Adult Health Nursing
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Adult Health Nursing is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary to provide effective nursing care to adults experiencing diverse health conditions. The course emphasizes the application of the nursing process in managing acute and chronic illnesses, promoting health, and preventing disease in adult populations. Key topics include pathophysiology, pharmacology, assessment techniques, patient education, and evidence-based interventions for common medical and surgical conditions. Through lectures, case studies, and clinical experiences, students learn to integrate critical thinking, communication, and ethical principles in delivering holistic, patient-centered care to adults across a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 7th Edition by
Anne Griffin Perry
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Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence-based practice has the ability to:
A) Improve the quality of care provided
B) Improve patient outcomes
C) Improve clinician satisfaction
D) Improve patients' perceptions
E) None of above
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q2) A well-developed PICO question helps the nurse:
A) Search for evidence
B) Include all four elements of the sequence
C) Find as many articles as possible in a literature search
D) Accept standard clinical routines
Answer: A
Q3) When evidence-based practice is used,patient care will be:
A) Standardized for all
B) Unhampered by patient culture
C) Variable according to the situation
D) Safe from the hazards of critical thinking
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Admitting, transfer, and Discharge
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Sample Questions
Q1) While preparing for the patient's discharge,the nurse uses a discharge planning checklist and notes that the patient is concerned about going home because she lives alone.The nurse realizes that successful recovery at home is often based on:
A) The patient's perception of readiness
B) Family involvement
C) The ability to live alone
D) Allowing the patient to make her own arrangements
Answer: A
Q2) If a patient is having acute physical problems,postpone routine admission procedures until the patient's immediate needs are met.A ________________ assessment is needed at this point.
Answer: focused
If a patient is having acute physical problems,postpone routine admission procedures until you meet the patient's immediate needs.Complete a focused assessment at this point.
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4
Chapter 3: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Directing the conversation back to patient ideas,feelings,questions,or content is known as ___________________.
Answer: reflection
Reflection or directing back to the patient ideas,feelings,questions,or content validates the nurse's understanding of what the patient is saying and signifies empathy,interest,and respect for the patient.
Q2) Lack of verbal communication for a therapeutic reason is known as ___________________.
Answer: therapeutic silence
Lack of verbal communication for a therapeutic reason is known as therapeutic silence.It allows the patient time to think and gain insights,slows the pace of the interaction,and encourages the patient to initiate conversation,while conveying the nurse's support,understanding,and acceptance.
Q3) The interaction between two or more persons that involves the exchange of information is known as ________________.
Answer: communication
Communication is an interaction between two or more persons that involves the exchange of information between a sender and a receiver.
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Chapter 4: Reporting and Recording
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is a 24-year-old man who is diagnosed with possible HIV infection while being treated for active pneumonia.He has stated that the nurse may share test result information with his significant other but nothing else at this time.The nurse may:
A) Update the patient's parents as well
B) Update the patient's significant other only
C) Update no one in the hospital until the patient says so
D) Update the patient's physician, significant other, laboratory personnel
Q2) Current Joint Commission standards require that ______ patients who are admitted to a health care institution have an assessment of physical,psychosocial,environmental,self-care,patient education,and discharge planning needs.
Q3) The patient has a student nurse from Anyplace College (AC)caring for him this morning.On this unit,student nurses are not allowed to chart on their patient.The nurse should:
A) Chart that AM care was given and sign her name and title
B) Not chart that AM care was given since she did not provide it
C) Chart that AM care was given by the student nurse
D) Chart that AM care was given by Suzie Newnurse, SN, AC
Q4) The abbreviation for every day (___ )is no longer used.
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following processes are involved in respiration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ventilation
B) Diffusion
C) Oximetry
D) Perfusion
Q2) The patient is admitted in a near comatose state with a blood glucose level of 750.His respiratory rate is 42 breaths per minute,and his respiratory pattern is deep and regular.This type of breathing is known as:
A) Cheyne-Stokes respiration
B) Biot's respiration
C) Bradypnea
D) Kussmaul's respiration
Q3) The nurse chooses a sphygmomanometer that has a circular gauge and a needle that registers the millimeter calibrations.This type of device is known as a(n):
A) Mercury manometer
B) Electronic manometer
C) Aneroid manometer
D) Direct (invasive) manometer
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Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient position maximizes the nurse's ability to assess the patient's body for symmetry?
A) Sitting
B) Supine
C) Prone
D) Dorsal recumbent
Q2) A student nurse is working with a patient who has asthma.The primary nurse tells the student that wheezes can be heard on auscultation.The student expects to hear:
A) Coarse crackles and bubbling
B) High-pitched musical sounds
C) Dry, grating noises
D) Loud, low-pitched rumbling
Q3) Measurement of the patient's ability to differentiate between sharp and dull sensations over the forehead tests which cranial nerve?
A) Abducens
B) Facial
C) Trigeminal
D) Oculomotor
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Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted with mumps.The nurse knows that she will have to:
A) Put the patient in a private room
B) Place the patient on Standard Precautions
C) Wear a mask when closer than 3 feet to the patient
D) Place the patient on Contact Precautions
Q2) For patients with which of the following conditions should the nurse implement Airborne Precautions?
A) Rubella
B) Influenza
C) Tuberculosis
D) Pediculosis
Q3) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for the patient on isolation precautions is to:
A) Double-bag all disposable items and linens
B) Put another gown over the one worn if it has become wet
C) Place specimen containers in plastic bags for transport
D) Hand items to be reused directly to a nurse standing outside the room
Q4) The primary strategies for prevention of infection transmission with regard to contact with blood,body fluids,nonintact skin,and mucous membranes are known as
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Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate technique for the nurse to use when performing sterile gloving is to:
A) Put the glove on the nondominant hand first
B) Interlock the hands after both gloves are applied
C) Pull the cuffs down on both gloves after gloving
D) Grasp the outside cuff of the other glove with the gloved hand
Q2) The patient has just had a tracheostomy tube placed and is expectorating copious amounts of sputum that he coughs forcefully from his tracheostomy tube.The patient also is suspected of having methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)in his sputum.The nurse is preparing to suction the patient to clear his airway.Which of the following will the nurse need to wear if following Standard Precautions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Mask
B) Goggles
C) Gown
D) Sterile gloves
E) None of above
Q3) _____________ is one practice designed to make and maintain objects and areas free from pathogenic microorganisms.
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Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, transfer, and Positioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positioning of patients to maintain correct body alignment is essential to prevent complications such as _______________ and ____________.
Q2) ________________________ are placed alongside the patient's legs to ensure proper alignment and to prevent external rotation of the hips.
Q3) A postoperative patient has been instructed by a nurse about the importance of moving in bed but is still avoiding movement.The nurse should:
A) Avoid moving the patient until he or she is motivated
B) Have family members move the patient around
C) Decrease the frequency of movement to be performed
D) Medicate the patient with a prescribed analgesic before moving
Q4) The nurse is preparing to reposition the patient.Which of the following is a principle of safe patient transfer and positioning?
A) The wider the base of support, the greater is the stability of the nurse.
B) The higher the center of gravity, the greater is the stability of the nurse.
C) Facing in the opposite direction of movement prevents twisting.
D) Using either the arms or the legs reduces the risk for back injury.
Q5) Body balance is achieved when a wide _____________ exists.
Q6) Awareness of posture and changes in equilibrium is known as _______________.
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Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been admitted for hypertension.His blood pressure is normally in the 160/90 range.He has been on bed rest for the past few days,and the doctor has started him on a new blood pressure medication.The nurse is assisting the patient to move from the bed to the chair for breakfast,but when the patient tries to sit up on the side of the bed,he complains of being dizzy and nauseous.The nurse lays the patient down and takes his vital signs.His pulse is 124.His blood pressure is 130/80.The nurse realizes that this blood pressure is indicative of:
A) A normal blood pressure for this patient
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Orthostatic hypertension
D) Effective baroreceptor function
Q2) A person's inability to move about freely is known as _______________.
Q3) The patient has been using crutches for the past 2 weeks.When she comes for her follow-up examination,she complains of tingling and numbness in her hands and upper torso.Possible causes of these symptoms are:
A) The patient's elbows are flexed 15 to 30 degrees when using the crutches
B) Crutch pad is approximately 2 inches below the patient's axilla
C) Patient holds the cane 4 to 6 inches to the side of her foot
D) Hand grip does not allow for elbow flexion
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been in skeletal traction for external fixation of his femur for 2 days.Suddenly,he calls the nurse complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath.The nurse notes that the patient appears anxious,and that his pulse and respirations are elevated.She should do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Massage the lower extremity.
B) Elevate the head of the bed.
C) Administer oxygen.
D) Notify the physician.
Q2) For a client who is to be placed in Russell's traction,the nurse prepares the:
A) Occipital area
B) Arm and forearm
C) Back and abdomen
D) Lower extremities
Q3) After application of the cast,the nurse ensures that plaster crumbs are removed and rough edges are _________ to prevent skin breakdown.
Q4) ____________________ consists of a metal frame that secures pins inserted through the bone above and below the fracture site.It stabilizes a fracture with hardware visible outside the body.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following problems that may occur with the use of an air-fluidized bed,the nurse is most concerned with:
A) Nausea
B) Anxiety
C) Slight disorientation
D) Insensible fluid loss
Q2) The patient will be going home but still requires an air-fluidized bed.Before discharge,it will be necessary for the company that is leasing the bed to inspect the home for accessibility and ________________.
Q3) An air-suspension bed is contraindicated for the patient with:
A) Burns
B) Traction
C) Osteoporosis
D) Respiratory insufficiency
Q4) It is recommended that the Rotokinetic bed stay in the rotation mode for at least _______hours a day.
Q5) Use of the bariatric bed is contraindicated in patients with
Q6) A full or double-wide_____________ can accommodate a patient up to 1000 lb.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent patient aspiration during a seizure,the nurse should:
A) Insert an oral airway
B) Restrain the patient securely
C) Sit the patient in an upright position
D) Turn the patient onto his/her side
Q2) The patient is being admitted to the hospital but is not on bed rest.He is wheelchair-bound at home and has brought his own electric wheelchair and battery charger to help him maintain mobility.The nurse realizes that:
A) Patients are not allowed to bring in an electric wheelchair
B) Electrical equipment is banned from all hospitals
C) The charger needs to be checked by hospital engineers
D) Electrical devices are not a cause for concern
Q3) On entering the patient's room,the nurse sees a fire burning in the trash can next to the bed.The nurse removes the patient and reports the fire.The next action of the nurse is to:
A) Extinguish the fire
B) Remove all of the other patients from the unit
C) Close all the doors of patient rooms
D) Move the trash can into the bathroom
Q4) __________ are the most common type of inpatient accident.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which level of the color coding developed by the Department of Homeland Security are citizens encouraged to develop and share family emergency plans and create emergency supply kits?
A) Blue
B) Yellow
C) Green
D) Orange
Q2) After a radiological event,an initial scan using a radiation survey instrument is positive,and the nurse anticipates that the next step in care will include:
A) Washing the skin with soap and water while taking care not to irritate or abrade the skin
B) Removing clothing to eliminate 70% to 90% of the contamination
C) Isolating and covering up any skin that is positive for radiation using a plastic wrap
D) Proceeding with conducting a thorough survey that lasts 5 to 8 minutes with the radiation survey equipment
Q3) _________________ means taking refuge in a small interior room with no or few windows.
Q4) An epidemic that occurs in many parts of the world is known as a ______________.
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Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's family is concerned that the patient may get too much pain medication after surgery and become addicted to the medication if he is placed on a PCA pump.They also voice concern about the effectiveness of the PCA.The nurse should instruct the family and the patient that:
A) Pain relief with the PCA pump is not as good as when the nurse provides it, but it does save on nursing time
B) Pain relief is good when the medication peaks, but less so when the levels drop, and that is when the patient will know that he needs more
C) Because the device provides medication as soon as the patient needs it, he will probably use less of the medication
D) The patient will be kept in bed for several days after surgery to make sure it is safe to ambulate
Q2) The application of touch and movement to muscles,tendons,and ligaments without manipulation of the joints is called _________________.
Q3) Some patients exhibit drug-seeking behaviors when in fact they are seeking pain relief.This is termed _________________.
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Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that anticipatory grieving can be most beneficial for a patient or family because it can:
A) Be done in private
B) Be discussed with others
C) Promote separation of the ill patient from the family
D) Allow time for the process of grief
Q2) The patient has been diagnosed with a terminal disease.The nurse overhears the patient praying,"If I get through this,I will become a better Christian." The nurse realizes that this falls into Kübler-Ross's stage of:
A) Denial
B) Anger
C) Bargaining
D) Acceptance
Q3) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
Q4) For a patient in the final stages of dying,a nurse expects to:
A) Keep the patient cool
B) Avoid catheterizing the client
C) Elevate the head of the bed as tolerated
D) Encourage the patient to eat and drink more
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Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bedmaking
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first line of defense to external injury and infection contains several thin layers of cells undergoing different stages of maturation.This first line of defense is known as the
Q2) A nurse recognizes that a shampoo may be contraindicated for a bed-bound patient with:
A) Heart disease
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) A neck injury
D) A bleeding disorder
Q3) While evaluating the hygienic care practices of a female client,a nurse recognizes that additional instruction is necessary if the client:
A) Washes the area from back to front
B) Washes the labia majora before the labia minora
C) Avoids tension on indwelling catheter
D) Uses separate sections of the washcloth for each cleansing stroke
Q4) ________________ removes dead cells and bacteria and helps maintain skin integrity.
Q5) ____________ is the largest human organ.
Q6) _____________ is balding patches in the periphery of the hairline.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted with an open pressure ulcer with necrotic tissue covering the base.The nurse would classify this ulcer as a:
A) Stage III pressure ulcer
B) Stage IV ulcer
C) Wound cannot be staged
D) Stage II pressure ulcer
Q2) The removal of devitalized tissue in a wound is known as ______________.
Q3) The nurse is planning to care for her patient,who has a stage II pressure ulcer.Care should include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) A heat lamp to dry the wound
B) Application of topical antibiotics
C) Nutritional assessment
D) Maintenance of a moist wound environment
Q4) Pressure ulcers can occur: (Select all that apply.)
A) From any position that causes soft tissue compression
B) Because of lack of blood flow (ischemia)
C) If pressure lasts longer than 90 minutes
D) In as little as 90 minutes
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Chapter 19: Care of Eye and Ear Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses that a hearing aid is operating correctly by:
A) Speaking very softly behind the client
B) Covering the client's unaffected ear and speaking
C) Determining the client's response to a normal tone of voice
D) Removing the hearing aid and sending it to be checked by an audiologist
Q2) When cleansing and disinfecting contact lenses,the nurse:
A) Holds the lens over the sink
B) Rinses the lens with warm tap water
C) Uses an enzymatic cleaner per prescriber's instruction
D) Places rigid lenses in the storage case inside down
Q3) When removing and cleansing a patient's eye prosthesis,the nurse:
A) Places the patient in a prone position
B) Retracts the upper eyelid with her thumb and forefinger
C) Cleans the prosthesis using an alcohol solution
D) Cleans the prosthesis using mild soap and water
Q4) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
Q5) A _________________ receives signals from a separate external processor and transmits theme electrically to the auditory nerve.
Q6) A _____________ is a small,battery-powered,electronic device that amplifies sound.
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The highest serum concentration of a medication in the body is known as the
Q2) The parenteral route of a drug is ordered.The nurse administers this medication:
A) Orally
B) Topically
C) Sublingually
D) Intramuscularly
Q3) Medication dependence by which a person has an emotional desire for a drug to maintain an effect is known as ______________.
Q4) The patient is complaining of severe pain in his leg.He does not have any pain medication ordered,so the nurse calls the doctor,who gives an order for a prn medication and a one-time dose of morphine sulfate to be given immediately.The morphine order is known as a:
A) Single one-time order
B) Standing order
C) Stat order
D) PRN order
Q5) The client is to receive 200 mg of a medication.There are 100 mg scored tablets available.The nurse prepares _____________________.
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Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is ordered to have eye drops administered daily to both eyes.On/in which part of the eye should eye drops be instilled?
A) Cornea
B) Outer canthus
C) Lower conjunctival sac
D) Opening of the lacrimal duct
Q2) The nurse is teaching a mother how to administer nasal medications to her infant child.Which of the following is true?
A) Over-the-counter nasal sprays should be saved in case they are needed later.
B) Nasal spray decongestants are safe and have no serious side effects.
C) Infants should receive nose drops 20 to 30 minutes before feedings.
D) Infants are mouth breathers, so nose drops can be given anytime.
Q3) Handheld devices that deliver inhaled medication in a fine powder to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
Q4) Medication that is placed under the tongue and is allowed to dissolve is known as ____________ medication.
Q5) Medications used by patients to treat eye problems are known as ______________ medications.
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Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _______________ injection is an injection into tissues just under the dermis of the skin.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to draw up medication from an ampule.She realizes that she will need a _________________ to draw up the medication.
Q3) A ______________ is a small (25 to 250 mL)IV bag or bottle connected to a short tubing line to the lower Y-port of a primary infusion line or to an intermittent venous access.
Q4) The nurse has drawn up Regular and NPH insulin for administration to her diabetic patient.When the nurse enters the room,the patient has gone to radiology for a chest radiograph and will return in 20 minutes.What should the nurse do with the medication?
A) Put the medication in the refrigerator until he returns
B) Put the medication in the patient's medication box until he returns
C) Keep the syringe in her pocket until he returns
D) Discard the medication and withdraw more when he returns
Q5) Research suggests that the _____________ area is the most appropriate site for all age groups of children receiving IM injections.
Q6) An ____________ injection is an injection into the dermis just under the epidermis.
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Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient with COPD who is a severe carbon dioxide retainer,a nurse anticipates the use of a:
A) Face tent
B) Face mask
C) Nasal cannula
D) Nonrebreathing mask
Q2) How should the nurse determine if the patient on mechanical ventilation has an improperly placed airway and unilateral lung inflation?
A) Auscultate lung sounds
B) Monitor the blood pressure
C) Measure the respiratory rate
D) Check the settings for the ventilator alarm
Q3) A condition in which oxygen is insufficient to meet the metabolic demands of the tissues and cells is known as __________________.
Q4) In noninvasive ventilation,________________ keeps the terminal airways (alveoli)partially inflated,reducing the risk for atelectasis.
Q5) ________________ maintains positive airway pressure and improves alveolar ventilation without the need for an artificial airway.
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Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Q1) Trendelenburg's position is contraindicated for with of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Esophageal surgery
D) Distended abdomen
Q2) ____________________ consists of physical chest wall maneuvers such as percussion,vibration and shaking,postural drainage (PD),and cough.
Q3) An Acapella device requires that the patient:
A) Fill the lungs completely
B) Cough while the device is vibrating
C) Hold breath for 2 to 3 seconds
D) Adjust the device to a medium resistance setting
Q4) The system that lines the internal lumen of the tracheobronchial tree and consists of a thin layer of mucus that constantly is propelled toward the larynx by cilia is called the
Q5) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP)with oral airway oscillations.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interventions that are advantageous in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Changing the patient's position every 30 minutes
B) Providing oral care with a toothbrush every 8 hours
C) Maintaining the endotracheal cuff pressures at 40 mm Hg
D) Keeping the head flat especially after feedings
Q2) The nurse is caring for an infant who has been vomiting and who is having breathing problems.What should the nurse do to suction the infant?
A) Place the infant in a supine position
B) Suction only when a large amount of mucus is present
C) Place the infant in a prone position
D) Use bulb syringe and compress the bulb after it is in place
Q3) A device made of rigid plastic that is used for oropharyngeal suctioning is known as a _________________.
Q4) Suctioning is discontinued if the patient experiences:
A) Coughing
B) A decrease in pulse from 84 beats per minute to 60 beats per minute
C) An increase in pulse from 84 beats per minute to 94 beats per minute
D) A reduction in oxygen saturation from 97% to 94%
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Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage
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Sample Questions
Q1) What condition is indicated when a patient with a chest tube experiences sharp stabbing chest pain without a change in pulse or blood pressure?
A) Pneumonitis
B) Tube displacement
C) A myocardial infarction
D) A tension pneumothorax
Q2) Which condition may be treated with a Heimlich valve attached to a catheter inserted into the chest wall?
A) Hemothorax
B) Pleural effusion
C) Pneumothorax
D) Fluid drainage
Q3) During assessment of a patient,the chest tube becomes dislodged.What should the nurse do first?
A) Have an assistant apply an occlusive gauze dressing and tape on all four sides
B) Clamp the chest tube
C) Attempt to gently reinsert the tube
D) Apply pressure over the insertion site
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Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Causes of dysrhythmia may include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Electrolyte disturbances
B) Heart damage
C) Medications
D) Respiratory arrest
E) None of above
Q2) The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide into and out of the lungs is known as _____________________.
Q3) What should the nurse do immediately after the anesthesiologist has intubated the patient in a code event? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ventilate using a bag-mask device at a rate of 22 breaths per minute
B) Auscultate the epigastric area
C) Auscultate both lungs
D) Call for a chest radiograph
Q4) Many cardiac arrests are caused by irregular heart rhythms known as ________________.
Q5) Blood flow to the tissues to ensure oxygen delivery is referred to as
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Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing the patient's IV infusion,the nurse notes that it is infusing slower than it should be.What should the nurse do first?
A) Discontinue the IV
B) Increase the rate of the infusion
C) Observe for fluid overload
D) Check the position of the IV fluid and extremity
Q2) An intravenous catheter that is inserted through a large arm vein and is advanced until the tip enters the central venous system is known as a __________________.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a peripheral IV.While performing her routine assessment,she notes that the insertion site is pale,cool,and edematous.The patient indicates that the site is also painful to the touch.The nurse recognizes these symptoms as revealing a possible _______________.
Q4) _________________________ pull fluid into the vascular space by osmosis,resulting in an increased vascular volume that possibly will result in pulmonary edema.
Q5) An IV catheter attached to an injection cap to maintain a closed system is known as an ________________.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering blood.What should the nurse do to detect a blood reaction as quickly as possible?
A) Remain with the patient during the first 15 minutes
B) Transfuse the blood at 10 mL/min
C) Monitor vital signs q 1 hour
D) Transfuse blood at 50 gtt/min
Q2) A systemic response to the administration of a blood product that is incompatible with the blood of the recipient,contains allergens to which the recipient is sensitive or allergic,or is contaminated with pathogens is known as a ________________.
Q3) The patient is to receive 2 units of packed RBC.The units are cold,and the nurse is concerned that this could lead to dysrhythmias and/or a reduction in core temperature.What action may the nurse take to prevent this?
A) Warm the blood in a microwave
B) Warm the blood using hot water
C) Warm the blood using a blood warmer
D) Allow the blood to warm to room temperature before administering
Q4) The average adult has about _______ liters of blood.
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Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing the patient for nutritional status.Which laboratory value may indicate a compromised protein status?
A) Serum albumin level of 4.0 g/dL
B) Prealbumin level of 12 g/dL
C) Total lymphocyte count of 1600 cells/mm3
D) Prealbumin level of 35 g/dL
Q2) The patient is placed on a clear liquid diet.Which of the following foods may the patient select?
A) Coffee with milk and sugar
B) Jell-O, popsicles, apple juice
C) Water, orange juice, Jell-O
D) Black coffee, popsicles, ice cream
Q3) What must the nurse do before assisting the patient with feeding?
A) Assess the patient's gag reflex
B) Make sure that the consistency of the food is thin
C) Remove the patient's dentures to prevent gagging
D) Prepare the patient to be fed by a staff member
Q4) _________________ diets include modifications in the number or size of meals served or the amounts of specific nutrients,such as six small feedings or.
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Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has just inserted a nasogastric (NG)feeding tube into a patient.What should the nurse do to definitely ascertain that the tube is in the stomach or in the intestine?
A) Test the pH of the contents
B) Utilize a carbon dioxide sensor
C) Lower the head of the bed to 15 degrees
D) Obtain an order for a chest radiograph
Q2) The nurse has inserted a nasogastric (NG)feeding tube.The feeding tube has a stylet in place to aid in insertion.What should the nurse do once the tube is in place?
A) Remove the stylet immediately
B) Reinsert the stylet if radiograph determines incorrect placement
C) Fasten the end of the NG tube to the patient's gown using tape and a safety pin
D) Leave the stylet in place and obtain a chest/abdomen radiography
Q3) A tube passed through the nose or mouth with the end terminating in the stomach or the small bowel,and used for feeding the patient for short periods of time is known as a _________________.
Q4) Nasoenteric tubes,once placed into the small bowel,are thought to reduce the risk for ___________________.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient had surgery 1 week earlier and has not been eating his meals and states that he has no appetite.The nurse notices that the patient has been progressively losing weight.What should the nurse do?
A) Encourage the patient to eat
B) Force feed the patient
C) Consult with the nutritional support team
D) Be aware that the patient will come around when hungry
Q2) The patient will be going home on PN.Patient and family education should include information about the effects of home parenteral nutrition (HPN)on quality of life (QOL).Which of the following are issues identified with HPN? (Select all that apply.)
A) Depression
B) Sleep disturbances
C) Frequent urination
D) Fear of complications
E) None of above
Q3) A patient with linoleic acid deficiency is _______________ and thus at risk for infection.
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34
Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has a condom catheter applied by the nursing assistant.The nurse determines that further instruction for the assistant is required if the nurse observes:
A) Clipping of the hair at the base of the penis
B) Skin prep being applied to the penis before catheter placement
C) Regular adhesive tape being used to hold the catheter in place
D) 1 to 2 inches of space being left between the tip of the penis and the end of the catheter
Q2) Which of the following techniques can be used to determine postvoid residual (PVR)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bladder scanner
B) Indwelling catheterization
C) Straight/intermittent catheterization
D) Foley catheterization
Q3) What minimum hourly output demonstrates kidney function for an adult patient?
A) 10 mL/hour
B) 20 mL/hour
C) 30 mL/hour
D) 100 mL/hour
Q4) _________________ is the volume of urine in the bladder after a normal voiding.
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Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________________ is the patient's inability to control the passage of feces and gas.
Q2) During the enema instillation,the patient experiences cramping.What action should the nurse take?
A) Discontinue the procedure
B) Increase the height of the solution
C) Slow the rate of the infusion
D) Have the patient roll into a supine position
Q3) The patient has been found to have a severe fecal impaction.What must the nurse do to address this problem?
A) Administer laxatives
B) Provide a high-fiber diet
C) Perform a digital removal
D) Administer an enema
Q4) Which action should the nurse take when irrigating the patient's Salem sump tube?
A) Instill 10 mL of normal saline
B) Aspirate contents quickly
C) Instill 10 mL of air into the blue pigtail
D) Instill 10 mL of saline into the blue pigtail
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Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has removed the patient's old urostomy pouch and is attempting to measure the stoma opening for placement of a new pouch.Which action should the nurse take next?
A) Place the patient in a prone position
B) Cleanse the peristomal skin with warm soap and water
C) Remove any stents that are in place
D) Place rolled gauze at stoma opening
Q2) A ______________ is an opening in the large intestine or colon for elimination of fecal material.
Q3) When assessing the patient with a noncontinent urinary diversion,the nurse finds that the urine has mucous shreds.What should the nurse do first?
A) Culture any drainage
B) Instruct patient to consume less water
C) Note the characteristics of the urine in her notes
D) Cleanse the stoma with soap and water
Q4) An opening that is in the ileal portion of the small intestine is an ____________.
Q5) The output from a urinary or fecal stoma is called the _______________.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Preoperativepostoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is wearing a simple wedding band that he cannot remove.He is scheduled for colon surgery.What should the nurse do before surgery is performed?
A) Get the ring cutter from the emergency department and cut the ring off
B) Call the physician and cancel the surgery
C) Tape the wedding ring in place
D) Call the physician for an order for extra antibiotics
Q2) What is the effect of the presence of hyperglycemia in the immediate postoperative period?
A) Increases the risk for infection in the diabetic patient only
B) Decreases the risk for surgical site infection
C) Increases the risk for infection in diabetic and nondiabetic patients
D) Has no effect on the body's ability to fight infection
Q3) Which assessment indicates that a patient meets the criteria for ambulatory surgery discharge?
A) The patient is able to drive home alone
B) Some respiratory depression is evident
C) The oxygen saturation level is at 85%
D) No intravenous (IV) narcotics have been given in the last 30 minutes
Q4) The first phase of postoperative care takes place during the ____________period.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are sources of contamination in the operating room? (Select all that apply.)
A) A wristwatch
B) Chipped nail polish
C) Artificial fingernails
D) Abrasions on the hands
E) None of above
Q2) The scrub nurse is washing her hands in preparation for a surgical procedure.As she is finishing,the scrub nurse accidentally touches the faucet with one hand.What should the scrub nurse do then?
A) Apply sterile gloves
B) Apply a sterile gown
C) Apply a sterile mask
D) Wash her hands
Q3) Which of the following is true about the circulating nurse's primary responsibilities?
A) She is a "sterile" member of the surgical team
B) She provides the surgeon with instruments
C) She is a "nonsterile" member of the surgical team
D) She performs delegated medical functions or skills
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intact ________ is the body's first line of defense against invasion by infectious microorganisms.
Q2) __________________is a mechanical wound care treatment that uses controlled negative pressure to assist and accelerate wound healing.The most common commercial brand is called Wound (V.A.C.).
Q3) The nurse answers the patient's call light to find the patient agitated and stating that she "felt something pop." The nurse finds that the patient's abdominal surgical wound has eviscerated.What should the nurse do?
A) Try to reinsert the abdominal contents
B) Cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing
C) Notify the surgeon when he makes rounds
D) Cover the wound with a moist saline dressing
Q4) How does the skin defend the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Skin serves as a sensory organ for pain
B) Skin serves as a sensory organ for touch
C) Skin serves as a sensory organ for temperature
D) Skin has an acid pH
E) None of above
Q5) ___________ are stainless steel wires used to hold body tissues together.
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Chapter 39: Dressings,bandages,and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient with a transparent film dressing,the nurse assesses that there is white,opaque fluid accumulation and the surrounding tissue is inflamed.How should the nurse respond?
A) Culture the wound
B) Leave the current dressing in place
C) Apply gauze over the top of the dressing
D) Remove and stretch the film more tightly over the wound
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who had a negative-pressure wound dressing.The nurse realizes that the system is working properly when the vacuum setting is set at which of the following levels?
A) -40 mm Hg
B) -210 mm Hg
C) -125 mm Hg
D) -25 mm Hg
Q3) A _______________ is a clear,adherent,nonabsorptive,polyurethane moistureand vapor-permeable dressing that often is used following laparoscopic surgery,for protection over high-friction areas,and as a dressing over an intravenous (IV)catheter.
Q4) _____________ dressings cover or hold primary dressings in place.
Q5) _______________ dressings are used for wounds that require debridement.
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Chapter 40: Warm and Cold Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would require using caution in applying cold therapy?
A) Chronic pain
B) Joint trauma
C) Circulatory insufficiency
D) Sprains
Q2) The use of cryotherapy has been found to be beneficial in which of the following conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) During surgical procedures
B) Following cardiac arrest
C) Following colorectal surgery
D) Following head trauma
Q3) It generally is accepted to discontinue hypothermia treatment when the patient's core temperature is __F above desired temperature.
Q4) When applying a hypothermia or hyperthermia blanket,the nurse should:
A) Wrap the patient's hands and feet
B) Monitor the patient's axillary temperature every hour
C) Put the patient directly onto the heating or cooling blanket
D) Place the patient onto the blanket and then start the heating or cooling process
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42
Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who require home care often experience physical alterations that require changes in their home environment.In the case of older adults,what is the best way to make these changes?
A) Make changes quickly to prevent problems
B) Make changes to limit the patient's need to move around
C) Make changes to complement the patient's strengths
D) Make changes regardless of the patient's previous sense of personal space
Q2) The nurse is visiting an elderly patient who lives with his wife and daughter.He has several daily medications,including antihypertensives,antiarrhythmics,diuretics,and pain medication.The patient's wife states that he takes all of the pills in the morning and some at night.The nurse should examine the pills and suggest which of the following?
A) Take the antiarrhythmics and antihypertensives together in the morning to prevent hypotension during sleep
B) Take the diuretics at bedtime
C) Increase the different types of pain medication to prevent addiction to one
D) Administer at bedtime medications that are likely to cause confusion
Q3) ______________ disease accounts for 50% of all dementia diagnoses.
Q4) ___________ is the concurrent prescribing of multiple medications.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are signs of hyperthermia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dry, warm, flushed skin
B) Chills and piloerection
C) Uncontrolled shivering
D) Loss of memory
Q2) A patient is discharged and is sent home with enteral feedings.What instructions should the nurse give to the caregiver?
A) Flush the tube out after administering medications
B) Keep the tube loose to allow for patient movement
C) Use sterile technique when preparing and administering feedings
D) Hang enough formula each time to cover 8 to 12 hours of feeding
Q3) Expected outcomes for patients who are being taught how to use a thermometer include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ability to correctly measure temperature
B) Ability to properly clean and store the thermometer
C) Knowledge of normal temperature ranges
D) Signs and symptoms of fever
E) None of above
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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What must the nurse do to collect a midstream urine sample from an infant?
A) Apply a sterile plastic collection bag to the perineum
B) Wring out diapers and collect the urine in a specimen container
C) Have infant sit facing the back of the toilet
D) Catheterize the infant and collect the urine using sterile procedure
Q2) When performing a venipuncture,the nurse should:
A) Inject with the needle at a 45-degree angle
B) Select a vein that is rigid and cord-like, and that rolls when palpated
C) Perform the needle insertion immediately after cleansing the skin with alcohol
D) Place the thumb of the nondominant hand about 1 inch below the site and pull the skin taut
Q3) An appropriate technique for the nurse to tell the patient to implement before obtaining a sputum specimen is to:
A) Use mouthwash before the collection
B) Splint the surgical incision before coughing
C) Try to obtain a sample immediately after eating
D) Take a deep breath, cough hard, and expectorate
Q4) _____________________is a term that means that the patient is positively identified before the procedure.
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Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) An _______________ permits visualization of the vasculature of an organ and the organ's arterial system
Q2) _____________ is a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients respond purposefully to verbal commands,either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation.In addition,no interventions are required to maintain a patent airway,and spontaneous ventilation is adequate.
Q3) Then explaining about a lumbar puncture,a nurse informs a patient that during the procedure he or she will be asked to:
A) Remain very still
B) Cough during the fluid aspiration
C) Change position
D) Breathe deeply during the needle insertion
Q4) Which action should a nurse take following a procedure requiring intravenous moderate sedation?
A) Report a Ramsay sedation score that is less than 3 to the physician
B) Monitor airway patency and vital signs every 5 minutes for 30 minutes
C) Take vital signs every 15 minutes for the next 2 hours
D) Take vital signs every 30 minutes until stable
Q5) The aspiration of peritoneal fluid from the abdomen is known as ____________.
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