Adult-Gerontology Nurse Practitioner
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
The Adult-Gerontology Nurse Practitioner course prepares nursing students to provide comprehensive, advanced practice care to adults and older adults across diverse healthcare settings. Emphasizing evidence-based clinical decision-making, the curriculum covers health promotion, disease prevention, diagnosis, and management of acute and chronic conditions commonly encountered in the adult and elderly population. Students gain competencies in performing advanced health assessments, developing and implementing therapeutic plans, and facilitating patient-centered care while understanding the physiological, psychological, and social complexities associated with aging. The course also addresses interprofessional collaboration, ethical considerations, and cultural sensitivity to equip future nurse practitioners with the skills necessary for effective patient advocacy and leadership in adult-gerontology healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing 4th Edition by Dunphy
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21 Chapters
549 Verified Questions
549 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 3: Health Promotion
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "bird" flu of 2005 to 2006 is considered a sporadic outbreak.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
Answer: A
Q3) A pandemic affects many communities in a short period of time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The number of cases of a particular disease for the past 5 years is an example of the incidence rate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Care
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VI evidence?
A)Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies
B)Opinion of authorities and expert committees
C)Well-designed case control or cohort studies
D)Single descriptive or qualitative study
Q2) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level IV evidence?
A)Single descriptive or qualitative study
B)Opinion of authorities and expert committees
C)Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies
D)Well-designed controlled trials without randomization
Q3) Which of the following are parts of evidence-based practice?
A)Clinician
B)Patient
C)Evidence
D)All of the above
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Chapter 6: Neurological Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "freezing phenomenon" is a cardinal feature of?
A)Parkinson's disease
B)Alzheimer's disease
C)A CVA
D)Bell's palsy
Q2) How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?
A)Every 3 months
B)Every 6 months
C)Annually
D)Whenever there is a problem
Q3) The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
A)No activity at all
B)A blank stare
C)Urine is usually voided involuntarily
D)The attack usually lasts several minutes
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Chapter 7: Skin Problems
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marci has a wart on her hand.She says she heard something about "silver duct tape therapy." What do you tell her about his?
A)It is an old wives' tale.
B)It is used as a last resort.
C)Salicylic acid is more effective.
D)It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.
Q2) Tori is on systemic antifungals for a bad tinea infection.You are aware that the antifungals may cause:
A)Renal failure
B)Skin discoloration
C)Breathing difficulties
D)Hepatotoxicity
Q3) Why do people of African descent have a lower incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer?
A)They have an increased number of melanocytes.
B)Their darker skin protects from ultraviolet radiation.
C)Their skin is thicker.
D)Their immune system is stronger.
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Chapter 8: Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations would referral to a specialist be needed for sinusitis?
A)Recurrent sinusitis
B)Allergic sinusitis
C)Sinusitis that is refractory to antibiotic therapy
D)All of the above
Q2) A patient presents to the clinician complaining of ear pain.On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness on traction of the pinna as well as when applying pressure over the tragus.These findings are classic signs of which condition?
A)Otitis media
B)Meniere's disease
C)Tinnitus
D)Otitis externa
Q3) Otitis media is considered chronic when:
A)Inflammation persists more than 3 months with intermittent or persistent otic discharge.
B)There are more than six occurrences of otitis media in a 1-year period.
C)Otitis media does not resolve after two courses of antibiotics.
D)All of the above
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Page 7
Chapter 9: Respiratory Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function is true?
A)Cigarette smoking accelerates the decline in pulmonary function tenfold.
B)Smoking cessation can reverse most pathological changes.
C)Cigarette smoking decreases mucus production.
D)There is a normal age-related decline in pulmonary function.
Q2) Julie has a postnasal drip along with her cough.You assess her for:
A)Asthma
B)Sinusitis
C)Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis
D)Influenza
Q3) Which of the following patients would you expect to have a decreased response to TST?
A)Julie, a 50-year-old postal worker
B)Sandy, a 40-year-old patient who recently survived a fire that left 40% of her total body surface covered in burns
C)Jill, a 16-year-old cheerleader
D)Mark, a 29-year-old tennis player
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Chapter 10: Cardiovascular Problems
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
A)Greater than 30
B)Greater than 40
C)Greater than 50
D)Greater than 60
Q2) For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of symptom onset.Studies have shown, however, that thrombolytic therapy can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of MI symptoms?
A)6 hours
B)8 hours
C)10 hours
D)12 hours
Q3) Which ECG change is typical of cardiac ischemia?
A)T-wave inversion
B)ST-segment elevation
C)Significant Q wave
D)U-wave
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9
Chapter 11: Abdominal Problems
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 22-year-old is seen complaining of vague belly pain.This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis?
A)Very early
B)3 to 4 hours after perforation
C)Late in inflammation
D)Appendicitis never presents with vague pain.
Q2) A 25-year-old accountant is seen in the clinic complaining of crampy abdominal pain after meals.She is often constipated and takes laxatives, which are followed by a couple of days of diarrhea.She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement.She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension.She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool.This problem has gone on for about 6 months.What should the next step be?
A)Obtain a complete history.
B)Order a barium enema.
C)Schedule a BernsteinÕs test.
D)Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.
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Chapter 12: Renal Problems
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with CVA tenderness and a several-day history of high fever, chills, and dysuria.Which of the following diagnoses is most likely given the above information?
A)Pyelonephritis
B)Cystitis
C)Renal calculi
D)Bladder tumor
Q2) A patient is seen in the office complaining of severe flank pain.The clinician should assess this patient for which risk factor for kidney stones?
A)Hypertension
B)Constipation
C)Tubal ligation
D)Diabetes
Q3) Which of the following foods should be limited in a patient with CRF?
A)Milk
B)Bananas
C)Soy sauce
D)All of the above
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11
Chapter 13: Mens Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 56-year-old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80 mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 mg (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long?
A)3 to 7 days
B)14 to 21 days
C)3 to 6 weeks
D)6 to 12 weeks
Q2) The patient with BPH is seen for follow-up.He has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 6 months.The clinician should assess this patient for which of these side effects?
A)Erectile dysfunction
B)Glaucoma
C)Hypotension
D)Headache
Q3) A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of painful erections, and he notices his penis is crooked when erect.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A)Peyronie's disease
B)Damage to the pudendal artery
C)Scarring of the cavernosa
D)All of the above
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Chapter 14: Womens Health Problems
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding.Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
A)Pregnancy test
B)Pelvic ultrasound
C)Endometrial biopsy
D)Platelet count
Q2) A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods.She is pale and states she can no longer exercise.Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass.Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?
A)Transvaginal ultrasound
B)Endometrial biopsy
C)MRI
D)Abdominal computed tomography scan
Q3) What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
A)Pregnancy
B)Pituitary dysfunction
C)Inadequate estrogen levels
D)Genetic disorders
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Page 13
Chapter 15: Musculoskeletal Problems
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
A)1,200 mg/day
B)1,000 mg/day
C)1,300 mg/day
D)1,500 mg/day
Q2) Which of the following tests is considered the gold standard for definitively diagnosing osteoporosis?
A)Bone alkaline phosphatase levels
B)Urinary N-telopeptide assay
C)Bone mass density measurement by densitometry
D)Magnetic resonance imaging
Q3) Which stage of Paget's disease is characterized by elevated numbers of osteoblasts, resulting in abnormal increases in bone remodeling and leading to an irregular deposition of collagen fibers?
A)Lytic
B)Mixed
C)Sclerotic
D)All of the above
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Chapter 16: Endocrinemetabolic Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
A)Once a year
B)Every 6 months
C)Every 3 months
D)Every visit
Q2) A BMI of 29 kg/m<sup>2</sup> is considered obesity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The patient is prescribed radioactive iodine (RAI) and asks the clinician how this drug works.The clinician's response should include which of the following data?
A)RAI prevents the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
B)RAI binds free T4.
C)RAI destroys thyroid tissue.
D)RAI reduces freely circulating iodine.
Q4) Urine-free cortisol is one of four diagnostic tests recommended for Cushing's syndrome.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 17: Hematologic and Immune Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spontaneous bruising may be seen with platelet counts below what level?
A)100,000 cells/mL
B)75,000 cells/mL
C)50,000 cells/mL
D)30,000 cells/ml
Q2) What is the most common cause of generalized musculoskeletal pain in women ages 20 to 55?
A)Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)
B)Anemia
C)Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS)
D)Sports-related injuries
Q3) Which of the following is identified as an eating disorder in which a person craves food substitutes, such as clay, ice chips, and cotton, and is considered an objective finding associated with severe iron deficiency?
A)Ferritin
B)Porter's syndrome
C)Hypochromasia
D)Pica
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16
Chapter 18: Psychosocial Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?
A)Decrease in adrenal size
B)Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone
C)An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone
D)Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone
Q2) Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?
A)Every 30 minutes
B)Every 60 minutes
C)Every 90 minutes
D)Every 180 minutes
Q3) Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
A)GABA
B)Acetylcholine
C)Dopamine
D)Serotonin
Q4) Parkinson's disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Emergency Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true about antibiotic prophylaxis for most wounds?
A)It is not indicated for most wounds and does not affect the infection rate.
B)Antibiotics should always be ordered for a wound.
C)Antibiotics need to be ordered for at least 2 weeks.
D)Antibiotics should be ordered only if sutures are in place..
Q2) Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
A)Dogs
B)Cats
C)Humans
D)Rodents
Q3) Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9¡F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?
A)Heat cramps
B)Heat syncope
C)Heat exhaustion
D)Heat stroke
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18
Chapter 20: Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
A)Benzodiazepines
B)Antipsychotics
C)Anticonvulsants
D)Antidepressants
Q2) A patient is receiving long-acting oxycodone for pain control.The clinician thinks that he also will benefit from a short-acting oxycodone for breakthrough pain.How will the clinician figure out what the dose of short-acting oxycodone should be?
A)The short-acting dose should be 10% to 20% of the total 24-hour long-acting dose.
B)The short-acting dose should be 40% to 50% of the total 24-hour long-acting dose.
C)The short-acting dose should be 10% to 20% of each long-acting dose.
D)The short-acting dose should be 40% to 50% of each long-acting dose.
Q3) Patients who are receiving life-prolonging therapies do not qualify for palliative care.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19
Chapter 21: Ethical and Legal Issues of a Caring-Based Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deontology is:
A)The greatest amount of happiness or the least amount of harm for the greatest number
B)The consideration of consequences and the calculation of benefits
C)The belief that the ends justify the means
D)The principle of universalizability
Q2) Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
A)Autonomy
B)Beneficence
C)Justice
D)Veracity
Q3) Three components must be present to establish malpractice.Which one does NOT apply?
A)The APRN must be paid for the services in question.
B)The provider must have a duty to the patient.
C)The standard of care must have been deviated from or breached.
D)Harm or damages must have occurred as a result of the duty and a breach of the standards of care.
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Chapter 22: Business of Advanced Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medicare advantage plans, also called Medicare HMO Plans, are plans approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) as alternative carriers for Medicare beneficiaries.Which of the following is not a characteristic of these plans?
A)Offer additional benefits
B)Offer lower copayments
C)Follow Medicare benefit rules
D)Follow the Commercial Carriers rules
Q2) Current procedural terminology (CPT) coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and nonphysician practitioners.Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that, in turn, are based on practice components.Which of the following is a part of the components used to calculate the per CPT code payment rate?
A)Clinician education loans
B)Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
C)Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
D)Clinician volume of patients treated
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Chapter 23: The 15-Minute Hour
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Sample Questions
Q1) BATHEing the patient refers to:
A)A technique used in primary care to get the patient to accept the need for psychological or psychiatric referral
B)A technique used to facilitate cultural understanding
C)A technique used to perform psychotherapy
D)A technique that is a quick screen for psychiatric issues and interventions for psychological problems
Q2) One benefit of motivational interviewing (MI) is:
A)It assumes that ambivalence is a normal part of the change process.
B)It can be utilized during routine office visits.
C)It is a therapeutic technique which is not necessarily time intensive.
D)All are benefits of MI.
Q3) One benefit of BATHEing a patient is that:
A)It allows providers an in-depth exploration of patient's presenting problems.
B)It assumes that ambivalence is a normal part of the change process.
C)It utilizes the therapeutic relationship to help patients in a time-sensitive approach.
D)It can be done only with extensive training in therapeutic technique.
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Chapter 24: Putting Caring Into Practice: Caring for Self
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The World Health Organization defines self-care as:
A)An important global activity for all health-care providers
B)A set of deliberate actions that all individuals, families, and communities should engage in to maintain good health
C)Essential to efficacious advanced practice nursing (APRN) practice
D)An awareness by the APRN of their self-care behaviors as related to diet, activity, and mental attitude
Q2) The following statement is true:
A)APRNs are often sensitive to patients' deficiencies but not their own.
B)APRNs always respond appropriately to patients, families, and team members.
C)APRNs are well-equipped from their APRN educational programs to care for self.
D)Relicensure in some states mandates continuing education units in self-care.
Q3) Qualities associated with resilience include:
A)Hope, self-efficacy, and optimism
B)Stick-to-it-ness, belief in a higher power
C)Education, self-regulation, and use of activity to decrease stress
D)Ability to take vacations and the availability of support systems and a secure work environment
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