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Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner Exam Materials - 549 Verified Questions

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Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner

Exam Materials

Course Introduction

The Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner course prepares students to deliver comprehensive, evidence-based care to adults and older adults across the lifespan in primary care settings. Emphasizing holistic health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of common acute and chronic illnesses, the course integrates advanced physical assessment, diagnostic reasoning, and pharmacologic management. Through clinical experiences and didactic instruction, students develop the knowledge and skills necessary to function as independent practitioners, collaborating with interdisciplinary teams to optimize patient outcomes and promote healthy aging in diverse populations.

Recommended Textbook

Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing 4th Edition by Dunphy

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21 Chapters

549 Verified Questions

549 Flashcards

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Chapter 3: Health Promotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Endemic is the term used when the presence of an event is constant.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for a 76-year-old man newly diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency?

A)Calcium supplementation

B)Testicular self-examination

C)Bone density test

D)Digital rectal examination

Answer: A

Q3) The "bird" flu of 2005 to 2006 is considered a sporadic outbreak.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) The number of cases of a particular disease for the past 5 years is an example of the incidence rate.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Care

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Applying evidence at the point of care requires:

A)Readily available evidence-based resources

B)Ability to review research literature

C)Single articles in journals

D)Current textbooks

Q2) Which is the most important question to ask in nursing research?

A)What findings constitute evidence?

B)How will the findings be used?

C)Is this a randomized controlled trial?

D)What theory is being utilized?

Q3) Practice guidelines are designed to:

A)Be inflexible

B)Be utilized in every circumstance

C)Provide a reference point for decision making

D)Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession

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Chapter 6: Neurological Problems

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

A)A stabbing pain on one small area of the body

B)A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body

C)A pain that is worse upon awakening

D)A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Q2) Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

A)Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.

B)After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

C)Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.

D)These persons may drive but never alone.

Q3) Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

A)A female in her reproductive years

B)A 40-year-old African American male

C)A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily

D)A 45-year-old male awakened at night

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Chapter 7: Skin Problems

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Eighty percent of men have noticeable hair loss by what age?

A)35

B)50

C)70

D)85

Q2) Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the "mask of pregnancy"?

A)It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy.

B)This condition only occurs on the face.

C)Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.

D)It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.

Q3) Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor.Which description is the most likely for this condition?

A)There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back.

B)Josh has red papules on his face.

C)There are crusted plaques in Josh's groin area.

D)There are white streaks on his neck.

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Chapter 8: Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat

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Sample Questions

Q1) Otitis media is considered chronic when:

A)Inflammation persists more than 3 months with intermittent or persistent otic discharge.

B)There are more than six occurrences of otitis media in a 1-year period.

C)Otitis media does not resolve after two courses of antibiotics.

D)All of the above

Q2) Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

A)Perforation of the tympanic membrane

B)Otosclerosis

C)Cholesteatoma

D)Presbycusis

Q3) In which of the following situations would referral to a specialist be needed for sinusitis?

A)Recurrent sinusitis

B)Allergic sinusitis

C)Sinusitis that is refractory to antibiotic therapy

D)All of the above

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Chapter 9: Respiratory Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A -hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?

A)Penicillin

B)Quinolone

C)Cephalosporin

D)Macrolide

Q2) Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function is true?

A)Cigarette smoking accelerates the decline in pulmonary function tenfold.

B)Smoking cessation can reverse most pathological changes.

C)Cigarette smoking decreases mucus production.

D)There is a normal age-related decline in pulmonary function.

Q3) The most common cause of CAP is?

A)Streptococcus pneumoniae

B)Klebsiella pneumoniae

C)Legionella pneumoniae

D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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8

Chapter 10: Cardiovascular Problems

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33 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which group would most benefit from statins?

A)Those with a low density lipoprotein-cholesterol greater than 100 mg/dL

B)Individuals with clinical arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease

C)Individuals with a 10-year risk greater than 10%

D)Individuals of all ages with diabetes mellitus (DM)

Q2) Nitroglycerine (NTG) is given for a patient having ischemic chest pain.One tablet or one spray should be used under the tongue every 5 minutes for three doses.What should be done if the pain has not been relieved after three doses?

A)911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency department.

B)One more dose of NTG may be tried.

C)The person should be given two aspirin to chew.

D)A portable defibrillator should be located to ascertain the cardiac rhythm.

Q3) Which test has long been considered the gold standard for a diagnosis of venous thromboembolism?

A)Ultrasound

B)Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

C)Ascending venogram

D)D-dimer

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Chapter 11: Abdominal Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mr.J.K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds.He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes Tums¨ with temporary relief.He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest.Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain?

A)The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves.

B)Coffee and fried foods donÕt bother him,

C)He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth.

D)All of the above

Q2) A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation.The patient lists all of the following medications.Which drug could be responsible for the constipation?

A)Multivitamin

B)Magnesium hydroxide

C)Pepto-Bismol¨

D)Ibuprofen

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Chapter 12: Renal Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 27-year-old female presents with a chief complaint of burning and pain on urination.She has no previous history of urinary tract infection (UTI).What are some additional symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of lower UTI?

A)Back and abdominal pain

B)Fever, chills, costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness

C)Blood in urine and frequency

D)Foul-smelling discharge, perineal itch

Q2) Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?

A)BUN and creatinine

B)Electrolytes

C)Creatinine clearance

D)Urinalysis

Q3) The patient is diagnosed with ARF.Which of the following conditions is the most common cause?

A)Renal calculi

B)Acute tubular necrosis

C)Cardiac failure

D)Acute glomerulonephritis

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Page 11

Chapter 13: Mens Health Problems

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25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patients treated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae also should be treated for Chlamydia trachomatis.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of painful erections, and he notices his penis is crooked when erect.What is the most likely diagnosis?

A)Peyronie's disease

B)Damage to the pudendal artery

C)Scarring of the cavernosa

D)All of the above

Q3) A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means.In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?

A)The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.

B)There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.

C)The cancer is confined to the capsule.

D)There is metastasis to distant organs.

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Chapter 14: Womens Health Problems

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29 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 44-year-old patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen by her surgeon.She is complaining about hot flashes.Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

A)"You must be having menopause."

B)"The hot flashes are a result of the antiestrogenic effects of tamoxifen."

C)"Tamoxifen will impact your temperature regulation center."

D)"The drug destroys your ovaries."

Q2) A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods.She is pale and states she can no longer exercise.Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass.Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?

A)Transvaginal ultrasound

B)Endometrial biopsy

C)MRI

D)Abdominal computed tomography scan

Q3) Most breast cancer cases are in women with a family history of breast cancer.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Musculoskeletal Problems

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability.In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension.Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30¡.If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain.Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as:

A)Apprehension sign

B)Bulge sign

C)Thumb sign

D)None of the above

Q2) Mrs.Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow.The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago.A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:

A)Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle

B)Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm

C)Inability to supinate and pronate the arm

D)Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance

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Chapter 16: Endocrinemetabolic Problems

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is essential for diagnosing thyroid cancer?

A)Fine needle aspiration

B)Thyroid ultrasound

C)CT scan

D)Magnetic resonance imaging

Q2) A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise.In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?

A)Reduces postprandial blood glucose

B)Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

C)Reduces total cholesterol

D)All of the above

Q3) Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

A)Insulin

B)Metformin

C)Glucotrol

D)Precose

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15

Chapter 17: Hematologic and Immune Problems

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?

A)Autogenic

B)Autologous

C)Allogeneic

D)Syngeneic

Q2) Which type of the following is characterized by fatigue on awakening that may improve with exercise?

A)Functional fatigue

B)Fatigue with an organic origin

C)Fatigue of chronic anemia

D)Fatigue of depression and anxiety

Q3) In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

A)Osteoarthritis

B)Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

C)Rheumatoid arthritis

D)Sj gren's syndrome

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16

Chapter 18: Psychosocial Problems

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35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?

A)Benzodiazepines

B)Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

C)Tricyclic antidepressants

D)Cognitive behavioral therapy

Q2) Parkinson's disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking.Each episode lasted about 10 minutes.The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house.The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes.Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?

A)Pheochromocytoma

B)Hyperthyroidism

C)Cardiac arrhythmias

D)All of the above

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Page 17

Chapter 19: Emergency Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) level correlates with the clinical symptoms of confusion, lethargy, and ST-segment depression on the electrocardiogram?

A)Less than 10%

B)20% COHb

C)30% COHb

D)40% to 60% COHb

Q2) Josie, age 30, has a pneumothorax.It may be treated conservatively without a chest tube if it is deflated by what percentage?

A)30%

B)45%

C)60%

D)All pneumothoraxes require a chest tube.

Q3) If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?

A)Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.

B)The area will be super sensitive.

C)The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.

D)The area is as susceptible as any other area.

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Chapter 20: Palliative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding pain?

A)If a patient complains of pain but has no physical signs, he or she is most likely exhibiting drug-seeking behaviors.

B)Acute pain is more intense and severe than chronic pain.

C)Pain is a subjective experience related to actual or potential tissue damage.

D)All of the above

Q2) Oxygen has shown no benefit in alleviating dyspnea in patients without hypoxemia. A)True

B)False

Q3) If a patient requires six rescue doses for breakthrough pain in a 24-hour period, what would be an appropriate intervention?

A)Increase the dose of the baseline long-acting medication.

B)Increase the dose of the rescue short-acting medication.

C)Switch to a different short-acting rescue medication.

D)Do nothing, because this is appropriate, and the patient's pain is well controlled.

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Chapter 21: Ethical and Legal Issues of a Caring-Based Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Joint Commission mandates that all health-care organizations have:

A)A mechanism in place for the consideration of ethical issues

B)An Ethics committee

C)A resident parish nurse

D)Legal counsel who is knowledgeable about ethics

Q2) Which type of liability insurance covers only situations in which the incident occurred and the claim was made while the policy was in effect?

A)Claims made policy

B)Occurrence policy

C)An employment coverage policy

D)A "tail" policy

Q3) Which ethical principle is the foundation on which health care rests?

A)Autonomy

B)Nonmaleficence

C)Beneficence

D)Justice

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Chapter 22: Business of Advanced Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) Despite the growth in the numbers of advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs) over the last decades, the role of the profession is often not understood by the public.What actions should APRNs undertake to market their services to the public?

A)Request that the physician act as an APRN spokesperson.

B)Increase articles in nursing professional journals about the APRN role.

C)Personally seek out the news media to communicate their value.

D)Rely on patients to communicate their benefits to neighbors..

Q2) Beginning in 2014, all medical practices will be required by the CMS to adopt a certified electronic medical record software system for documenting and billing for medical services.What is a primary reason for this implementation mandate?

A)Allows CMS to audit all medical practices' performance

B)Standardizes the billing rules for all clinicians

C)Reduces the duplication of services noted in the current system

D)Reduces costs related to multiple billing systems

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Chapter 23: The 15-Minute Hour

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Sample Questions

Q1) The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:

A)Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning

B)Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy

C)Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician

D)Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication

Q2) Valliant (1979) discusses the "ubiquity of stress." Ubiquity of stress maintains that:

A)In a current and rapidly changing society, stress can be viewed as a positive.

B)Eustress is counterproductive.

C)The overwhelmed can functionally regress.

D)Dream therapy has been found to be an effective treatment of overwhelming stress.

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22

Chapter 24: Putting Caring Into Practice: Caring for Self

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to nurse theorist Jean Watson, a focus on positive intentionality_holding caring thoughts, loving kindness, and open receptivity_enhances caring energy, which leads to healing.How can the APRN bring this to their practice?

A)Spiritual readings, centering oneself before patient encounters, engaging in behaviors that help build positive energy

B)Review of materials on primary care before going into the work environment to increase one's confidence, leading to caring energy

C)Travel to sacred places

D)Helping the poor and homeless_volunteering at a domestic violence shelter, for example_in addition to one's regular practice .

Q2) Qualities associated with resilience include:

A)Hope, self-efficacy, and optimism

B)Stick-to-it-ness, belief in a higher power

C)Education, self-regulation, and use of activity to decrease stress

D)Ability to take vacations and the availability of support systems and a secure work environment

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