Adult Development and Aging
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course explores the psychological, biological, and social processes of human development from early adulthood through old age. Students will examine theoretical perspectives and current research on aging, focusing on changes in cognitive, emotional, and physical functioning, as well as the influence of family, work, and society. Topics include adult life transitions, identity, personality, health and wellness, caregiving, and the challenges and opportunities associated with aging populations. Emphasis is placed on practical applications for supporting healthy aging and understanding the diversity of adult experiences across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Human Development A Life Span View 6th Edition by
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Page 2
Robert V. Kail
Chapter 1: The Study of Human Development
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199 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a correlational study variables are always studied A) as they exist naturally.
B) after some manipulation.
C) during an experiment.
D) at the population level.
Answer: A
Q2) You read a research article that concludes that the higher a student's self-esteem, the worse he performs in school. This sort of relationship would best be characterized as A) a negative correlation.
B) no relationship.
C) positive correlation.
D) cause and effect.
Answer: A
Q3) Results from individual research participants should be A) confidential.
B) public.
C) coded by name.
D) ignored.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Biological Foundations: Heredity, Prenatal
Development, and Birth
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Q1) As a behavioral geneticist, Professor Klink is most likely to calculate the extent to which depression is inherited using a _____ coefficient.
A) nonshared
B) DNA
C) polygenetic
D) heritability
Answer: D
Q2) When each member of a pair of alleles produces a different outcome, the alleles are classified as _____.
Answer: heterozygous
Q3) One key purpose of the amniotic fluid is to
A) provide the embryo with nutrients.
B) stimulate development of neurotransmitters.
C) screen the flow of blood between mother and embryo.
D) maintain a constant temperature for the embryo.
Answer: D
Q4) The point at which a fetus has a chance to survive if it were to be born is called the age of _____.
Answer: viability
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Chapter 3: Tools for Exploring the World: Physical,
Perceptual, and Motor Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stewart is a 10-year-old boy growing up in England, and Moe is a 10-year-old boy growing up in the United States. What difference in handedness would you expect?
A) It is most likely that Stewart is right-handed and Moe left-handed.
B) It is most likely that Stewart is left-handed and Moe right-handed.
C) Both are likely to be right-handed.
D) Both are likely to be left-handed.
Answer: C
Q2) If Tori is a proponent of dynamic systems theory, then you know that she is most interested in
A) the cerebral cortex.
B) crawling and stepping.
C) language development.
D) temperament.
Answer: B
Q3) To locomote means to move.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: The Emergence of Thought and Language:
Cognitive Development in Infancy and Early Childhood
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Q1) Dr. Gunga is attempting to determine the zone of proximal development for Dinn when Dinn works on complex mazes. In order to do so, Dr. Gunga must measure Dinn's personal performance on the maze and
A) Dinn's performance on several other Piagetian tasks.
B) Dinn's maze performance when assisted by a skilled helper.
C) Dinn's peers' performance on the same maze.
D) how well Dinn performed on the same maze earlier in his life.
Q2) In order to overcome a state of disequilibrium, a child must
A) engage in hypothetical deductive reasoning.
B) become more egocentric.
C) reorganize his or her schemes.
D) develop a strong orienting response.
Q3) According to the principle of guided participation, cognitive growth results from A) biological maturation.
B) interactions with a more skilled individual.
C) independent learning.
D) application of operant conditioning principles.
Q4) The core _____ hypothesis suggests that infants are born with a rudimentary understanding of the world.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Entering the Social World: Socioemotional
Development in Infancy and Early Childhood
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Q1) When infants look to a parent to get cues about whether or not a new situation is safe, they are exhibiting social _____.
Q2) Franklin and Benjamin are pretending to go to school. Franklin is pretending to be the teacher, and Benjamin is pretending to be the student. What sort of interaction does this exemplify?
A) Parallel play
B) Cooperative play
C) Simple social play
D) Constricting actions
Q3) Discuss gender differences in play behavior. Be sure to comment on both enabling and constricting actions.
Q4) According to gender-schema theory, in order to decide where to learn more about an object, a child must first
A) play with the object.
B) decide whether the object is associated with females or males.
C) develop gender constancy.
D) be reinforced for interacting with the object.
Q5) _____ psychology focuses on behaviors that represent successful adaptations to the environment.
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Chapter 6: Off to School: Cognitive and Physical Development in Middle Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been asked to serve on a committee charged with providing a school district with advice on how to build the most effective school that will have the most effective teachers. What specific advice on these two topics would you provide to this committee?
Q2) The definition of a "learning disability" always includes A) mild mental retardation.
B) attention deficit.
C) a sensory problem.
D) normal intelligence.
Q3) Metamemory is defined as an individual's A) intuitive understanding of memory. B) level of semantic memory.
C) sensory memory speed.
D) short-term memory capacity.
Q4) Intellectual disability can be traced to four factors, including ______, social, behavioral, and educational factors.
Q5) During their elementary school years, the average child gains about 8 pounds a year.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Expanding Social Horizons: Socioemotional Development in Middle Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) When all of his buddies call home to tell their parents they will be getting home late from the game, Dieter doesn't bother, saying, "My mom and dad are too busy to care about me. They don't care how late I'm out-in fact, they never even ask where I'm going."
If Dieter is right, his parents are most likely exhibiting a(n) ____ parenting style.
A) uninvolved
B) authoritarian
C) permissive
D) authoritative
Q2) What is the best advice you could give to an adolescent trying to gain popularity among his or her school peers?
A) "Be quiet."
B) "Be nice."
C) "Be subservient."
D) "Be aggressive."
Q3) _____ is having a negative view of others based on their membership in a specific group.
Q4) A(n) _____ consists of several similar cliques.
Q5) Learning what not to do by observing someone else is called _____.
Q6) _____ children are liked by most of their classmates.
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Chapter 8: Rites of Passage: Physical and Cognitive
Development in Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event defines spermarche?
A) The production of sperm
B) The ejaculation of sperm
C) The original meiosis of sperm
D) The implantation of sperm into an egg
Q2) Heuristics tend to be very
A) sophisticated.
B) fast.
C) accurate.
D) analytical.
Q3) Increases in content knowledge during adolescence results in advances in the ability to identify strategies appropriate for solving specific tasks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which phrase describes the emphasis of Gilligan's theory of moral development?
A) The ethic of care
B) The ethic of justice
C) The ethic of intelligence
D) The ethic of obedience
Q5) Binge-and-purge eating patterns are best associated with _____ nervosa.
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Chapter 9: Moving into the Adult Social World:
Socioemotional Development in Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) While counseling a friend who is having trouble with his girlfriend, 13-year-old Frasier decides that he has a talent for helping people deal with their problems and decides that he should pursue a career as a clinical psychologist. Frasier's response matches Super's ____ stage of career development.
A) implementation
B) specification
C) realistic
D) crystallization
Q2) Abby is 16, and Andy is 5. Both exhibit egocentrism. How is this egocentrism most likely to differ between them?
A) Andy is going to exhibit more self-interest.
B) Abby has reached achievement in most areas.
C) Abby knows that other people have different perspectives than her own.
D) Andy is more likely to exhibit the illusion of vulnerability.
Q3) During the implementation phase of career development, a person
A) first begins to think about career options.
B) selects the career of their parents.
C) becomes more educated about career options.
D) takes a job and learns firsthand about a career.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Becoming an Adult: Physical, Cognitive, and Personality Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A doctor is most likely to recommend that you consume higher levels of ____ to increase your HDL level.
A) fiber
B) fat
C) Sodium
D) Yogurt
Q2) Which of the following individuals is most likely to effectively integrate emotion into their thinking?
A) A female high school student
B) A male college student
C) A female in her mid 30s
D) A male in his mid 40s
Q3) How many of the following could be elements of someone's life story: emotions, main characters, a legacy?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q4) The amount of energy the body needs is called _____.
Page 12
Q5) _____ stereotyping is both automatic and unconscious.
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Chapter 11: Being with Others: Forming Relationships in Young and Middle Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) To qualify as "emotionally divorced," a couple must
A) experience a divorce.
B) seriously consider divorcing.
C) live in different locations.
D) fail to rebound in happiness.
Q2) Britany and Kevin ended up divorcing due to the fact that neither could tolerate each other's nagging and smoking habits. This rationale would best be described as a(n) ____ reason for getting divorced.
A) interpersonal problems
B) assertive mating
C) macro-level
D) demographic variable
Q3) According to research by Buss and colleagues, a(n) ____ man looking for a prospective mate would be most concerned about the woman's cooking competence and chastity status.
A) Chinese
B) Italian
C) Swedish
D) British
Q4) Marital ________ is an umbrella term referring to the marital outcome
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Chapter 12: Work and Leisure: Occupational and Lifestyle
Issues in Young and Middle Adulthood
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Q1) Research has indicated that the most critical factors in determining whether a formerly employed woman with a preschooler returns to work is her financial need and her level of
A) vocational maturity.
B) maternal instinct.
C) attachment to her job.
D) self-esteem.
Q2) When workers experience career plateauing, they may decide not to seek a promotion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Getting a more extensive education is one benefit of A) the reasonable person standard.
B) the glass ceiling.
C) role conflict.
D) changing occupations.
Q4) _____ is the degree to which your occupational behaviors match those expected of people your age.
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Q5) Describe the unique factors that influence occupational selection and development for women.
Chapter 13: Making It in Midlife: The Biopsychosocial
Challenges of Middle Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) How could Silvia enter the "sandwich generation?"
A) Get married
B) Have her father move in with her while she is still caring for a child at home
C) Enter a nursing home
D) Have her youngest child finally go to college, leaving her at home with just her husband
Q2) The two key sources of stress for adults caring for their parents include the child coping with a parent's functional decline and if the care A) is temporary.
B) is perceived as infringing on the caregiver's other responsibilities.
C) takes place in the parent's home.
D) takes place in a private facility..
Q3) Osteoarthritis involves a loss of bone mass and the honeycombing of bone material.
A)True B)False
Q4) Culture appears to play no role in how people perceive stress.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Personal Context of Later Life: Physical, Cognitive, and Mental Health Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intentionally coming up with the names of the capitals of all 50 states in the United States is an example of explicit memory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are hired by a social service agency to do safety inspections of the apartments of older adults. What would you not want to see in these apartments?
A) Night-lights by their beds
B) Handrails on both sides of stairways
C) Throw rugs on floors
D) Nonskid mats in bathtubs
Q3) Younger adults tend to report more sleep-related problems than older adults.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the typical developmental progression of psychomotor speed in mid to later life? In what ways can this progression be changed, and what implications does it have to the real-life event of driving?
Q5) People who study population trends are called _____.
Page 16
Q6) The most common form of dementia is _____ disease.
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Chapter 15: Social Aspects of Later Life: Psychosocial,
Retirement, Relationship, and Societal Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual with ____ well-being holds a positive self-evaluation that is based on positive life experiences.
A) dysphoric
B) indeterminate
C) subjective
D) inverse
Q2) The fact that Kenyon can cope with his current boss's bad attitude because he has had past experience dealing with similar bosses is best explained by A) continuity theory.
B) mechanics intelligence.
C) the social convoy.
D) cross-linking theory.
Q3) The comment, "I have been in this line of work for the past 35 years" is best associated with _____.
A) external continuity.
B) internal continuity.
C) external discontinuity.
D) internal discontinuity.
Q4) What is a life review? How is this related to achieving integrity?
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Chapter 16: The Final Passage: Dying and Bereavement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Death anxiety would likely be the lowest for
A) Sally, who is 80 years old.
B) Jesse, who is 45 years old.
C) Rikki, who is 30 years old.
D) Lake, who is 21 years old.
Q2) People are most likely to confront the death of a parent during young adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dr. Steinmetz decides to follow the wishes of her patient and withhold treatment for the patient's terminal cancer, thus allowing the patient to die. This is an example of A) a near-death experience.
B) passive euthanasia.
C) bioethics.
D) active euthanasia.
Q4) The practice of ending a life for reasons of mercy is called _____.
Q5) Passive euthanasia involves allowing a person to die by withholding treatment.
A)True B)False
Q6) _____ concerns the way we express our grief.
Page 18
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