Adolescent Development Final Exam
Course Introduction
Adolescent Development explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur as individuals transition from childhood to adulthood. This course examines key theories and research findings related to adolescent growth, identity formation, peer and family relationships, and the influence of culture and environment. Students will gain insight into challenges faced during adolescence, including mental health issues, risk behaviors, and the impact of technology. Emphasis is placed on understanding developmental milestones as well as strategies for supporting healthy development during this critical life stage.
Recommended Textbook
Lifespan Development 5th Canadian Edition by Denise Boyd
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19 Chapters
1981 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Concepts and Methods
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91 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a(n) ________ design, subjects of different ages are studied at the same time and the results are compared.
A) ethnographic
B) longitudinal
C) cross-sectional
D) cross-cultural
Answer: C
Q2) A researcher who wants to study how radiation affects a developing human fetus might use a(n) ________ research design.
A) case study
B) quasi-experimental
C) experimental
D) naturalistic observation
Answer: B
Q3) Studying one woman over a two-year period to obtain information regarding her physical health and habits is a great example of survey research.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Theories of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albert Bandura's observation that we may learn by watching another person behave in a certain way is the foundation for what theory?
A) social cognitive theory
B) classical conditioning
C) operant conditioning
D) social interaction theory
Answer: A
Q2) Albert Bandua's social learning theory suggests that people are passive receptors of learning based on observation and modelling.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Knowledge of ________ is foundational to understanding evolutionary theories.
A) genetics
B) biological processes
C) epigenetics
D) developmental milestones
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dilation and effacement refer to
A) when the cervix dilates and flattens out to approximately 10 centimetres.
B) when contractions are relatively far apart.
C) when the last two centimetres of dilation are achieved.
D) active phase contractions.
Answer: A
Q2) It is in the ________ stage of labour that the mother pushes and delivery begins.
A) third
B) active
C) second
D) first
Answer: C
Q3) Ultrasound testing is a routine part of prenatal care in Canada because it helps track prenatal development and growth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Physical, Sensory, and Perceptual Development in Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Canada is a world leader in food fortification. This means
A) growth hormones have been added to our dairy products.
B) all our food products have been inspected.
C) all our food products are low fat.
D) essential vitamins and/or minerals have been added to some food products.
Q2) Health care experts recommend that mothers exclusively breast-feed their babies for six or more months in the first year of life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process by which an infant's and child's bones harden is A) ossification.
B) fontanel formation.
C) fusion.
D) myelinization.
Q4) At age 2, Susie is 90 cm tall. We can predict that when she is an adult, Susie will be ________ tall.
A) 180 cm
B) 165 cm
C) 150 cm
D) 200 cm
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Chapter 5: Cognitive Development in Infancy
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Q1) Schematic learning in young infants can be understood as
A) the organization of experiences into expectancies.
B) the infant's ability to grasp basic-level categories.
C) a demonstration of habituation in infant learning.
D) the organization of experiences into hierarchical categories.
Q2) Your sister just had a baby, and you are discussing the pros and cons of letting her child watch positive children's programming on television. According to the American of Pediatrics, no child should watch television before the age of
A) 12 months.
B) 18 months.
C) 24 months.
D) 36 months.
Q3) Babies exhibit evidence of learning from A) four weeks after birth.
B) the first moments following birth.
C) two weeks after birth.
D) the first week after birth.
Q4) "Sst" is a word if a child consistently uses it to refer to her sister.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Social and Personality Development in Infancy
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Q1) Basil has developed a consistent routine for his child. This has enabled the child to be able to adapt to new situations and feel a level of comfort, which adds to the child's cheerful disposition. The temperament of the child could be described as a slow-to-warm-up temperament.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If they are happily married, mothers tend to be more responsive to their children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Foundation is to house as ________ is to personality.
A) temperament
B) attachment classification
C) emotion
D) self-concept
Q4) Neurological variables have proven to be more causal than genetics in the development of temperament characteristics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood
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110 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gabriella believes that when she spreads out her pennies across the table, she actually has more pennies than if they were in one small pile. Gabriella has not achieved
A) egocentrism.
B) conservation.
C) false belief principle.
D) theory of mind.
Q2) Joey has an iDog that dances to music when it is plugged into a computer. Joey believes the dog is alive because it moves. Joey's thinking demonstrates Piaget's concept of _______, seen in young children.
A) conservation
B) animism
C) compensation
D) locomotion capacity awareness
Q3) When Gregoriev says, "My doggie runned away," he is using
A) dialogic meaning.
B) overextension of class.
C) overregularization.
D) extended word meaning.
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Chapter 8: Social and Personality Development in Early Childhood
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125 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The style of communicating that tends to derail, shorten or end interaction, inhibiting or causing partners to withdraw, is common among A) boys.
B) girls.
C) children under 12 years.
D) adolescents.
Q2) The theory that suggests that social and emotional development is driven by growth in cognitive abilities is called
A) biopsychosocial theory.
B) social-cognitive theory.
C) information-processing theory.
D) cognitive development theory.
Q3) Around age 4, the child's internalized attachment model changes to become more of a general property of all the child's social relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Remarriage does not resolve all family problems.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements offers an accepted explanation for boy's overall poorer school performance?
A) uninteresting male role models
B) educational materials do not match interests
C) innate biological differences
D) pressure from expectations is too high
Q2) What statement about learning disabilities (LD) is true?
A) LD is clearly defined, understood, and supported through consistent special education policies across Canada's provinces and territories.
B) To receive a diagnosis of LD, a child must have average or above intellectual functioning.
C) LD is a very precise disorder with very specific symptoms and criteria that define it.
D) Consensus among the scientific community has determined that LD is a non-genetic disorder.
Q3) The term "dyslexia" is often used incorrectly to refer to a learning disability related to reading.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Social and Personality Development in Middle Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best example of relational aggression?
A) Ling yelled at her older sister, "Get up! I'm supposed to sit next to Daddy!"
B) Jonathan reached across the aisle and gave Iman's pigtail a hard tug.
C) Gloria announced to her friends, "We're not going to be friends with Sharma any more. She's fat!"
D) Ati lobbed a rotten apple at the boys in the treehouse, and they immediately began to chase her down the street.
Q2) An individual's self-esteem is influenced by many factors and may be subject to a good deal of variation throughout her lifetime.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Self-care has the most negative effects for children in
A) neighbourhoods with low crime rates.
B) affluent areas.
C) after-school programs.
D) neighbourhoods with high crime rates.
Q4) Gender segregation is not common among boys and girls age 6 to 12 years old.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence
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Q1) Comprehensive sex education causes teenagers to become sexually active.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Too much "screen time" is a contributing factor to obesity rates in Canadian boys but not in girls.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sensation seeking interacts with parenting styles to increase the likelihood of drug use.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although combined PISA (Programme for International Student Assessment) science test scores were equal for Canadian boys and girls, boys out-performed girls on the following two skills:
A) math and reading.
B) identifying scientific issues and explaining phenomena scientifically.
C) reading and identifying scientific phenomena.
D) explaining phenomena scientifically and math.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Social and Personality Development in Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a factor that can impact a teen's self-esteem negatively?
A) depression
B) achievements
C) eating disorders
D) anxiety
Q2) Minority teenagers face all of the following issues EXCEPT
A) self-identifying as a member of their specific group.
B) developing an individual identity.
C) committing to the values of their specific group.
D) assimilating into the dominant culture.
Q3) In adolescence, if the discrepancy between a teen's own ideas and those of friends becomes too great, the teen will be more likely to switch to a more compatible group of friends than to adopt the values or attitudes of the first group of friends.
A)True
B)False
Q4) By age 13, most adolescents have had the experience of being in love.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early
Adulthood
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114 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two general categories of aging identified by researchers?
A) decline and compensation
B) aerobic and anaerobic
C) individual and cohort comparative
D) primary and secondary
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a research-based recommendation to make to a friend who wants advice about health practices that might facilitate longevity?
A) Reduce dietary cholesterol.
B) Get regular sleep.
C) Eat breakfast every day.
D) Get regular physical exercise.
Q3) An individual has recently developed a form of cancer. Which aspect of the person's immune system would be involved in the development of the disease?
A) bone marrow, by producing more B cells
B) antibodies, through reduced efficiency
C) T cells, by losing their ability to recognize foreign cells
D) B cells, by producing fewer antibodies
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Social and Personality Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) Why do women experience the greatest role conflict during early adulthood?
A) They are still trying to advance in their careers.
B) There is still prejudice against working moms.
C) Their children are young and need constant care.
D) They are still completing their education.
Q2) The theory that the sex differences that occur in mate preferences and mating behaviour are based on the different amounts of time and effort that men and women
invest in child-rearing is called
A) parental investment theory.
B) gender-role theory
C) evolutionary theory
D) hunter-gatherer theory
Q3) Research has shown that single mothers have higher rates of managerial advancement than married mothers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Researchers believe that couples become unhappy because their interactions become negative.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hearing loss is a result only of primary aging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Guildford identifies that __________ thinking, or being able to provide multiple solutions to problems that have no clear answer, is an essential component of creativity.
A) expansive
B) unorthodox
C) divergent
D) out-of-the-box
Q3) In Canada, and most industrialized countries, the rate of cardiovascular disease has increased rapidly since the 1970s.
A)True
B)False
Q4) By middle adulthood, Canadians report
A) more anxiety disorders.
B) improved mental health.
C) higher rates of mental illness.
D) lower self-esteem.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Social and Personality Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vaillant argued that the name of one of Erikson's stages should be changed from "generativity" to "the keeper of meaning."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the retirement of the Canadian Baby Boomer cohort?
A) Baby Boomers view retirement planning as "a man's job."
B) Baby Boomers expect that their standard of living during retirement will be greatly reduced in comparison to their pre-retirement standard of living.
C) Most Baby Boomers believe Old Age Security and Canada Pension Plan benefits will be an adequate source of retirement income.
D) The expected 20 years of retirement for Baby Boomers is far longer than the retirement period of earlier generations.
Q3) How did Erikson characterize the developmental task of middle adulthood?
A) intimacy versus isolation
B) generativity versus stagnation
C) dialectical thought versus problem-finding
D) ego integrity versus despair
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Chapter 17: Physical and Cognitive Development in Late
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were to serve a platter of freshly baked chocolate-chip cookies to a group of older individuals, which of the following comments would you be most likely to hear?
A) "The flavours of food seem to be so strong, so I really don't care for anything sweet."
B) "I can't smell a thing, dear."
C) "These smell so good. They really make my mouth water!"
D) "These cookies smell and taste delicious!"
Q2) The ability to taste the four basic flavours (salty, bitter, sweet, and sour) does not appear to decline throughout the lifespan.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Older adults' difficulty in learning computer mouse skills, such as clicking and dragging objects across the screen, is related to ________ declines.
A) cognitive
B) fine motor
C) vision
D) touch sensory
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19
Chapter 18: Social and Personality Development in Late
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an aspect of disengagement theory?
A) decreased individuality
B) increased responsibility
C) shrinkage of life space
D) inactive extrication from roles and relationships
Q2) The most important factor in the timing of retirement is the availability of adequate financial support for retirement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ______ involves a common evaluative process in which seniors make judgments about their past behaviours as part of the process of achieving ego integrity.
A) Reminiscence
B) A life review
C) A life recap
D) Writing memoirs
Q4) Married elders experience more conflict and less pleasure in their marriages than do middle-aged couples.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Death, Dying, and Bereavement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a typical setting where hospice care may be given?
A) a community drop-in, urgent treatment clinic
B) a hospital
C) a homelike hospice centre
D) a home
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about comparisons between hospital care and hospice care?
A) According to studies, hospital care and hospice care do not differ in effectiveness of pain control for patients.
B) According to a study, the economic costs of death were less for patients receiving home-based hospice care because they were admitted to the hospital fewer times during their last months.
C) Home-based hospice care is more of a burden than hospital-based hospice care, especially for the central caregiver.
D) According to studies, those receiving hospital care did not survive as long as those receiving hospice care.
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