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Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner Review Questions - 549 Verified Questions

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Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner

Review Questions

Course Introduction

The Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner course prepares students to deliver comprehensive primary care to adults across the lifespan, including young adults, adults, and older adults. Emphasizing health promotion, disease prevention, and management of acute and chronic health conditions, the curriculum integrates advanced assessment, diagnostic reasoning, and evidence-based clinical decision-making. Students gain proficiency in collaborative care, patient education, and interprofessional communication, enabling them to address complex needs of diverse adult and aging populations in various primary care settings. The course also highlights ethical, legal, and policy issues relevant to adult-gerontology primary care practice.

Recommended Textbook

Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing 4th Edition by Dunphy

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21 Chapters

549 Verified Questions

549 Flashcards

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Chapter 3: Health Promotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pandemic affects many communities in a short period of time.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention in a 50-year-old woman?

A)Yearly mammogram

B)Low animal fat diet

C)Use of seat belt

D)Daily application of sunscreen

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for a 76-year-old man newly diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency?

A)Calcium supplementation

B)Testicular self-examination

C)Bone density test

D)Digital rectal examination

Answer: A

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3

Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nursing research should be utilized by:

A)Nurses at the bedside

B)Advanced practice nurses

C)Nurse researchers

D)Nurses at all levels of practice

Q2) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VI evidence?

A)Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies

B)Opinion of authorities and expert committees

C)Well-designed case control or cohort studies

D)Single descriptive or qualitative study

Q3) Practice guidelines are designed to:

A)Be inflexible

B)Be utilized in every circumstance

C)Provide a reference point for decision making

D)Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession

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Chapter 6: Neurological Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson's disease (PD).He asks why this is necessary.You tell him:

A)"L-dopa is neuroprotective."

B)"The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine."

C)"This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit."

D)"This is the initial monotherapy drug."

Q2) Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis.She has not had a good response to interferon.Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?

A)Glatiramer acetate

B)Natalizumab

C)Fingolimod

D)Glucocorticoids

Q3) Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?

A)1 hour

B)3 hours

C)6 hours

D)12 hours

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Chapter 7: Skin Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement regarding necrotizing fasciitis is true?

A)The hallmark of this infection is its slow and steady progression.

B)Once the border of the infection is "established," it does not spread.

C)Loss of life or limb is a potential complication.

D)The lesion is most dangerous, because it is painless.

Q2) Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity.Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobic bacteria?

A)Staphylococcal aureus

B)Clostridium perfringens

C)S.pyrogenes

D)Streptococcus

Q3) Jeffrey has atopic dermatitis.You are prescribing a low-dose topical corticosteroid for him.Which would be a good choice?

A)Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05%

B)Hydrocortisone base 2.5%

C)Halcinonide 0.1%

D)Desonide 0.05%

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Chapter 8: Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of bilberry as a complementary therapy for cataracts?

A)The body converts bilberry to vitamin A, which helps to maintain a healthy lens.

B)Bilberry blocks an enzyme that leads to sorbitol accumulation that contributes to cataract formation in diabetes.

C)Bilberry boosts oxygen and blood delivery to the eye.

D)Bilberry is a good choice for patients with diabetes as it does not interact with antidiabetic drugs.

Q2) Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure.Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure?

A)0 to 7 mm Hg

B)8 to 21 mm Hg

C)22 to 40 mm Hg

D)40 to 80 mm Hg

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Chapter 9: Respiratory Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

A)Glaucoma

B)Increased sperm quality

C)Bladder cancer

D)Eczema

Q2) Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix.You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow.When should he plan to quit smoking?

A)He should stop smoking today.

B)He should stop smoking tomorrow.

C)His quit date should be in 1 week.

D)He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.

Q3) African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

A)Inhaled corticosteroids

B)Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

C)Leukotriene receptor agonists

D)Oral corticosteroids

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Chapter 10: Cardiovascular Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Statins are approved for which age group?

A)Children over the age of 2

B)Children over the age of 6

C)Children over the age of 10

D)Only adolescents and adults

Q2) In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?

A)First-degree AV block

B)Second-degree Mobitz I AV block

C)Second-degree Mobitz II AV block

D)Third-degree AV block

Q3) Which ECG change is typical of cardiac ischemia?

A)T-wave inversion

B)ST-segment elevation

C)Significant Q wave

D)U-wave

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Chapter 11: Abdominal Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mr.J.K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds.He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes Tums¨ with temporary relief.He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest.Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain?

A)The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves.

B)Coffee and fried foods donÕt bother him,

C)He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth.

D)All of the above

Q2) Which of the following is part of the treatment plan for the patient with irritable bowel syndrome?

A)High fiber diet

B)Tylenol with codeine

C)Daily laxatives

D)All of the above .

Q3) Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)?

A)Malabsorption

B)Constipation

C)Rectal bleeding

D)Esophageal ulceration

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Chapter 12: Renal Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) An 82-year-old woman with renal failure is seen in the clinic.The provider should question the patient about the intake of which of these substances that can cause renal toxicity?

A)Ibuprofen

B)Captopril

C)Losartan

D)All of the above

Q2) Which of the following foods should be limited in a patient with CRF?

A)Milk

B)Bananas

C)Soy sauce

D)All of the above

Q3) Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?

A)BUN and creatinine

B)Electrolytes

C)Creatinine clearance

D)Urinalysis

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Chapter 13: Mens Health Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Treatment for epididymitis includes which of the following?

A)Warm sitz baths

B)Scrotal elevation

C)Masturbation

D)All of the above

Q2) A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means.In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?

A)The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.

B)There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.

C)The cancer is confined to the capsule.

D)There is metastasis to distant organs.

Q3) A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

A)Testicular cancer

B)Inguinal hernia

C)Varicocele

D)All of the above

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Page 12

Chapter 14: Womens Health Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 58-year-old woman, who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45, is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis.Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

A)Conjugated estrogen, 0.625 mg/day oral

B)Estradiol, 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring

C)Medroxyprogesterone, 10 mg/day oral

D)Conjugated estrogen, 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Q2) Most breast cancer cases are in women with a family history of breast cancer.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea.Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?

A)Ceftriaxone

B)Doxycycline

C)Acyclovir

D)Metronidazole

Q4) Oral contraceptive pills can cause endometrial cancer.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Musculoskeletal Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mr.Jackson is a 65-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis.The clinician has explained to Mr.Jackson that the goals for managing osteoarthritis include controlling pain, maximizing functional independence and mobility, minimizing disability, and preserving quality of life.Mr.Jackson explains to the clinician that his first choice would be to use complementary therapies to control his condition and asks what therapies are most effective in treating osteoarthritis.What would be the most appropriate response from the clinician?

A)"Complementary therapies should be considered only if surgical interventions are not successful."

B)"I am unfamiliar with the available complementary therapies for osteoarthritis and prefer to discuss more mainstream treatments, such as NSAIDs and physical therapy, to manage your condition."

C)"I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you.Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy."

D)"It would be crazy to use complementary therapies to treat such a serious condition."

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Page 14

Chapter 16: Endocrinemetabolic Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism.Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?

A)High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4

B)Free T4 and serum calcium

C)Free T3 and T4

D)TSH and thyroxin antibodies

Q3) A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism.Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

A)Sinus bradycardia

B)Atrial fibrillation

C)Supraventricular tachycardia

D)U waves

Q4) Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Hematologic and Immune Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Spontaneous bruising may be seen with platelet counts below what level?

A)100,000 cells/mL

B)75,000 cells/mL

C)50,000 cells/mL

D)30,000 cells/ml

Q2) When analyzing synovial fluid, if it is opaque, white, or translucent; has 5,000 leukocytes/Ml; 80% polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN); and a low red blood cell count, it may be indicative of which of the following conditions?

A)This is a normal result.

B)Scleroderma

C)Rheumatoid arthritis

D)Sickle cell disease

Q3) Which type of the following is characterized by fatigue on awakening that may improve with exercise?

A)Functional fatigue

B)Fatigue with an organic origin

C)Fatigue of chronic anemia

D)Fatigue of depression and anxiety

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16

Chapter 18: Psychosocial Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A)Liver function

B)Vision

C)Growth parameters

D)Renal function

Q2) What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?

A)0.05

B)0.1

C)0.2

D)0.3

Q3) It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors.Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?

A)Depression

B)Obsessive-compulsive disorder

C)Substance abuse

D)PTSD

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17

Chapter 19: Emergency Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may leak through the cribriform plate region of the skull following a head injury and cause which of the following?

A)Ear CSF otorrhea

B)Leakage of CSF from the eye

C)Nasal CSF rhinorrhea

D)Leakage of CSF from the mouth

Q2) A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?

A)A sprain

B)A strain

C)A partial fracture

D)A fracture

Q3) Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?

A)Arsenic

B)Lead

C)Carbon monoxide

D)Strychnine

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18

Chapter 20: Palliative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would be a cause of visceral pain?

A)Bone metastases

B)Intra-abdominal metastases

C)Musculoskeletal inflammation

D)Postsurgical incisional pain

Q2) Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?

A)Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms

B)Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support

C)Identifying and managing complications of care

D)All of the above

Q3) Which of the following is the best description of dyspnea?

A)An oxygen saturation of less than 90%

B)Respiratory rate greater than 24

C)A psychological state resulting in the feeling of air hunger

D)A subjective feeling of breathlessness

Q4) Some anticonvulsant drugs can be used as an adjuvant treatment for mild pain.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 21: Ethical and Legal Issues of a Caring-Based Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) Constructing a decision tree is helpful in analyzing ethical dilemmas, because a decision tree:

A)Shows the best solution

B)Explains the ethical principles

C)Delineates the legal parameters

D)Allows all the options to be considered

Q2) The relationship between ethics and law is such that:

A)What is ethical is also legal

B)What is unethical is also illegal

C)Legal actions may be both ethical and unethical

D)There is no relationship between the law and ethics

Q3) Three components must be present to establish malpractice.Which one does NOT apply?

A)The APRN must be paid for the services in question.

B)The provider must have a duty to the patient.

C)The standard of care must have been deviated from or breached.

D)Harm or damages must have occurred as a result of the duty and a breach of the standards of care.

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Chapter 22: Business of Advanced Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify one of the primary reasons for an APRN to develop a business plan?

A)To monitor monthly actual expense to budgeted expense

B)To reduce the likelihood of litigation action

C)To identify the marketing needed to grow the APRN practice

D)To assure accreditation standards are met

Q2) Maintaining optimum cash flow is a basic fundamental concept in all businesses.Cash flow is impacted at the initial request for appointment and is affected by practices that include:

A)Billing within 15 days of services

B)Beneficiary verification of patient

C)Timely processing of denials

D)Identifying payment below contract rate

Q3) Each state has criteria defining the level of collaboration required between the APRN and an oversight physician.Which is among the questions an APRN should seek when selecting a practice setting?

A)List of practice limitations as an APN

B)Standard hourly rate as office staff

C)Expectation for net revenue generation

D)Standard benefit package offered to office staff

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Page 21

Chapter 23: The 15-Minute Hour

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Sample Questions

Q1) The BATHE technique was developed more than 20 years ago and has been used extensively in primary care and family practice.The new 'Positive BATHE' stresses:

A)A belief that all things are possible through positive affirmations

B)A belief that one should only refer to practitioners who embrace the viewpoint of positive psychology

C)Personal accomplishment, thankfulness, autonomy, and general positive effect

D)The patient's problems and concerns

Q2) Valliant (1979) discusses the "ubiquity of stress." Ubiquity of stress maintains that:

A)In a current and rapidly changing society, stress can be viewed as a positive.

B)Eustress is counterproductive.

C)The overwhelmed can functionally regress.

D)Dream therapy has been found to be an effective treatment of overwhelming stress.

Q3) Commonalities among psychotherapeutic techniques include the following:

A)Dream therapy, listening, and reflection

B)Psychodrama, group psychotherapy, and 12-step programs

C)Self-help groups

D)Obtaining external perspective and participation in a helping relationship

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Chapter 24: Putting Caring Into Practice: Caring for Self

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Sample Questions

Q1) The term resilience implies:

A)Ability to look to a higher power to get you through a crisis

B)Response to difficult and adverse circumstances through positively adjusting to stressors

C)That the APRN can weather any emergency

D)Learning to set appropriate boundaries

Q2) The qualities of resilience that Patsy demonstrated when responding to Sue include:

A)Protecting her own positive attitude by lessening her contact with Sue, a negative person

B)The ego strength to admit failure in her ability to orient Sue, a destructive person

C)Protecting her organization by sharing Sue's deficiencies with their supervisor

D)Asserting her positive approach and basic optimism by initiating an honest discussion with Sue and having the emotional insight to recognize Sue's negative effect on her

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