Adult-Gerontology Nurse Practitioner Seminar
Final Exam
Course Introduction
The Adult-Gerontology Nurse Practitioner Seminar is designed to deepen students understanding of the advanced practice nurse role in providing primary and acute care to adult and elderly populations. Through case-based discussions, evidence-based practice evaluations, and interprofessional collaboration exercises, this seminar explores complex clinical scenarios, health assessment techniques, and disease management strategies across the lifespan from adolescence through advanced age. Students engage in critical reflection and analysis of ethical, cultural, and legal considerations affecting care, preparing them for leadership in diverse healthcare settings while emphasizing holistic, patient-centered approaches to promote optimal health outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses 3rd Edition
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20 Chapters
571 Verified Questions
571 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Assessment and Clinical Decision-Making:
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is false? While performing the physical examination,the examiner must be able to:
A) Differentiate between normal and abnormal findings
B) Recall knowledge of a range of conditions and their associated signs and symptoms
C) Recognize how certain conditions affect the response to other conditions
D) Foresee unpredictable findings
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is false? To obtain adequate history,health-care providers must be:
A) Methodical and systematic
B) Attentive to the patient's verbal and nonverbal language
C) Able to accurately interpret the patient's responses
D) Adept at reading into the patient's statements
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: An Overview of Genetic Assessment
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In autosomal recessive (AR)disorders,individuals need:
A) Only one mutated gene on the sex chromosomes to acquire the disease
B) Only one mutated gene to acquire the disease
C) Two mutated genes to acquire the disease
D) Two mutated genes to become carriers
Answer: C
Q2) An affected individual who manifests symptoms of a particular condition through whom a family with a genetic disorder is ascertained is called a(n):
A) Consultand
B) Consulband
C) Index patient
D) Proband
Answer: D
Q3) To illustrate two family members in an adoptive relationship in a pedigree:
A) Arrows are drawn pointing to the male and female
B) Brackets are drawn around the male and female
C) Double horizontal lines are drawn between the male and female
D) Circles are drawn around the male and female
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Skin
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin conditions frequently heralds an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Eczema
C) Urticaria
D) Erythema multiforme
Answer: C
Q2) A patient suffered a laceration of the shin three days ago,and today presents with a painful,warm,red swollen region around the area.The laceration has a purulent exudate.The clinician should recognize that the infected region is called:
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Folliculitis
C) Hidradenitis suppurative
D) Cellulitis
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Head,face,and Neck
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation of the parotid gland can cause which of the following conditions?
A) Trigeminal neuralgia
B) Bruxism
C) Mumps
D) Temporomandibular joint syndrome
Q2) A 6-year-old patient complains of a constantly itchy scalp that developed after returning home from school today.The most common cause for this condition in a child is:
A) Seborrheic dermatitis
B) Pediculosis
C) Psoriasis
D) Basal cell carcinoma
Q3) A patient with a positive Lyme titer presents with left-sided unilateral facial droop and inability to close the left eye.This is most likely due to:
A) Trigeminal neuralgia
B) Temporomandibular joint syndrome
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Bell's palsy
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Chapter 5: The Eye
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shining a light directly on one pupil should make the other pupil constrict.This is called the:
A) Accommodation response
B) Red reflex
C) Corneal light reflex
D) Consensual pupil response
Q2) A patient presents with eye redness,scant discharge,and a gritty sensation.Your examination reveals the palpable preauricular nodes,which are most likely with:
A) Bacterial conjunctivitis
B) Allergic conjunctivitis
C) Chemical conjunctivitis
D) Viral conjunctivitis
Q3) The most common cause of eye redness is:
A) Conjunctivitis
B) Acute glaucoma
C) Head trauma
D) Corneal abrasion
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Chapter 6: Ear, nose, mouth, and Throat
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malignant oral cancerous lesions are most frequently located on the:
A) Tongue
B) Tonsils
C) Gums
D) Hard palate
Q2) Your patient has been using chewing tobacco for 10 years.On physical examination,you observe a white ulceration surrounded by erythematous base on the side of his tongue.The clinician should recognize that very often this is:
A) Malignant melanoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Aphthous ulceration
D) Behcet's syndrome
Q3) With inspection of the mouth and buccal mucosa,Stensen's duct can be seen on the: A) Underside of the tongue
B) Buccal mucosa opposite the lower molars
C) Buccal mucosa opposite the upper molars
D) Soft palate
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Chapter 7: Cardiac and Peripheral Vascular Systems
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain associated with a dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm is commonly described as:
A) Retrosternal crushing and squeezing
B) Chest stabbing and sharp
C) Ripping and tearing in the chest or thoracic back
D) Worse with inspiration
Q2) Upon examination of a child,an innocent systolic murmur is heard at the second intercostal space left sternal border.This is usually due to:
A) Atrial septal defect
B) Patent foramen ovale
C) Low flow velocity
D) High flow turbulence
Q3) It is important for clinicians to recognize that individuals with often sustain silent myocardial infarction.
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hypertension
C) Valvular disorders
D) Congenital heart defects
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9
Chapter 8: Respiratory System
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If on physical examination the clinician auscultates rhonchi,the clinician should ask the patient to take a deep breath and cough in order to:
A) Mobilize secretions
B) Diagnose pleural effusion
C) Accurately distinguish lung sounds
D) A & C
Q2) A 23-year-old patient who has had bronchiectasis since childhood is likely to have which of the following:
A) Barrel-shaped chest
B) Clubbing
C) Pectus excavatum
D) Prolonged capillary refill
Q3) Patients with pulmonary fibrosis show decreased lung tissue compliance and diminished forced vital capacity (FVC).Pulmonary fibrosis is a type of:
A) Obstructive disease
B) Restrictive disease
C) Hyperreactive airway disease
D) None of the above
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Chapter 9: Breasts
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-year-old boy is brought into the clinic by his mother.The teen boy is embarrassed because he has developed breast tissue and would like to know if there is any treatment.The physical examination reveals early stages of puberty,otherwise it is normal.This presentation is:
A) Associated with a high rate of malignancy
B) Most often due to altered hormonal levels in puberty
C) Commonly indicative of pituitary tumor triggered by puberty
D) Too dense for a mammogram and requires biopsy
Q2) A condition that increases risk of breast cancer in a male is:
A) Pseudogynecomastia
B) BRCA1 and 2
C) Klinefelter's syndrome
D) B and C
Q3) Bloody breast discharge is associated with which of the following?
A) Bleeding disorder such as von Willebrand disease
B) Malignancy
C) Excessive non-steroidal anti-inflammatories
D) A and C
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11
Chapter 10: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following symptom(s)in the patient's history should raise the clinician's suspicion of colon cancer:
A) Alternating constipation and diarrhea
B) Narrowed caliber of stool
C) Hematochezia
D) All of the above
Q2) Rebound tenderness of the abdomen is a sign of:
A) Constipation
B) Peritoneal inflammation
C) Elevated venous pressure
D) Peritoneal edema
Q3) While assessing the abdomen,the clinician deeply palpates the left lower quadrant of the abdomen,and this causes pain in the patient's right lower abdomen.This is most commonly indicative of:
A) Constipation
B) Diverticulitis
C) Appendicitis
D) Hepatitis
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12
Chapter 11: Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region,fever,chills,dysuria,and nausea.On physical examination,there is 102 degree fever,tachycardia,and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion.The most likely condition is:
A) Lower urinary tract infection
B) Pyelonephritis
C) Nephrolithiasis
D) Hydronephrosis
Q2) A 15-year-old female patient presents with complaints of constant thirst,urination up to 20 times a day,and recent unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds over the last month.It is important for the clinician to recognize these symptoms as those of:
A) Renal cancer
B) Bladder cancer
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Interstitial cystitis
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13
Chapter 12: Male Reproductive System
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male and female patient complain of problems with conception.The female patient is in generally good health.The male patient is a body builder who admits to anabolic steroid use.It is important for the clinician to recognize that in male steroid users,there is often:
A) Atrophic testes
B) Excessive natural testosterone
C) Inadequate natural testosterone
D) A & C
Q2) In Klinefelter's syndrome,males commonly have:
A) Gynecomastia
B) Undeveloped testes
C) Tall height
D) All of the above
Q3) The most common cause of erectile dysfunction (ED)is:
A) Peripheral neuropathy
B) Low testosterone
C) Peripheral vascular disease
D) Autonomic neuropathy
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14
Chapter 13: Female Reproductive System
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To confirm the diagnosis of amenorrhea due to menopause,blood should be drawn for hormones.Which are the changes that occur with menopause?
A) FSH rises
B) LH decreases
C) LH rises
D) A & C
Q2) Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding commonly indicates:
A) Hormonal imbalance
B) Endometrial cancer
C) Endometriosis
D) Atrophic vaginitis
Q3) A 32-year-old female reports normal monthly menstrual periods but complains of having trouble with conception.It is important to ask about history of:
A) Dysmenorrhea
B) Sexually transmitted disease (STD)
C) Menorrhagia
D) Pap smears
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Chapter 14: Musculoskeletal System
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 34-year-old female presents with fever,general malaise,fatigue,arthralgias and rash for the last 2 weeks.On physical examination,you note facial erythema across the nose and cheeks.Serum diagnostic tests reveal positive antinuclear antibodies,anti-DNA antibodies,elevated C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate.The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential problems:
A) Fibromyalgia
B) Sarcoidosis
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Q2) To assess muscle tone,the clinician should:
A) Palpate the patient's muscle as the muscle is passively stretched
B) Examine how the patient performs active range of motion
C) Palpate the muscles comparing side to side
D) A and C
Q3) What is the most common cause of hip pain in older adults?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Trauma due to fall
D) Trochanteric bursitis
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Neurological System
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 78-year-old female comes to the clinic for a physical examination.She is accompanied by her daughter and looks to her daughter to answer questions during the interview.She was diagnosed with early Alzheimer's disease 2 years ago,and her daughter would like her current mental status evaluated. You ask the patient her daughter's name,and she answers correctly.You ask her the date and time,and she answers incorrectly.You hand the patient a pencil and ask her if she knows what it is.She replies with,"Is it a stick?" You ask the patient to put on a patient gown,and she does not know how to perform the task.These are examples of disorientation to time and:
A) Agnosia and apraxia
B) Anomia and aphasia
C) Agnosia and ataxia
D) Apathy and ataxia
Q2) Spina bifida is a disorder that is associated with a headache syndrome caused by:
A) Chiari malformation
B) Normal pressure hydrocephalus
C) Meningioma
D) Temporal arteritis
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nonspecific Complaints
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old male complains of fever 101 to 103 degrees for the last week.He reports fatigue,no appetite,sore throat,7-pound weight loss in the last week,and two episodes of nosebleeds.The patient reports no medical problems and no current medications.Surgical history is tonsillectomy at five years old.Paternal family history of hypertension and diabetes;father alive age 50.Maternal history: no significant disorders.Denies use of tobacco,"occasional alcohol use" on weekends.Denies unsafe sex.No recent travel.On review of systems,night sweats and dyspnea on exertion are noted.Which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
A) HIV infection
B) Malignancy
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Tuberculosis
Q2) Which of the following assists in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
A) Tensilon test
B) Tinel sign
C) McGill questionnaire
D) ACTH challenge test
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Psychiatric Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical depression with mixed features:
A) Indicates at least three manic symptoms coexist with a major depressive episode
B) Is more prevalent in older adults than adolescents and young adults
C) Decreases the likelihood that the illness exists in a bipolar spectrum
D) All of the above
Q2) When assessing an individual with depression,it is important for the clinician to:
A) Ask if there are thoughts of suicide
B) Ask if there is a plan for suicide
C) Ask if the individual wants to harm others
D) All of the above
Q3) What percentage of patients who commit suicide have depressive illness?
A) 100%
B) 90%
C) 70%
D) 50%
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Chapter 18: Pediatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is important for the clinician to recognize that a patent ductus arteriosus,which directs the fetal bloodstream from pulmonary artery to aorta,does not close until:
A) Day 4 after birth
B) 1 week after birth
C) 2 weeks after birth
D) 1 month after birth
Q2) In infants and toddlers,it is recommended to perform the physical examination:
A) In head-to-toe sequence
B) In noninvasive-to-invasive sequence
C) On the parent's lap
D) B and C
Q3) Which of the following is an abnormal finding in a male child?
A) Gynecomastia during puberty
B) Undescended testicles at 3 months
C) Enlarged scrotum during infancy
D) None of the above
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Chapter 19: Pregnant Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a pregnant woman,a glucose screening test should be done at:
A) 24 weeks
B) 20 weeks
C) 16 weeks
D) 10 weeks
Q2) A pregnant patient at 5 weeks' gestation reports slight amount of vaginal bleeding.The clinician should recognize that the following laboratory test should be done:
A) Serial HCG levels over the next several days
B) Measurement of estrogen levels
C) Cervical mucus analysis
D) Pap smear for sexually transmitted infection
Q3) If radiological studies are needed during pregnancy,it is important for the clinician to recognize that a(n)exposes a fetus to ionizing radiation.
A) Ultrasound
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Doppler equipment
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21
Chapter 20: Older Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rapid pace walk is a good screening test for driving ability of the elderly.The patient is timed to walk as swiftly as possible along a 10 foot path.A completion time of greater than indicates possible need for intervention.
A) 9 seconds
B) 8 seconds
C) 7 seconds
D) 6 seconds
Q2) Prior to giving clearance for an older adult to take part in an exercise regimen,the assessment tool should be used by the clinician.
A) Get up and go
B) Tinetti scale
C) PARmed-X
D) PAR-Q
Q3) The functional reach test is a good predictor of:
A) Susceptibility to fall
B) Complete range of motion
C) Dependence in ADLs
D) A & C
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