Adult Health Assessment Question Bank
Course Introduction
Adult Health Assessment is a comprehensive course that focuses on the systematic collection and analysis of health data to establish a foundation for adult patient care. Emphasizing both theoretical knowledge and practical skills, the course covers interviewing techniques, physical examination methods, and the use of diagnostic tools to assess the physical, psychological, and social aspects of adult health. Students learn to perform head-to-toe and system-specific assessments, identify normal and abnormal findings, document results accurately, and apply critical thinking to clinical decision-making across diverse adult populations.
Recommended Textbook
Seidels Guide to Physical Examination 9th Edition by Jane
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26 Chapters
648 Verified Questions
648 Flashcards
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Page 2
W. Ball
Chapter 1: The History and Interviewing Process
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2604
Sample Questions
Q1) To what extent should the patient with a physical disability or emotional disorder be involved in providing health history information to the health professional?
A) The patient should be present during information collection but should not be addressed directly.
B) All information should be collected from past records and family members while the patient is in another room.
C) The patient should be involved only when you sense that he or she may feel ignored.
D) The patient should be fully involved to the limit of his or her ability.
Answer: D
Q2) When are open-ended questions generally most useful?
A) During sensitive area part of the interview
B) After several closed-ended questions have been asked
C) While designing the genogram
D) During the review of systems
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Cultural Competency
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As you explain your patient's condition to her husband, you notice that he is leaning toward you and pointedly blinking his eyes. Knowing that he is from England, your most appropriate response to this behavior is to:
A) tell him that you understand his need to be alone.
B) ask whether he has any questions.
C) ask whether he would prefer to speak to the clinician.
D) tell him that it is all right to be angry.
Answer: B
Q2) Which variables can intrude on successful communication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Social class
B) Gender
C) Stereotype
D) Phenotype
E) Age
Answer: A, B, E
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4
Chapter 3: Examination Techniques and Equipment
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During percussion, a dull tone is expected to be heard over:
A) healthy lung tissue.
B) emphysemic lungs.
C) the liver.
D) most of the abdomen.
Answer: C
Q2) During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the:
A) shoulder.
B) forearm.
C) wrist.
D) interphalangeal joint.
Answer: C
Q3) Expected normal percussion tones include:
A) dullness over the lungs.
B) hyperresonance over the lungs.
C) tympany over an empty stomach.
D) flatness over an empty stomach.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Clinical Reasoning
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an accepted method of making a diagnosis?
A) Relying on intuition
B) Making maximal use of laboratory tests
C) Using first assumptions
D) Using algorithms
Q2) After the subjective and objective data have been prioritized, the next step is to:
A) order laboratory tests.
B) formulate a problem list.
C) initiate appropriate referrals.
D) initiate therapy.
Q3) Mr. Johnson actually has streptococcal pharyngitis; however, the throat culture is initially read as negative. This situation describes a test with a:
A) low sensitivity.
B) high sensitivity.
C) high specificity.
D) low specificity.
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6
Chapter 5: Documentation
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Data relevant to the social history of older adults includes information on: A) family support systems.
B) previous healthcare visits.
C) over-the-counter medication intake.
D) date of last cancer screening.
Q2) The review of systems is a component of the:
A) physical examination.
B) health history.
C) assessment.
D) past medical-surgical history.
Q3) Differential diagnoses belong in the: A) history.
B) physical examination.
C) assessment.
D) plan.
Q4) Drawing of stick figures is most useful to:
A) compare findings in extremities.
B) demonstrate radiation of pain.
C) indicate consistency of lymph nodes.
D) indicate mobility of masses.
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Chapter 6: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a syndrome in which regional pain extends beyond this specific peripheral nerve injury, you would notice which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allodynia
B) Sleep disturbance
C) Blood flow changes
D) Numbness
E) Edema
Q2) The fifth vital sign is:
A) pain.
B) orientation.
C) waist-to-hip ratio.
D) body mass index (BMI).
Q3) The perception of pain:
A) is the same across cultures.
B) can be easily assessed in neonates.
C) is predictable with the same circumstances.
D) is affected by emotions and quality of sleep.
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8
Chapter 7: Mental Status
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you ask the patient to tell you the meaning of a proverb or metaphor, you are assessing which of the following?
A) Level of consciousness
B) Abstract reasoning
C) Emotional stability
D) Memory
Q2) You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of:
A) depression.
B) autistic disorder.
C) mania.
D) schizophrenia.
Q3) Under most conditions, adult patients should be able to repeat forward a series of _____________ numbers.
Q4) The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is _________ old.
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9
Chapter 8: Growth, Measurement, and Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The upper-to-lower segment ratio should be calculated:
A) bimonthly for the first year of life.
B) annually for the first 5 years.
C) only when a child is suspected of having a growth problem or unusual body proportions.
D) in children of first-generation immigrants.
Q2) Ms. Davis is a 27-year-old patient with a BMI of 33. Based on her BMI, your diagnosis would be:
A) normal body weight.
B) overweight.
C) obese.
D) extremely obese.
Q3) Milestone achievements are data most likely to appear in the history of:
A) adolescents.
B) infants.
C) school-age children.
D) young adults.
Q4) The term large for gestational age (LGA) indicates that an infant is larger than ____% of infants born at the same number of weeks' gestation.
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Chapter 9: Skin, Hair, and Nails
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a noncandidal fungal infection?
A) Pityriasis rosea
B) Psoriasis
C) Tinea corporis
D) Rosacea
Q2) A 17-year-old student complains of a "rash for 3 days." You note pale, erythematous oval plaques over the trunk. They have fine scales and are arranged in a fernlike pattern, with parallel alignment. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Teach infectious control measures.
B) Inquire about another recent skin lesion.
C) Inspect the palms and the soles.
D) Inform the patient that this will resolve within a week.
Q3) Women with terminal hair growth in a male distribution pattern should receive further evaluation for a(n):
A) circulation condition.
B) endocrine disorder.
C) inflammatory state.
D) nutritional deficit.
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Chapter 10: Lymphatic System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Shea is a 45-year-old patient who presents to the office for multiple complaints. The examination of the upper left quadrant of the abdominal cavity is essential to the evaluation of the immune system because of the location of which organ?
A) Spleen
B) Liver
C) Stomach
D) Pancreas
Q2) Which disorder is characterized by a single node that is chronically enlarged and nontender in a patient with no other symptoms?
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Streptococcal pharyngitis
C) Mononucleosis
D) Toxoplasmosis
Q3) A red streak that follows the course of the lymphatic collecting duct is a finding associated with:
A) Hodgkin disease.
B) lymphangitis.
C) lymphedema.
D) lymphoma.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Head and Neck
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a physical examination of a 30-year-old Chinese man, you notice a slight asymmetry of his face. The cranial nerve examination is normal. Your best action is to:
A) ask the patient if this characteristic runs in his family.
B) perform monofilament testing on the face.
C) consult with the clinician regarding the laboratory tests needed.
D) record the finding in the patient's chart.
Q2) The thyroid gland should:
A) be slightly left of midline.
B) have a clear vascular sound.
C) move when the patient swallows.
D) tug with each heartbeat.
Q3) Mrs. Britton brings her 16-year-old son in with a complaint that he is not developing correctly into adolescence. Which structures disproportionately enlarge in the male during adolescence?
A) Coronal sutures
B) Hyoid and cricoid cartilages
C) Mandible and maxilla bones
D) Nose and thyroid cartilages
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13
Chapter 12: Eyes
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cotton wool spots are most closely associated with: A) glaucoma.
B) normal aging processes.
C) hypertension.
D) eye trauma.
Q2) Dot hemorrhages, or microaneurysms, in the retina and the presence of hard and soft exudates are most commonly seen in those with:
A) Down syndrome.
B) diabetic retinopathy.
C) systemic lupus.
D) glaucoma.
Q3) If a patient has early papilledema, using an ophthalmoscope, the examiner will be able to detect:
A) dilated retinal veins.
B) retinal vein pulsations.
C) sharply defined optic discs.
D) visual defects.
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Chapter 13: Ears, Nose, and Throat
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2616
Sample Questions
Q1) To approximate vocal frequencies, which tuning fork should be used to assess hearing?
A) 100 to 300 Hz
B) 200 to 400 Hz
C) 500 to 1000 Hz
D) 1500 to 2000 Hz
Q2) Bulging of an amber tympanic membrane without mobility is usually associated with:
A) middle ear effusion.
B) healed tympanic membrane perforation.
C) impacted cerumen in the canal.
D) repeated and prolonged crying cycles.
Q3) Mr. and Mrs. Johnson have presented to the office with their infant son with complaints of ear drainage. When examining an infant's middle ear, the nurse should use one hand to stabilize the otoscope against the head while using the other hand to:
A) pull the auricle down and back.
B) hold the speculum in the canal.
C) distract the infant.
D) stabilize the chest.
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Chapter 14: Chest and Lungs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With consolidation in the lung tissue, the breath sounds are louder and easier to hear, whereas healthy lung tissue produces softer sounds. This is because:
A) consolidation echoes in the chest.
B) consolidation is a poor conductor of sound.
C) air-filled lung sounds are from smaller spaces.
D) air-filled lung tissue is an insulator of sound.
Q2) Which finding suggests a minor structural variation?
A) Barrel chest
B) Clubbed fingers
C) Pectus carinatum
D) Chest wall retractions
Q3) The best time to observe and count respirations is while:
A) the patient is answering questions.
B) weighing the patient.
C) palpating the pulse.
D) the patient is sleeping.
Q4) An Apgar score of __________ is given to the infant who demonstrates irregular respiratory effort.
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Chapter 15: Heart
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most helpful finding in determining left-sided heart failure is:
A) dyspnea.
B) orthopnea.
C) jugular vein distention.
D) an S<sub>3</sub> heart sound.
Q2) A lift along the left sternal border is most likely the result of:
A) aortic stenosis.
B) atrial septal defect.
C) pulmonary hypertension.
D) right ventricular hypertrophy.
Q3) Mr. O, age 50 years, comes for his annual health assessment, which is provided by his employer. During your initial history-taking interview, Mr. O mentions that he routinely engages in light exercise. At this time, you should:
A) ask if he makes his own bed daily.
B) have the patient describe his exercise.
C) make a note that he walks each day.
D) record "light exercise" in the history.
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Chapter 16: Blood Vessels
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are palpating bilateral pedal pulses and cannot feel one of the pulses. The feet are equally warm. You find that both great toes are pink, with a capillary refill within 2 seconds. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Immediate emergency surgery is indicated.
B) Pedal pulses are not always palpable.
C) Unilateral pulses are never normal.
D) Venogram studies will be needed.
Q2) To assess a patient's jugular veins, the patient should first be placed in which position?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler
C) Upright
D) Left lateral recumbent
Q3) Observation of hand veins can facilitate the assessment of:
A) mitral valve competency.
B) a heart murmur.
C) right heart pressure.
D) left heart pressure.
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18
Chapter 17: Breasts and Axillae
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While examining a 30-year-old woman, you note that one breast is slightly larger than the other. In response to this finding, you should:
A) note the finding in the patient's record.
B) ask the patient if she has ever had breast cancer.
C) tell the patient to get a mammogram as soon as possible.
D) tell the patient to get a mammary sonogram as soon as possible.
Q2) Most women with breast cancer:
A) possess the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene.
B) risk increases with aging.
C) have a mother who had breast cancer.
D) continue to menstruate after age 52.
Q3) A 50-year-old woman presents as a new patient. Which finding in her personal and social history would increase her risk profile for developing breast cancer?
A) Drinking three glasses of wine per week
B) Early menopause
C) Nulliparity
D) Late menarche
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19
Chapter 18: Abdomen
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient presents with symptoms that lead you to suspect acute appendicitis. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with this condition?
A) Positive psoas sign
B) Positive McBurney sign
C) Consistent right lower quadrant (RLQ) pain
D) Rebound tenderness
Q2) Mrs. Little is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the office with abdominal pain and fever. During your examination, you ask the patient to raise her head and shoulders while she lies in a supine position. A midline abdominal ridge rises. You document this observation as a(n):
A) small inguinal hernia.
B) large epigastric hernia.
C) abdominal lipoma.
D) diastasis recti.
Q3) An umbilical assessment in the newborn that is of concern is:
A) a thick cord.
B) umbilical hernia.
C) one umbilical artery and two veins.
D) pulsations superior to the umbilicus.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Female Genitalia
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2622
Sample Questions
Q1) The pelvic joint that separates most appreciably during late pregnancy is the:
A) sacroiliac.
B) symphysis.
C) sacrococcygeal.
D) iliofemoral.
Q2) A cervical polyp usually appears as a:
A) grainy area at the ectocervical junction.
B) bright red, soft protrusion from the endocervical canal.
C) transverse or stellate scar.
D) hard granular surface at or near the os.
Q3) Asking the woman to close the introitus during a pelvic examination is a test for: A) endometriosis.
B) rectocele.
C) cervical polyps.
D) sphincter tone.
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Chapter 20: Male Genitalia
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Expected genitalia changes that occur as men age include that:
A) the ejaculatory volume decreases with age.
B) erections develop more quickly.
C) the viability of sperm increases.
D) the scrotum becomes more pendulous.
Q2) The male with Peyronie disease will usually complain of:
A) painful, inflamed testicles.
B) deviation of the penis during erection.
C) lack of sexual interest.
D) painful lesions of the penis.
Q3) Which genital virus infection is known to have a latent phase followed by the production of viral DNA capsids and particles?
A) Condyloma acuminatum
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Herpetic lesions
D) Lymphogranuloma venereum
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Chapter 21: Anus, Rectum, and Prostate
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tarry black stools should make you suspect:
A) internal hemorrhoids.
B) rectal fistula.
C) upper intestinal tract bleeding.
D) prostatic cancer.
Q2) The prostatic sulcus:
A) divides the right and left lateral lobes.
B) is the site of the seminal vesicle emergence.
C) refers to the anterior aspect of the prostate.
D) secretes clear viscous mucus.
Q3) Palpation of a normal prostate in an older adult is likely to feel:
A) cool.
B) grainy.
C) polypoid.
D) rubbery.
Q4) Nodules found in the peritoneum through the anterior rectal wall:
A) are found with bidigital palpation.
B) are called shelf lesions.
C) are chronic fibrosis.
D) are found by having the patient bear down.
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Chapter 22: Musculoskeletal System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ulnar deviation and swan neck deformities are characteristics of:
A) rheumatoid arthritis.
B) osteoarthritis.
C) osteoporosis.
D) congenital defects.
Q2) The joint where the humerus, radius, and ulna articulate is the:
A) wrist.
B) elbow.
C) shoulder.
D) clavicle.
Q3) When the shoulder contour is asymmetric and one shoulder has hollows in the rounding contour, you would suspect:
A) kyphosis.
B) fractured scapula.
C) a dislocated shoulder.
D) muscle wasting.
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Chapter 23: Neurologic System
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2626
Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing:
A) cerebellar function.
B) emotional status.
C) sensory function.
D) tendon reflexes.
Q2) If a patient cannot shrug his or her shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation?
A) CN I, olfactory
B) CN V, trigeminal
C) CN IX, glossopharyngeal
D) CN XI, spinal accessory
Q3) The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following?
A) High-level cognitive function
B) Balance and affect
C) Internal organs of the body
D) Balance and equilibrium
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25
Chapter 24: Sports Participation Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent is advised to restrict contact sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is:
A) hockey.
B) roller skating.
C) riflery.
D) skateboarding.
Q2) The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include:
A) screening for steroid use or abuse.
B) determining the best fit for positions in each sport.
C) determining the risk of injury or death during sports participation.
D) securing a legal contract before recommending limiting participation.
Q3) Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is:
A) performing push-ups.
B) duck walking.
C) twisting at the waist.
D) crossing the arms over the chest.
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Chapter 25: Putting it All Together
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Sample Questions
Q1) When conducting a geriatric assessment, keep in mind that basic activities of daily living (ADL) include:
A) bathing.
B) housekeeping.
C) medication compliance.
D) communication skills.
Q2) Ms. Stein visits the nurse practitioner for an annual examination. The nurse practitioner tests Ms. Stein's tongue for movement and strength. The nurse practitioner is assessing CN _______.
Q3) The Ballard Gestational Age Test is completed within 36 hours of birth to:
A) determine if the menstrual estimated age is correct.
B) determine if the newborn is premature.
C) determine an actual quantitative measure.
D) determine combined objective and subjective observations.
Q4) Which are examined with the patient in a reclining 45-degree position?
A) Bilateral hips and popliteal angles
B) Facial bones and cranial nerves V and VII
C) Jugular venous pulsation and pressure
D) Oropharynx and thyroid gland placement
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Chapter 26: Emergency or Life-Threatening Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have gone by ambulance to a construction site where an adult male is lying on the street. The only information you have is that he fell three stories. His neck is immobilized with sacks of concrete mix on either side. Your first action should be to determine:
A) airway patency.
B) bleeding sites.
C) cranial nerve function.
D) limb position.
Q2) You would complete a Glasgow Coma Scale rating during the:
A) health history.
B) physical examination.
C) primary survey.
D) secondary survey.
Q3) The secondary survey of a patient with hypotension would begin with the assessment of:
A) blood type.
B) level of consciousness.
C) number of fractures.
D) swallowing ability.
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