D)Maintaining all vital signs within normal functioning ranges
Q3) A healthcare professional explains that children under 2 years of age have a higher risk for dehydration because of which factors? (Select all that apply.)
A)Inability to concentrate urine
B)Larger TBSA compared to weight than adults
C)Immature kidneys
D)Limited glycogen stores
E)Underdeveloped antiinflammatory mediators
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