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This course explores the psychological, biological, and social changes that occur throughout adulthood and old age. Students will examine major theories and current research related to adult development, including cognitive, emotional, and personality changes, as well as the impact of work, relationships, and culture. The course also addresses issues such as health, retirement, and end-of-life concerns, aiming to provide a comprehensive understanding of the challenges and opportunities present during the adult years. By integrating scientific knowledge with real-world concepts, students will gain insights into promoting successful aging and enhancing quality of life across the adult lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Lifespan Development 3rd edition by Laura E. Berk
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Q1) Sigmund Freud constructed his psychosexual theory
A) on the basis of his adult patients' memories of painful childhood events.
B) by conducting studies of animal behavior.
C) on the basis of interviews with institutionalized children and adolescents.
D) by carefully observing his own children.
Answer: A
Q2) A major limitation of Vygotsky's theory is that it
A) neglects the biological side of development.
B) cannot be applied in other cultures.
C) overemphasizes the importance of heredity.
D) overemphasizes the role of brain growth in cognitive change.
Answer: A
Q3) In Ivan Pavlov's famous experiment with dogs,the neutral stimulus was
A) the food.
B) salivation.
C) the bell.
D) the trainer.
Answer: D
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Q1) During their early years,children of single births often __________ than twins.
A) develop more slowly
B) are healthier
C) are smarter
D) are happier
Answer: B
Q2) __________ is/are the longest-lasting context(s)for development.
A) Friends
B) Neighbors
C) The school
D) The family
Answer: D
Q3) In cases of X-linked inheritance,
A) males are more likely than females to be affected by the disorder.
B) females are more likely than males to be affected by the disorder.
C) children are more likely to inherit the disease from their mother than from their father.
D) children are more likely to inherit the disease from their father than from their mother.
Answer: A
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Q1) The age of viability
A) is the point at which the baby can first survive if born early.
B) occurs sometime between 18 and 21 weeks.
C) is the point at which the baby can be born without being premature.
D) occurs sometime during the second trimester of pregnancy.
Answer: A
Q2) The sense of vision
A) is well-developed at birth.
B) is the least developed of a newborn's senses.
C) becomes adultlike a few days after birth.
D) is more developed at birth than the sense of hearing.
Answer: B
Q3) Rh incompatibility problems are most likely to occur if an Rh-negative mother is carrying her __________ baby.
A) second Rh-positive
B) first Rh-negative
C) first Rh-positive
D) second Rh-negative
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following mothers is the most likely to actively discourage rapid motor development?
A) Elyse, a Canadian mother
B) Biyaki, a Zinacanteco Indian of Southern Mexico
C) Indira, a West Indian mother
D) Cheruiyot, a Kipsigis mother
Q2) In most people,the right hemisphere handles
A) spoken language.
B) spatial abilities.
C) positive emotion.
D) written language.
Q3) Jack and Jami are concerned that their chubby infant son,Angus,will become an overweight adult.Which of the following steps can they take to help prevent that?
A) Avoid giving Angus foods loaded with salt and sugar.
B) Give Angus foods containing saturated fats.
C) Bottle-feed Angus for the first six months.
D) Cut back on Angus's caloric intake throughout infancy and toddlerhood.
Q4) Define and describe the cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends in body growth.
Q5) Describe the development of pattern perception.
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Q1) Most infant intelligence tests
A) accurately predict later school achievement.
B) poorly predict later intelligence.
C) overemphasize problem-solving skills.
D) are good predictors of preschool mental test performance.
Q2) Babies begin to categorize on the basis of two correlated features by _____ months of age.
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
Q3) When 3-year-old Eva peels an orange,she calls it "opening" the orange.This is an example of
A) an underextension.
B) infant-directed speech.
C) an overextension.
D) referential style.
Q4) According to the core knowledge perspective,babies are born with a set of innate knowledge systems.List and describe core domains of thought.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about emotional self-regulation is true?
A) Collectivist cultures place less emphasis on socially appropriate emotional behavior than individualistic cultures.
B) Girls get more training than boys in suppressing negative emotions.
C) By the end of the first year, Chinese and Japanese infants smile and cry less than American infants.
D) By the end of the first year, Chinese and Japanese infants smile and cry more than American infants.
Q2) Although late adoptees are able to develop close ties with their adoptive parents,the children
A) usually exhibit a secure attachment pattern with multiple caregivers.
B) are still likely to experience attachment difficulties.
C) rarely exhibit insecure attachment patterns.
D) typically remain securely attached to their biological parents.
Q3) Baby Nathan is most likely to develop attachments to A) his mother only.
B) a variety of familiar people.
C) his father, but only when his mother is unavailable.
D) any female caregivers who feed him.
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Q1) Priya was born with a deficiency of thyroxine.She did not receive prompt treatment.Priya is most likely
A) extremely tall for her age.
B) mentally retarded.
C) inattentive and unruly.
D) strong in spatial relationship skills.
Q2) Five-year-old Sebastian is becoming better at thinking out a sequence of acts ahead of time and allocating his attention accordingly to reach a goal.Sebastian is developing __________ skills.
A) planning
B) centration
C) reversibility
D) recall
Q3) Compared with other industrialized nations,the United States
A) has a low childhood injury death rate.
B) has a high childhood injury death rate.
C) has a high preschool immunization rate.
D) is safer in terms of childhood illnesses and injuries.
Q4) Describe the development of writing.What does a preschooler's early printing look like?
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Q1) Mr.Cortez explains to his 5-year-old daughter that she should not talk loudly at the library because other people are trying to read.Mr.Cortez's explanation is an example of A) induction.
B) positive parenting.
C) a disciplinarian moral imperative.
D) an inner standard of morality.
Q2) In associative play,
A) a child plays near other children with similar materials but does not try to influence their behavior.
B) a child plays alone or watches other children while they play.
C) children engage in separate activities but exchange toys and comment on one another's behavior.
D) children orient toward a common goal, such as acting out a make-believe theme.
Q3) The majority of abusive and neglectful parents
A) lack "lifelines."
B) have developmental problems.
C) hyperfocus on their children.
D) are skilled at establishing social relationships.
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Q1) During middle childhood,__________ contributes enormously to vocabulary growth.
A) watching educational programming
B) reading
C) talking
D) using educational computer games
Q2) Individuals whose __________ systems function more efficiently appear to have an edge in intellectual skills.
A) endocrine
B) nervous
C) respiratory
D) cardiovascular
Q3) According to Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences,linguistic intelligence includes
A) the ability to detect and respond appropriately to the moods and motivations of others.
B) sensitivity to the sounds, rhythms, and meaning of words and the functions of language.
C) the ability to handle long chains of logical reasoning.
D) knowledge of one's own strengths, weaknesses, and desires.
Q4) Discuss the psychological consequences of childhood obesity.
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Q1) Mastery-oriented children are most likely to attribute failure to A) the malicious intent of another person.
B) ability.
C) bad luck.
D) insufficient effort.
Q2) Ten-year-old Greta is beginning to feel like she is in control of her emotional experience.She is acquiring A) perspective-taking skills.
B) a sense of emotional self-efficacy.
C) an ideal self.
D) a sense of inferiority.
Q3) Child rearing becomes easier in middle childhood for parents who established a(n)__________ style during the early years.
A) uninvolved
B) authoritarian
C) authoritative
D) permissive
Q4) Discuss the impact of maternal employment on development in middle childhood.
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Q5) Discuss sibling rivalry in middle childhood.What steps can parents take to reduce it?
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Q1) Adolescents who dabble in alcohol,tobacco,or marijuana are best described as
A) psychologically healthy, sociable, and curious.
B) rebellious and defiant.
C) having a high need for sensation seeking.
D) lonely and isolated.
Q2) Which of the following statements about dropping out of high school is true?
A) Compared with other students, dropouts are more likely to have involved parents.
B) Risk factors in first grade predict dropout nearly as well as risk factors in secondary school.
C) Nearly all dropouts achieve poorly and show high rates of norm-violating acts.
D) The dropout rate is higher among African-American teenagers than among Hispanic teenagers.
Q3) __________ youths rank highest in drug taking.
A) African-American
B) Native-American
C) Hispanic
D) Caucasian-American
Q4) Discuss adolescent moodiness.

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Q1) During adolescence,self-descriptions often include contradictory terms because teenagers
A) feel pressure to display different selves in different relationships.
B) are experiencing an identity crisis.
C) are often repeating characteristics others have attributed to them.
D) are egocentric and indecisive.
Q2) The suicide rate
A) decreases from middle childhood to early adolescence.
B) jumps sharply at adolescence.
C) decreases from adolescence to adulthood.
D) in the United States is low among industrialized nations.
Q3) Adolescents stuck in either __________ or __________ are passive in the face of identity concerns and have adjustment difficulties.
A) foreclosure; diffusion
B) foreclosure; moratorium
C) diffusion; achievement
D) moratorium; achievement
Q4) Discuss changes in self-esteem in adolescence.
Q6) Discuss the factors related to adolescent depression. Page 14
Q5) Discuss the impact of religious involvement on moral development in adolescence.
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Q1) Danielle,an overweight young adult,will probably
A) lose weight by age 25.
B) get heavier.
C) never become obese.
D) maintain her weight into her forties.
Q2) A major obstacle to the implementation of an apprenticeship program that even Germany has not overcome is
A) ensuring cooperation between schools and businesses in order to provide students with a satisfactory experience.
B) overcoming the reluctance of employers to assume responsibility for vocational training.
C) the tendency to assign males and females to traditional, gender-typed placements.
D) preventing low-SES youths from being concentrated in the lowest-skilled apprenticeship placements.
Q3) Describe how biological aging affects motor performance.
Q4) Compare and contrast dualistic thinking with relativistic thinking and commitment within relativistic thinking,referring to William Perry's Harvard University study.
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Q1) In the early weeks after a baby enters the family,
A) traditional marriages usually become more egalitarian.
B) most couples say that their communication quality improves.
C) gender roles of husband and wife usually become more traditional.
D) troubled marriages usually return to the "honeymoon phase."
Q2) In view of recent trends,it is likely that most Americans will spend a substantial part of their adult lives
A) childless.
B) single.
C) in a second marriage.
D) as a stepparent.
Q3) Robert Sternberg's __________ identifies three components-intimacy,passion,and commitment-that shift in emphasis as romantic relationships develop.
A) intimacy versus isolation stage
B) seasons of love theory
C) triangular theory of love
D) adaptation to life theory
Q4) Discuss the changes that adolescence brings to parenthood.
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Q5) Discuss the social clock.How does following a social clock impact development?

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Q1) As people get angry,
A) the heart rate plummets.
B) blood pressure escalates.
C) stress hormones decrease.
D) plaque dislodges.
Q2) When middle-aged adults surmount a highly stressful experience,they often report
A) a subsequent period of depression and anxiety.
B) lasting personal benefits.
C) subsequent escapist behaviors.
D) a decline in life satisfaction.
Q3) Negative stereotypes of aging
A) are more likely to be applied to men than to women.
B) yield a double standard.
C) have increased in recent years.
D) are uncommon in the media.
Q4) With age,many creators
A) become more spontaneous.
B) produce works that sum up or integrate ideas.
C) begin to focus on self-expression.
D) devote more energy to new discoveries.
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Q1) Tom,age 50,cares for his teenage daughter and his aging mother.Tom also provides some weekend care for his newborn grandson.Tom belongs to the __________ generation.
A) squeezed
B) kinkeeper
C) "me"
D) sandwich
Q2) At all ages,friendships
A) between men are more intimate than those of women.
B) between women are more intimate than those of men.
C) are based on physical proximity and similar interests.
D) between other-sex individuals are more intimate than same-sex friendships.
Q3) Which of the following women is likely to offer more social support to members of her community?
A) Marcy, a 23-year-old Caucasian American
B) Tonya, a 24-year-old African American
C) Joy, a 50-year-old African American
D) Pam, a 52-year-old Caucasian American
Q4) Define possible selves.How do they change in midlife?
Q5) Explain parental imperative theory.What are its criticisms?
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Q1) The abnormal ApoE4 gene is the most commonly known risk factor for A) familial Alzheimer's disease.
B) vascular dementia.
C) sporadic Alzheimer's disease.
D) Parkinson's disease.
Q2) Longitudinal research on robust centenarians suggests that
A) they are diverse in years of education, economic well-being, and ethnicity.
B) there is a link between childbearing and exceptional longevity.
C) very few have family members who have reached very old age.
D) most experience typical age-related chronic illnesses.
Q3) What is wisdom? List the five ingredients of wisdom that were rated in the most extensive research to date on the development of wisdom.
Q4) Older adults
A) tend to speak more quickly than they did in their younger years.
B) resolve tip-of-the-tongue states at a lower rate than do younger people.
C) use more sentences, but shorter ones, to convey their message.
D) have few compensatory techniques for their language production issues.
Q5) Discuss changes in taste,smell,and touch sensitivity in late adulthood.
Q6) Discuss the impact that falls can have in late adulthood.
Q7) How much sleep do older adults require? Discuss insomnia in late adulthood. Page 20
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Q1) Tilly,age 70,is asked for several life-defining memories.Considering her age,she is likely to mention
A) fewer events than a younger adult.
B) events related to her physical health.
C) more events that occurred in childhood or adolescence.
D) events with a consistent theme.
Q2) Discuss gay and lesbian partnerships in late adulthood.What unique challenges do they face?
Q3) Which of the following recently widowed seniors is the most likely to show resilience in the face of loneliness?
A) Wilma, who is shy
B) Tyrese, who is quiet
C) Betty, who is outgoing
D) Vin, who is aggressive
Q4) Trey,age 72,is most likely to
A) relocate to live closer to his children.
B) move to a more temperate climate.
C) remain living in or near his home.
D) relocate to a place to pursue leisure interests.
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Q5) What is a person-environment fit? How does this concept apply in late adulthood?

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Q1) Pat's relatives read sutras to him to calm his mind and emphasize that dying leads to rebirth in a heaven of peace and relaxation.Pat is most likely a(n)
A) African American.
B) Native American.
C) Buddhist.
D) member of the Maori tribe.
Q2) Obsessively reviewing the circumstances of a loved one's death is a common element of the __________ phase of the grieving process.
A) avoidance
B) confrontation
C) restoration
D) denial
Q3) Recognition of living wills is
A) essential in cases of potential organ donation.
B) usually limited to the terminally ill or those expected to die shortly.
C) rare except in cases of persistent vegetative states.
D) universal.
Q4) Discuss the benefits and consequences of dying at home.
Q5) Discuss the practice of voluntary active euthanasia.
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