Administrative Procedures for Medical Assistants
Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of the administrative functions performed by medical assistants in various healthcare settings. Students will learn essential skills in patient scheduling, medical records management, insurance processing, billing and coding, correspondence, telephone techniques, and office ethics. The curriculum emphasizes the importance of confidentiality, professionalism, and effective communication. By the end of the course, students will be prepared to efficiently manage the front office operations of medical practices and support the clinical team in delivering quality patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A system by which a person (or the person's employer) pays an insurance company a yearly amount of money in exchange for the insurance company's paying some or most of the person's medical expenses for that year is
A) Fee-for-service plan
B) Health insurance
C) Capitation
D) Medicare
Answer: B
Q2) The insurance plan called ______________ is designed to provide health insurance for low-income people.
A) Medicaid
B) Medicare
C) Social Security
D) TRICARE
Answer: A
Q3) A medical assistant's scope of practice is strictly defined by federal law.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Professional Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) A medical assistant should always determine the legal status of the medical assisting profession in the state in which he or she intends to work, because state laws can vary widely.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is meant by the term "defensive medicine"?
A) Patients are more likely to sue a physician today than 50 years ago.
B) Malpractice insurance costs have risen sharply over the past 50 years.
C) Physicians order more diagnostic tests than before as a defense against a possible lawsuit.
D) Performing diagnostic tests in the medical office increases the overhead or cost of doing business.
Answer: C
Q3) When was the American Association of Medical Assistants organized?
A) 1956
B) 1966
C) 1978
D) 1988
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cities and towns enact laws that have to do with the general welfare of its citizens. What are these laws called?
A) Common laws
B) Bills
C) Acts
D) Ordinances
Answer: D
Q2) What is the name for the crime of billing an insurance company for tests and procedures that were never performed?
A) Grand larceny
B) Embezzlement
C) Conspiracy
D) Fraud
Answer: D
Q3) Individuals under the age of 18 who have legally obtained adult rights, including the right to consent for medical treatment, are called emancipated minors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Interacting With Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient facing a serious illness appears to be using denial, how should the medical assistant respond?
A) Agree with the patient that the illness is minor.
B) Tell the patient that he or she does not appear to be facing reality.
C) Accept the denial without reinforcing it.
D) Reassure that patient that everything will probably turn out well.
Q2) Identify nonverbal communication
Q3) Identify styles and types of verbal communication
Q4) Psychology of Human Relations
Q5) What are the uses of arm gestures, facial expressions, and turning one's head all examples of?
A) Verbal communication
B) Impatience
C) Defamation
D) Body language
Q6) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q7) Differentiate between adaptive and non-adaptive coping mechanisms
Q8) Identify the role of self boundaries in the health care setting
Q9) Identify techniques for overcoming communication barriers
Q10) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems Page 6
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of skeletal muscle tissue?
A) It is striated.
B) It is under voluntary control.
C) It is multinucleated.
D) It is responsible for body movement.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT lined with a mucous membrane?
A) Digestive tract
B) Heart
C) Urinary tract
D) Reproductive tract
Q3) What type of epithelial tissue consists of many layers of cells and forms the outer layer of the skin?
A) Simple columnar
B) Transitional
C) Stratified squamous
D) Simple squamous
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is needed for the absorption of calcium in the body?
A) Vitamin A
B) Iron
C) Vitamin D
D) Phosphorus
Q2) The part of the hair that is visible is known as the
A) Root
B) Shaft
C) Medulla
D) Cortex
Q3) Anatomy and Physiology
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a function of sebum?
A) Keeps hair and skin soft and pliable
B) Inhibits growth of bacteria
C) Regulates body temperature
D) Prevents water loss
Q5) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q7) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q8) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column?
A) 6
B) 13
C) 26
D) 33
Q2) Medical Terminology
Q3) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?
A) Provide a rigid framework for the body
B) Provide a protective covering for the body
C) Produce red blood cells
D) Support and protect the soft organs of the body
Q5) Which of the following is a synarthrotic joint?
A) Intervertebral disk
B) Symphysis pubis
C) Suture in the skull
D) Thumb joint
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q7) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q8) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 8: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the dome-shaped muscle that forms a partition between the thorax and abdomen?
A) Errector spinae
B) Rectus abdominis
C) Diaphragm
D) Rotator cuff
Q2) The function of the quadriceps femoris muscle is to
A) Extend the leg
B) Flex the thigh
C) Rotate the leg
D) Adduct the thigh
Q3) Which of the following must be present for aerobic respiration to occur?
A) Oxygen
B) White muscle fibers
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nitrogen
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q6) Identify body systems
Q7) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 9: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a group of nerve cell bodies located outside the brain?
A) Horn
B) Plexus
C) Ganglia
D) Terminal
Q2) Medical Terminology
Q3) Which of the following are under control of the medulla?
A) Adjustment of heart rate
B) Regulation of blood pressure
C) Regulation of breathing
D) Vomiting
E) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following structures of the meninges is filled with cerebrospinal fluid and contains blood vessels?
A) Subarachnoid space
B) Pia mater
C) Arachnoid
D) Dura mater
Q5) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q6) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
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Chapter 10: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a taste sensation?
A) Salty
B) Pungent
C) Sweet
D) Bitter
Q2) What region of the retina produces the sharpest image?
A) Fovea centralis
B) Optic disc
C) Optic nerve
D) Ciliary body
Q3) What nerve transmits auditory impulses to the brain for interpretation?
A) Cranial nerve II
B) Cranial nerve V
C) Cranial nerve VIII
D) Cranial nerve X
Q4) What is the range of frequencies for normal speech?
A) 300-4,000 vibrations per second
B) 500-1,000 vibrations per second
C) 1,000-10,000 vibrations per second
D) 5,000-10,000 vibrations per second
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anatomy and Physiology
Q2) neur/o
A)to secrete
B)in, within C)nerve
D)to grow
E)hormone
F)gland
G)beneath, below H)out, away from
Q3) hormon/o
A)to secrete
B)in, within C)nerve
D)to grow
E)hormone
F)gland
G)beneath, below H)out, away from
Q4) Describe the normal function of each body system
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) -blast
A)process
B)blood
C)atrium
D)red
E)white
F)clotting
G)bone
H)formation
I)cell
J)clot
K)ventricle
L)through
M)substance that forms
N)to form
Q2) The superior vena cava returns blood to the heart from the A) Abdomen
B) Thorax
C) Head
D) Lower extremities
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) After the bronchi enter the lungs, they branch into smaller passages that terminate in
A) Alveolar ducts
B) Bronchioles
C) Alveoli
D) Secondary bronchi
Q2) Which of the following prevents food and water from entering the trachea?
A) Epiglottis
B) Glottis
C) Cricoid cartilage
D) Fauces
Q3) What is the function of mucus in the respiratory tract?
A) Warms air entering from the outside
B) Destroys microorganisms
C) Traps foreign particles
D) Helps to equalize air pressure
Q4) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Medical Terminology
Q7) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 14: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a waste product that results from the breakdown of hemoglobin?
A) Urea
B) Fatty acids
C) Bilirubin
D) Triglycerides
E) All of the above
Q2) Cementum
A)Visible portion of the tooth
B)Portion of the tooth embedded in the sockets of the mandible and maxilla
C)Small region in which the crown and root meet
D)Central core of the tooth
E)Consists of connective tissue, blood vessels, and nerves, and is located in the pulp cavity
F)The pulp cavity that is located in the root of the tooth
G)Opening in the root for nerves and blood vessels
H)Surrounds pulp cavity and forms the bulk of the tooth
I)Connective tissue that surrounds the dentin in the root
J)Firmly anchors the root in the socket
K)Surrounds the dentin in the crown of the tooth
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hilum
A)Functional unit of the kidney
B)Large cavity in the central region of the kidney that collects urine as it is produced
C)Triangular-shaped regions of the kidney that appear striated
D)Part of the renal cortex that extends into the spaces between adjacent pyramids
E)Connective tissue that holds the kidney in place
F)Thick layer of adipose tissue that surrounds each kidney
G)Tough fibrous connective tissue that encases each kidney
H)Indentation in the kidney
I)Outer reddish region of the kidney
J)Inner reddish brown region of the kidney
Q2) What is the function of the ureters?
A) Transport urine from the urinary bladder to the outside
B) Filters the urine
C) Transport urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder
D) Assist in expelling urine from the urinary bladder
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18
Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seminal fluid has a pH that is
A) Alkalinic
B) Acidic
C) Neutral
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following collects milk from the lobules of the breast and carries it to the nipples?
A) Lactiferous ducts
B) Ampulla
C) Alveoli
D) Lactating canals
Q3) The bulk of the uterine wall is made up of the A) Perimetrium
B) Myometrium
C) Endometrium
D) Tunica albuginea
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19
Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following used items is NOT an example of regulated medical waste?
A) Suture needle
B) Microbiologic collection device
C) Gauze saturated with blood
D) Urine testing strip
Q2) The purpose of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is to
A) Improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States
B) Protect public health and the environment outside of the workplace
C) Reduce the risk to employees of exposure to infectious diseases
D) Prevent exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens
Q3) Treatment administered to an individual after exposure to an infectious disease to prevent the disease is known as
A) Immunization
B) Postexposure prophylaxis
C) First aid measures
D) Antiviral drug therapy
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Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proper time for sterilizing an article in the autoclave depends on
A) The type of autoclave being used
B) What is being sterilized
C) The type of sterilization indicator being used
D) The intended use of the article
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding an MSDS?
A) It provides information regarding hazardous chemicals.
B) It must be kept on file for each hazardous chemical stored in the workplace.
C) It must be readily available to employees.
D) It is available from the manufacturer of the hazardous chemical.
E) All of the above
Q3) The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is
A) 320 °F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
B) 145 °F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
C) 212 °F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
D) 250 °F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
Q4) Identify personal safety precautions as established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Q5) Describe the importance of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) in a health care setting
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient's forehead is sweating, which of the following ensures an accurate temporal artery temperature reading?
A) Cleaning the lens with an antiseptic wipe
B) Brushing the patient's hair to the side
C) Applying a probe cover
D) Taking the temperature behind the earlobe
Q2) Most of the heat produced in the body is through
A) Shivering
B) Perspiration
C) Voluntary muscle contractions
D) Digestion
Q3) Which of the following conditions is often characterized by hypopnea?
A) Sleep disorders
B) Dehydration
C) Fever
D) Chills
Q4) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q7) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Chapter 20: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult patient's weight should be measured to the nearest
A) Quarter-pound
B) Half-pound
C) Pound
D) Ounce
Q2) What term describes the probable course and outcome of a disease?
A) Cure
B) Prognosis
C) Final diagnosis
D) Therapy
Q3) What is the name of the instrument used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane?
A) Otoscope
B) Ophthalmoscope
C) Stethoscope
D) Laryngoscope
Q4) Discuss the role of cultural, social, and ethnic diversity in ethical performance of medical assisting practice
Q5) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q6) Identify principles of body mechanics and ergonomics
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Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can result in conductive hearing loss?
A) Serous otitis media
B) Ototoxicity
C) Old age
D) Pierced ears
Q2) When not in use, Ishihara color plates must be protected from
A) High humidity
B) Light
C) Cold temperatures
D) Loud music
Q3) The Snellen eye chart is used to
A) Assess visual acuity
B) Diagnose conjunctivitis
C) Assess peripheral vision
D) Diagnose glaucoma
E) All of the above
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q7) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors is taken into consideration before an ambulatory assistive device is prescribed?
A) The age of the patient
B) The patient's muscular coordination
C) The type of disability
D) The amount of support required
E) All of the above
Q2) Heat is often prescribed by the physician for
A) Black eyes
B) Osteoporosis
C) Fractures
D) Arthritis
Q3) Chemical cold packs should be stored
A) At body temperature
B) At room temperature
C) In the refrigerator
D) In an airtight container
Q4) Psychology of Human Relations
Q5) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Page 25
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Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What preparation is required to examine Trichomonas vaginalis under the microscope?
A) The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline.
B) A culture medium is inoculated with the vaginal discharge.
C) The swab containing the discharge is placed in a transport medium.
D) The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of KOH.
Q2) The function of a vaginal speculum is to
A) Magnify the cervix
B) Hold the walls of the vagina apart
C) Aspirate secretions from the uterus
D) Lubricate the vaginal wall
Q3) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q4) Which of the following is a symptom of candidiasis?
A) Thick, odorless, cottage cheese-like discharge
B) Vaginal warts
C) Lower abdominal pain
D) Purulent vaginal discharge
E) All of the above
Page 26
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used for a suspension of attenuated or killed microorganisms that stimulate antibody production in an individual?
A) Toxoid
B) Antiserum
C) Antitoxin
D) Vaccine
Q2) If PKU is left untreated, it can lead to
A) Malnutrition
B) Mental retardation
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Spinal curvature
Q3) Medical Terminology
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q6) Analyze charts, graphs, and/or tables in the interpretation of health care results
Q7) Medical Law and Ethics
Q8) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q9) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q10) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
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Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Q1) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q2) Discuss infection control procedures
Q3) The purpose of swabbing the cervix with acetic acid during colposcopy is to
A) Allow visualization of abnormal areas
B) Kill microorganisms present on the cervix
C) Numb the cervix to reduce pain
D) Control bleeding
Q4) Which of the following is a violation of sterile technique?
A) Holding a sterile article above waist level
B) Facing a sterile field
C) Reaching over a sterile field
D) Placing a sterile item in the center of a sterile field
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q6) Laser mole surgery is used to remove
A) Raised moles
B) Small or flat moles
C) Dysplastic nevi
D) Melanoma
Q7) Medical Terminology
Q8) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods of examination must be used when reading a tuberculin skin test?
A) Auscultation and palpation
B) Inspection and percussion
C) Inspection and palpation
D) Inspection only
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a unit of weight?
A) Gram
B) Milligram
C) Milliliter
D) Kilogram
Q3) What does it mean if both tests in a two-step TB test are negative?
A) Further diagnostic procedures must be performed.
B) The patient is considered infected with tuberculosis.
C) It is considered a boosted reaction.
D) The patient is classified as noninfected.
Q4) Describe the relationship between anatomy and physiology of all body systems and medications used to treatment in each
Q5) Medical Law and Ethics
Q6) Define basic units of measurement in metric, apothecary, and household systems Page 30
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Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q2) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q3) P-R interval
A)Represents the time interval from the beginning of ventricular depolarization to the end of repolarization of the ventricles
B)Represents the electrical recovery of the ventricles
C)Represents the contraction of the ventricles
D)Represents the time from the end of ventricular depolarization to the beginning of repolarization of the ventricles
E)Represents the contraction of the atria
F)Represents the time from the end of atrial depolarization to the beginning of ventricular depolarization
G)Represents the time from the beginning of atrial depolarization to the beginning of ventricular depolarization
H)Represents the period of time when the heart restsECG Components
Q4) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q5) List major organs in each body system
Q6) Identify body systems
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Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures: Colon
Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any trace of blue appearing on or at the edge of the guaiac slide test is interpreted as
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) No reaction
D) Invalid
Q2) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q3) What is the appearance of stool exhibiting melena?
A) Dry and hard
B) Black and tarlike
C) Streaked with blood
D) Streaked with mucus
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of colorectal cancer?
A) Visible bleeding from the rectum
B) Change in bowel habits
C) Abdominal pain
D) Shortness of breath
Q5) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span
Q6) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained Page 33
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Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) What temperature is usually required for storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests?
A) Body temperature
B) Room temperature
C) A very cold temperature
D) A temperature between 100 °F and 104 °F
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a CLIA-waived test?
A) Fecal occult blood testing
B) Urine pregnancy testing
C) Blood glucose determination
D) Microscopic analysis of urine sediment
Q3) Medical Law and Ethics
Q4) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q5) What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test?
A) Standard
B) Analyte
C) Calibration
D) Control
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 30: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does it mean if a urine specimen is light yellow?
A) White blood cells are present in the urine specimen.
B) The urine specimen does not contain many dissolved substances.
C) The pH of the urine specimen is slightly acidic.
D) Bacteria are present in the urine specimen.
Q2) Many
A)an-
B)bilirubin/o
C)dys-
D)glyc/o
E)hemat/o
F)keton/o
G)noct/i
H)olig/o
I)-osis
J)poly
K)py/o
L)ur/o
Q3) Analyze charts, graphs, and/or tables in the interpretation of health care results
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Chapter 31: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Against
A)ante-
B)anti-
C)chondr/o
D)hemat/o
E)-itis
F)lysis
G)myel/o
H)-oma
I)oste/o
J)-otomy
K)-ous
L)phleb/o
M)stasis
Q2) Medical Laboratory Procedures
Q3) On palpation, a scarred vein feels
A) Elastic and pliable
B) Stiff and hard
C) Soft and pliable
D) Swollen
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Chapter 32: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell
A) an-
B) -emia
C) cyt/o
D) hemat/o
E) anti-
F) leuk/o
G) -coagulant
H) -ology
I) poly-
J) -osis
K) -penia
Q2) How often should a patient on warfarin therapy have a PT/INR test performed?
A) Once each week
B) Every 2-4 weeks
C) Every 2 months
D) Every 6 months
Q3) Medical Terminology
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a risk factor for coronary artery disease?
A) LDL cholesterol level of 90 mg/dL
B) HDL cholesterol level of 25 mg/dL
C) Triglyceride level of 140 mg/dL
D) Low blood pressure
Q2) A total cholesterol reading of 250 is considered
A) High
B) Borderline high
C) Desirable
D) Low
Q3) Which of the following tests is used to detect a blood incompatibility problem with a mother and her unborn child?
A) Rh antigen titer
B) C-reactive protein
C) Rh antibody titer
D) Rubella titer
Q4) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q5) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q6) Analyze charts, graphs, and/or tables in the interpretation of health care results
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Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) To view bacteria present on a smear, it must first be
A) Stained with an appropriate dye
B) Immersed in alcohol for 15-20 minutes
C) Incubated for 24 hours
D) Allowed to air-dry for 10 minutes
Q2) Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by streptococci?
A) Scarlet fever
B) Streptococcal sore throat
C) Rheumatic fever
D) Tuberculosis
Q3) What term is used to describe the scientific study of microorganisms and their activities?
A) Parasitology
B) Histology
C) Microbiology
D) Pathology
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Q5) Describe Standard Precautions, including:
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q7) Discuss quality control issues related to handling microbiological specimens
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Chapter 35: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a closed wound?
A) Laceration
B) Puncture
C) Contusion
D) Abrasion
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a fracture?
A) Cyanosis
B) Pain
C) Deformity and swelling
D) Loss of function
Q3) Which of the following snakes is poisonous?
A) Rattlesnake
B) Copperhead
C) Cottonmouth
D) Coral snake
E) All of the above
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 36: The Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q2) Which of the following need NOT be done when charting?
A) Begin each new entry on a separate line.
B) Include the patient's name at the beginning of each entry.
C) Begin each phrase with a capital letter.
D) Include the date and time with each entry.
Q3) The patient registration record consists of
A) Demographic and billing information
B) Medication instructions given to the patient
C) The results of the physical examination
D) A list of problems associated with the patient's illness
E) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following helps a patient with a disability learn new skills to perform the activities of daily living?
A) Speech therapy
B) Occupational therapy
C) Physical therapy
D) Dietitian
Q5) Medical Office Business Procedures/ Management:
Q6) Explore issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Page 42
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Chapter 37: Patient Reception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss quality control issues related to handling microbiological specimens
Q2) Describe banking procedures
Q3) Why may some physicians in a practice not be accepting patients?
A) They are planning to retire or move
B) They have joined the practice very recently
C) They want to pick and choose patients with interesting conditions
D) They have not yet chosen a medical specialty
E) All of the above
Q4) A tickler file is used to contain charge slips for all patients to be seen on a given day.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is usually performed by the medical assistant while closing the office?
A) Turn off the fax machine.
B) Put the telephone system on a timer.
C) Disarm the alarm system.
D) Lock the door through which patients enter the office.
Q6) Describe procedures for implementing both managed care and insurance plans
Q7) Identify procedure for preparing patient accounts
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Chapter 38: Medical Office Computerization
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using practice management software, patient demographic information is entered into the patient registration system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does a privacy filter work?
A) Logs the user out after one minute of inactivity
B) Increases glare when looking from above
C) Requires a password to make the screen visible
D) Blocks the screen image to anyone not directly in front of it
Q3) Practice management software is only used for appointment scheduling.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A database management program would be used for office correspondence.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The primary cause of improper functioning of the main unit is
A) Not enough computer memory
B) Exposure to environmental contaminants
C) Placing the main unit in a horizontal position
D) A slow microprocessor
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Chapter 39: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explore issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Q2) When should the medical assistant make a personal telephone call if he or she is at work at a medical office?
A) Whenever there are a few free minutes
B) At any time when the physician is not in the office
C) During a scheduled break or lunch period
D) When the medical assistant can be sure that someone is available to cover his or her duties
Q3) How should the medical assistant handle a call if the caller refuses to give any information and insists on speaking to the physician?
A) Put the call through to the physician.
B) Instruct the caller to write a letter to the physician and mark it "personal."
C) Describe the call on a message form and state that the caller refused to identify himself.
D) Keep the caller on the line while a coworker calls the police to have the telephone call traced.
Q4) Differentiate between adaptive and non-adaptive coping mechanisms
Q5) Discuss the role of assertiveness in effective professional communication
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Chapter 40: Scheduling Appointments
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name for scheduling patients with similar problems or conditions on certain days?
A) Wave
B) Clustering
C) Modified wave
D) Stream
Q2) Wave scheduling
A) Scheduling two patients for the same appointment time
B) An appointment scheduling method in which each patient is given a specific appointment time
C) Scheduling similar types of patients for examinations on the same day or part of the day
D) An appointment system in which some patients have individual appointment times and some have the same appointment time as other patients
E) A method of scheduling appointments in which several patients are given the same appointment time and seen in the order they arrive
F) Patients may come to the office at any time during a range of hours
Q3) Describe procedures for implementing both managed care and insurance plans
Q4) Medical Law and Ethics
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Chapter 41: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what order are documents filed into the medical record?
A) The order in which they are received in the office
B) With the oldest date first
C) In reverse chronologic order (most recent first)
D) In random order
Q2) If a patient has a hyphenated last name, it may be helpful to cross-index the medical record in an alphabetic filing system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the least common method for backing up the electronic medical record?
A) DVD optical disks
B) External hard drive
C) External tape drive
D) Network storage
Q4) What is an advantage of using color-coded labels or folders?
A) It preserves patient confidentiality.
B) It simplifies removal of inactive records.
C) It reduces the risk of misfiling.
D) It simplifies the process of creating the record.
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Chapter 42: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part(s) of a standard letter is/are not used in the simplified letter style?
A) Salutation only
B) Printed signature line only
C) Salutation and complimentary closing
D) Printed signature line and end notations
Q2) Which of the following letters would most likely be signed by the medical assistant?
A) Order for office supplies
B) Medical reports to an insurance company
C) Letter dictated by the physician to a patient
D) Letter to another physician about a consultation
Q3) Medical Law and Ethics
Q4) What is the advantage of using or creating a template for letters from a medical office?
A) It is easier to add a second page to the letter.
B) It is easier to find the inside address for a new letter.
C) It is easier to maintain the same format for all letters.
D) It makes each letter sound more personal and individualized.
Q5) Discuss principles of using Electronic Medical Record (EMR)
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Chapter 43: Mail
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper way to prepare the address on a business envelope?
A) Capitalize all letters and use no punctuation.
B) Capitalize all letters except for the street address.
C) Use both upper- and lowercase letters and use no punctuation.
D) Use both upper- and lowercase letters with a comma between the city and the state.
Q2) When several envelopes must be prepared, it is most common to print them from the manual feed tray of the printer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What information is included on the delivery address line of an address?
A) The city, state, and ZIP code
B) The apartment number or suite number
C) The street address, post office box, or rural route number
D) The name of the individual in a company who should receive the letter
Q4) The five-digit ZIP code identifies a specific delivery area such as a city block or office building.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 44: Managing Practice Finances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is responsible for checking the boxes on the charge slip for services provided to the patient?
A) Physician
B) Office manager
C) Medical assistant
D) Whichever staff member is at the desk when the patient is ready to leave
Q2) How are items recorded on the day sheet (daily journal)?
A) In the order that transactions occur.
B) In alphabetic order by patient account.
C) It depends on the procedure used by the office.
D) By patient account number, lowest number first.
Q3) What does it mean to close the day (close out the day)?
A) The manual day sheet can be destroyed.
B) All patients have been seen and staff can go home.
C) The medical assistant has posted all charges and can begin to post insurance payments.
D) No further accounts receivable charges, payments, or adjustments can be made using that date.
Q4) Identify procedures for preparing patient accounts
Q5) Explain basic bookkeeping computations
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Chapter 45: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an anesthesiologist's practice, which type of modifiers indicate the patient's condition at the time of the administration of the anesthesia?
A) Standard modifiers
B) Complexity modifiers
C) Conditional modifiers
D) Physical status modifiers
Q2) In which chapter of the ICD-10 manual would you expect to find the diagnosis code for an adolescent who comes to the office for a physical examination before enrolling in a school sports program?
A) The last chapter
B) The first chapter
C) The chapter dedicated to adolescents
D) The chapter dedicated to physical examinations
Q3) In the CPT manual, a code that provides only text to replace the words after a semicolon in the code above it is called an indented code.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define upcoding and why it should be avoided
Q5) Describe how to use the most current diagnostic coding classification system
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Chapter 46: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mary and Tom Weatherly both work and participate in the family health insurance plan offered by their separate employers. What term relates to the rules used by their insurance companies relating to paying for services?
A) Coinsurance
B) Birthday rule
C) Double coverage
D) Coordination of benefits
Q2) Managed care companies often negotiate a fee schedule that is lower than traditional indemnity insurance plans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a frequent reason for an insurance claim to be rejected?
A) The claim was not filed in a timely manner.
B) A two-digit modifier was used with the procedure code.
C) The procedures are not medically justified by the diagnosis.
D) The secondary insurance company is billed after the primary insurance has paid on the claim.
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Chapter 47: Billing and Collections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once an agreement has been made with the patient to accept monthly installments, what regulations apply to the written agreement?
A) Bankruptcy laws
B) Fair Practices Act
C) Truth in Lending Act
D) Lenders Protective Act
Q2) A patient who has declared bankruptcy under Chapter VII comes into the office and tries to pay part of the account. What should the medical assistant do?
A) Accept the payment from the patient.
B) Inform the patient that the case has been referred to small claims court.
C) Make a deal with the patient to accept 50% of the balance due as payment in full.
D) Inform the patient that no creditor is allowed to collect a debt outside the bankruptcy process.
Q3) If a patient files for bankruptcy, the medical office is always considered a secured creditor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: The Medical Assistant As Office Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be assessed during a safety inspection?
A) Adequate supply of soap in all soap dispensers
B) Serial number of each piece of medical equipment
C) Presence of a biohazard container in each exam room
D) Electrical cords in good repair and not obstructing walkways
E) All of the above
Q2) Where should cleaning supplies and chemical solutions to clean the examination rooms be kept?
A) In the examination room, under the counter
B) In a central area used to store all cleaning materials
C) In the medical assistant's work area
D) In the office manager's desk
Q3) How should spills that occur in the patient restrooms be handled?
A) They should be treated as biohazard waste.
B) They should be reported to the office manager.
C) They should be taken care of by the cleaning company.
D) They should be cleaned by staff wearing disposable gloves.
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Chapter 49: Emergency Protective Practices for the Medical Office
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT occur when epinephrine stimulates the sympathetic nervous system?
A) Decrease in blood pressure
B) Dilation of the pupils
C) Increased heart rate
D) Increased respiratory rate
Q2) Where should a fire extinguisher be located in the medical office?
A) In each room under a window
B) In each room near the exit
C) Near the entrance of the waiting room
D) Near the back door of the medical office
Q3) The first step in using a fire extinguisher is to
A) Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire.
B) Slowly squeeze the handles.
C) Sweep the nozzle from side to side.
D) Pull out the pin.
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Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the interviewer says, "Tell me about yourself," how should a job applicant answer?
A) By telling the interviewer about his or her family
B) By telling the interviewer that he or she has some weaknesses
C) By telling the interviewer about his or her education and previous work experience
D) By telling the interviewer about character traits and skills that will help him or her do the job
Q2) What is the predominant reason why a person decides to leave a job?
A) The salary is too low.
B) The commute is too long.
C) There is no room for advancement.
D) There is conflict with other employees.
Q3) How many names and addresses of references should be included on a résumé?
A) None
B) Two to four
C) Exactly four
D) Five to seven
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