Administrative Procedures for Medical Assistants
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Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive overview of the administrative responsibilities and procedures essential for medical assistants in healthcare settings. Students will learn about medical office operations, including patient scheduling, medical records management, billing and coding, insurance processing, and effective communication techniques. Emphasis is placed on compliance with legal and ethical standards, as well as the use of current technologies for maintaining electronic health records. By the end of the course, students will be prepared to efficiently support the administrative functions of a medical practice, ensuring smooth patient flow and professional office management.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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50 Chapters
3010 Verified Questions
3010 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of insurance plan pays a physician separately for each procedure that was performed?
A) Government insurance
B) Capitation insurance
C) Fee-for-service insurance
D) Managed care insurance
Answer: C
Q2) Most physician assistant programs award a master's degree.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following best describes family medicine?
A) Provides general medical care of children, adolescents, and adults
B) Treats patients for emergency conditions
C) Provides medical treatment to adults for conditions of various body systems
D) Specializes in the care of children and adolescents
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Professional Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neatness and grooming are important not only for professionalism, but also for reasons of health and safety.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which medical assistant is likely to be most successful?
A) One who rushes through tasks to finish everything quickly
B) One who uses every spare moment calling his or her child's daycare center
C) One who can remain calm when things do not go as planned
D) One who places the most emphasis on accurate paperwork
Answer: C
Q3) What is the name given to the practical experience in a physician office that is included in a medical assisting program?
A) Internship
B) Practicum
C) Supervised placement
D) Externship
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician has discontinued care of a patient without properly notifying the patient. This is called
A) Malpractice
B) Abandonment
C) Illegal termination
D) Negligence
Answer: B
Q2) What is the name for a patient's right to make decisions about health care according to individual values and concerns?
A) Privacy
B) Autonomy
C) Requirements
D) Confidentiality
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the four Ds of malpractice?
A) Duty owed by physician to patient
B) Dereliction of duty by physician to patient
C) Damages to the patient resulting from breach of duty
D) Determination of negligence to patient
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Interacting With Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of listening when the medical assistant remains "in the moment" and focuses fully on the patient's message is called
A) Open listening
B) Closed listening
C) Active listening
D) Verbal listening
Q2) When is it appropriate for the medical assistant to use silence in an interview with a patient?
A) Whenever the medical assistant feels threatened
B) When the medical assistant wants to encourage the patient to respond
C) When the medical assistant does not believe what the patient has just said
D) Silence is not appropriate when interviewing a patient
Q3) Changes in facial expression and body position when communicating are examples of nonverbal cues.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q5) The term terminal phase refers to stages of professional communication.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term used to describe a part that is located on or near the surface of the body?
A) Topical
B) Superficial
C) Deep
D) Anterior
Q2) Which of the following allows sperm to have a swimming motion?
A) Cristae
B) Cilia
C) Mucus
D) Flagella
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of adipose tissue?
A) Forms a protective cushion around the kidneys
B) Protects the body from invasion by pathogens
C) Insulates the body
D) Provides a storage material for energy
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) Identify body systems
Q6) List major organs in each body system
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anatomy and Physiology
Q2) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q3) Which of the following causes a yellow tint to the skin?
A) Carotene
B) Cyan
C) Collagenous fibers
D) Melanocytes
Q4) The whitish, crescent-shaped area of the nail is known as the
A) Nail root
B) Nail matrix
C) Eponychium
D) Lunula
Q5) What is the name of the pigment that is responsible for basic skin color?
A) Carotene
B) Collagen
C) Freckles
D) Melanin
Q6) Medical Terminology
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q8) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clavicle and scapula make up the
A) Thoracic cage
B) Pectoral girdle
C) Pelvic girdle
D) Axial skeleton
Q2) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q3) What is the large central opening in a vertebra?
A) Body
B) Vertebral arch
C) Transverse process
D) Vertebral foramen
Q4) The microscopic units of compact bone are known as A) Osteocytes
B) Haversion canals
C) Osteons
D) Lamellae
Q5) List major organs in each body system
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q7) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q8) Describe the normal function of each body system
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Chapter 8: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy source for muscle contractions is
A) Creatine
B) ATP
C) Calcium
D) Glycogen
Q2) Which of the following muscles is used to administer an IM injection?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Gluteus minimus
D) Iliopsoas
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of muscle tissue?
A) Skeletal
B) Myelin
C) Visceral
D) Cardiac
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Q7) List major organs in each body system
Q8) Identify body systems
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Chapter 9: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Terminology
Q2) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q3) What type of neurons carry impulses from sense receptors to the central nervous system?
A) Interneurons
B) Sensory neurons
C) Efferent neurons
D) Motor neurons
Q4) Which of the following functions are controlled by the cerebral cortex?
A) Intelligence
B) Language
C) Personality
D) Memory
E) All of the above
Q5) The cerebral cortex consists of
A) Gray matter
B) Myelinated nerve fibers
C) White matter
D) Ganglia
Q6) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 10: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What area of the brain interprets smell sensations?
A) Olfactory cortex
B) Gustatory cortex
C) Prefrontal cortex
D) Auditory cortex
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a taste sensation?
A) Salty
B) Pungent
C) Sweet
D) Bitter
Q3) Anatomy and Physiology
Q4) Identify body systems
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a function of the vitreous humor?
A) Maintains internal pressure of the eye
B) Presses the retina firmly against the wall of the eye
C) Supports the internal parts of the eye
D) Maintains the shape of the eye
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q7) Medical Terminology
Q8) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q2) Prolactin
A)Stimulates growth of bones, muscles, and other organs
B)Causes thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone
C)Promotes reabsorption of water in the kidney tubules
D)Reacts with receptor sites in the adrenal gland to stimulate secretion of cortical hormone
E)Promotes development of glandular tissue in female breast during pregnancy
F)Stimulates development of eggs in the ovaries and sperm in the testes
G)Causes ovulation to occur
H)Causes contraction of smooth muscle in wall of uterus
Q3) What condition results when there is a lack of iodine in the body?
A) Anemia
B) Rickets
C) Goiter
D) Hypothyroidism
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q6) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q7) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
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Chapter 12: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the stem cell from which blood cells develop?
A) Erythroblast
B) Hemocytoblast
C) Hemoglobin
D) Myoglobin
Q2) Which of the following is part of the pulmonary circuit?
A) Oxygen is distributed to the tissues
B) Blood is pumped from the left ventricle and into the aorta
C) Deoxygenated blood is returned from the tissues to the right atrium
D) Oxygen is picked up in the lungs
Q3) What are the names of the two arteries that branch off the aorta to supply the heart with oxygen and nutrients?
A) Pulmonary veins
B) Carotid arteries
C) Coronary arteries
D) Inferior vena cava
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Q5) List major organs in each body system
Q6) Identify body systems
Q7) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of taking air into the lungs is known as
A) Inhalation
B) Exhalation
C) Internal respiration
D) External respiration
Q2) The thyroid cartilage located in the larynx is commonly called the
A) True vocal cords
B) Adam's apple
C) False vocal cords
D) Uvula
Q3) What is the function of mucus in the respiratory tract?
A) Warms air entering from the outside
B) Destroys microorganisms
C) Traps foreign particles
D) Helps to equalize air pressure
Q4) What happens when there is an increase of carbon dioxide in the blood?
A) Decrease in rate and depth of breathing
B) Nothing
C) Increase in rate and depth of breathing
D) Temporary cessation of breathing
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Chapter 14: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The digestive tract is also known as the
A) Alimentary cavity
B) Peritoneum
C) Gastrointestinal tract
D) Mysentery
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of saliva?
A) Cleanses the teeth
B) Moistens the food
C) Lubricates the food
D) Begins the chemical digestions of proteins
Q3) Food is broken down into smaller particles through the mixing actions of the stomach through a process known as
A) Hydrolysis
B) Mechanical digestion
C) Chemical digestion
D) Defecation
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Chapter 15: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine is expelled from the urinary bladder through contraction of the
A) Detrusor muscle
B) External abdominal muscles
C) Buccinator muscle
D) Rectus abdominis muscles
Q2) Which of the following is made up of three openings and is located on the floor of the urinary bladder?
A) Renal pyramid
B) Trigone
C) Calyx
D) Cortex
Q3) What is the function of rugae located in the wall of the urinary bladder?
A) Expels urine from the bladder
B) Causes contraction of the urinary bladder
C) Allows the bladder to expand
D) Secretes mucus
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bulk of the uterine wall is made up of the
A) Perimetrium
B) Myometrium
C) Endometrium
D) Tunica albuginea
Q2) What is the term for the forceful discharge of semen into the urethra?
A) Ejaculation
B) Emission
C) Coitus
D) Orgasm
Q3) How long does it take an oocyte to move through the fallopian tube and into the uterus?
A) 24-48 hours
B) 3 days
C) 7 days
D) 10 days
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Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often does OSHA require employers to review and update their Exposure Control Plan?
A) Every 6 months
B) Once each year
C) Every 2 years
D) Only when a new procedure is instituted
Q2) What is the most common means of transmission for hepatitis C?
A) Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use
B) Coughs and sneezes from an infected person
C) Sexual intercourse
D) Mosquitoes
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an exposure incident?
A) Spilling blood on a laboratory worktable
B) Sticking yourself with the needle after drawing up an injectable medication
C) Getting blood onto your bare hands
D) Splashing blood into your eyes
E) All of the above
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Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following items requires high-level disinfection?
A) Stethoscope
B) Flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscope
C) Surgical instruments
D) Examining table
Q2) Which of the following would be best to use to wrap a large minor office surgery tray setup?
A) Sterilization pouch
B) Muslin
C) Aluminum foil
D) Sterilization paper
Q3) The purpose of the Hazard Communications Standard (HCS) is to ensure that employees
A) Do not come in contact with hazardous chemicals
B) Are protected from bloodborne pathogens in the workplace
C) Practice quality control when performing laboratory tests
D) Are informed of the hazards associated with chemicals in the workplace
Q4) Discuss requirements for responding to hazardous material disposal
Q5) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q6) Compare different methods of controlling the growth of microorganisms
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When measuring blood pressure, the patient's arm should be positioned
A) Above heart level
B) At heart level
C) Across the chest
D) With the palm facing downward
Q2) The lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer should be cleaned with
A) A mild detergent
B) An abrasive cleanser
C) An antiseptic (alcohol) wipe
D) A soft tissue
Q3) What effect can patient movement have on the pulse oximetry procedure?
A) Prevents the probe from picking up the pulse signal
B) Causes a decrease in blood flow to the finger
C) Prevents the probe from being aligned properly
D) Causes the photodetector to absorb too much light
Q4) Normal blood pressure for an adult is
A) 120/80 mm Hg or higher
B) Less than 120/80 mm Hg
C) 110-140 over 60-90 mm Hg
D) 70-80 beats/min
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of percussion?
A) Measuring pulse
B) Testing reflexes with a rubber hammer
C) Testing hearing with a tuning fork
D) Listening to breath sounds
Q2) Analyze charts, graphs, and/or tables in the interpretation of health care results
Q3) What term describes the probable course and outcome of a disease?
A) Cure
B) Prognosis
C) Final diagnosis
D) Therapy
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a chronic illness?
A) Strep throat
B) Chickenpox
C) Arthritis
D) Poison ivy
Q5) Discuss the role of cultural, social, and ethnic diversity in ethical performance of medical assisting practice
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) To view, to examine
A)a-
B)audi/o
C)hyper-
D)-ic
E)-ism
F)-meter
G)-opia
H)ot/o
I)-scope
J)tympan/o
K)stigma/a
Q2) Refraction is
A) Dilation of the pupil
B) Ability of the eye to bend light rays so that they can be focused on the retina
C) Ability of the eye to distinguish colors
D) Transmission of light stimuli from the optic nerve to the brain
Q3) Identify both abbreviations and symbols used in calculating medication dosages
Q4) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT help prevent low back pain?
A) Sleeping on a firm mattress
B) Good posture
C) Maintaining a healthy body weight
D) Bending from the waist when lifting an object
Q2) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q3) Canes are used most frequently for individuals with
A) An amputated lower extremity
B) Weakness on one side of the body
C) Poor muscular coordination
D) Paralysis of the lower extremities
Q4) When explaining the use of a heating pad, the medical assistant should instruct a patient to
A) Lie on the pad
B) Use pins to secure the pad in place
C) Adjust the pad to a higher setting if it no longer feels warm
D) Place a protective covering over the pad
E) All of the above
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q6) Psychology of Human Relations
24
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Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q2) Excessive bleeding during the menstrual period is known as
A) Metrorrhagia
B) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
C) Hemorrhaging
D) Dyspareunia
Q3) What is the purpose of prenatal care?
A) To prevent disease
B) To promote health
C) To provide prenatal education
D) Early detection of problems
E) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following patients is most likely to develop candidiasis?
A) A patient with poor hygiene
B) A patient with irregular menstrual periods
C) A patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy
D) A patient with multiple sexual partners
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q7) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology Page 25
Q6) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span
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Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT required by the NCVLA to be documented after administration of an immunization?
A) Manufacturer and lot number of the vaccine
B) Signature of the child's parent or guardian
C) Date the VIS was given to the parent
D) Name and address of the medical office
Q2) A blood pressure cuff that is too large for a child may result in
A) A blood pressure reading that is falsely high
B) Not being able to hear the first clear tapping sound
C) Too much pressure being applied to the brachial artery
D) A blood pressure reading that is falsely low
Q3) What term is used for a suspension of attenuated or killed microorganisms that stimulate antibody production in an individual?
A) Toxoid
B) Antiserum
C) Antitoxin
D) Vaccine
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychology of Human Relations
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an examples of a material used for nonabsorbable sutures?
A) Silk
B) Surgical gut
C) Nylon
D) Polypropylene
Q3) The purpose of practicing surgical asepsis during minor office surgery is to
A) Protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms
B) Prevent the formation of a purulent discharge
C) Prevent damage to surgical instruments
D) Reduce patient discomfort
Q4) Which of the following represents an error in technique when pouring a sterile solution?
A) Ensuring that the solution is within its expiration date
B) Placing the solution cap on a flat surface with the open end facing down
C) Palming the label of the solution bottle
D) Rinsing the lip of the bottle
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q6) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for an abnormal reaction to a substance that is normally harmless?
A) Asthma
B) Anaphylactic shock
C) Allergy
D) Idiosyncrasy
Q2) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q3) When administering an IM injection, the skin over the injection site must be held taut to
A) Prevent staining the patient's skin with the medication
B) Permit easier insertion of the needle
C) Prevent the needle from entering a blood vessel
D) Reduce the chance of infection
Q4) Describe the relationship between anatomy and physiology of all body systems and medications used to treatment in each
Q5) Which of the following situations causes a drug to be absorbed at a slower rate?
A) Taking the medication prn
B) Taking the medication pc
C) Taking the medication hs
D) Taking the medication qd
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Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heart
A)ather/o
B)cardio/o
C)electr/o
D)-emia
E)-gram
F)-graph
G)hypo-
H)-ia
I)isch/o
J)-meter
K)-metry
L)ox/i
M)-sclerosis
N)spir/o
Q2) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q3) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q4) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q5) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures: Colon
Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the appearance of stool exhibiting melena?
A) Dry and hard
B) Black and tarlike
C) Streaked with blood
D) Streaked with mucus
Q2) Why must the patient consume a high-fiber diet before guaiac slide testing?
A) To prevent a false-negative test result
B) To prevent gastrointestinal irritation
C) To encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions
D) To prevent a false-positive test result
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of colorectal cancer?
A) Visible bleeding from the rectum
B) Change in bowel habits
C) Abdominal pain
D) Shortness of breath
Q4) Testicular cancer occurs most commonly
A) Between age 15 and 34
B) Between age 30 and 50
C) After age 40
D) After age 50
Page 31
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Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a unique identifier?
A) Date and time of the specimen collection
B) Patient's name and date of birth
C) Medical assistant's initials
D) Source of the specimen
Q2) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q3) Discuss all levels of governmental legislation and regulation as they apply to medical assisting practice, including FDA and DEA regulations
Q4) What is the purpose of the patient accession number found on the laboratory report?
A) To provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory
B) To provide information required for third-party billing
C) To identify the source of the specimen
D) To assist the physician in making a diagnosis
E) All of the above
Q5) What should be done if a control does not perform as expected?
A) Do not perform patient testing until the problem is resolved.
B) Perform patient testing as usual.
C) Perform calibration procedures.
D) Record results as invalid.
Page 33
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Chapter 30: Urinalysis
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Q1) Which of the following represents an error in technique when testing a urine specimen with a reagent strip?
A) Using a freshly voided urine specimen
B) Touching the reagent areas with the fingers
C) Completely immersing the reagent areas in the urine specimen
D) Holding the reagent strip in a horizontal position when reading results
E) None of the above
Q2) List major organs in each body system
Q3) Identify body systems
Q4) When performing a microscopic examination of urine, the presence of how many white blood cells/HPF is considered normal?
A) 0-8
B) 0-15
C) 0-20
D) 2-6
Q5) Blood may normally be present in the urine because of
A) Pregnancy
B) Cystitis
C) Menstruation
D) Vigorous physical exercise
34
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Chapter 31: Phlebotomy
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Q1) When collecting a venous blood specimen to be transported to an outside laboratory for testing, which of the following should be consulted for information on collecting and handling requirements?
A) Laboratory directory
B) Manufacturer's instructions of the test system
C) Physicians' Desk Reference
D) Medical dictionary
Q2) When collecting a blood specimen using the vacuum tube method of venipuncture, venous reflux is prevented by
A) Keeping the patient's arm in a downward position
B) Inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle to the patient's arm
C) Filling the evacuated tube to the exhaustion of the vacuum
D) Removing the tourniquet before withdrawing the needle from the patient's arm
Q3) Which of the following results in patient discomfort during the venipuncture procedure?
A) Allowing the alcohol to dry before making the puncture
B) Moving the needle after it has been inserted into the vein
C) Using the flange to change from one tube to another
D) Removing the needle at the same angle as insertion
Q4) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Page 35
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Chapter 32: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q2) Which of the following causes a decrease in the red blood cell count?
A) Anemia
B) Hodgkin's disease
C) Leukemia
D) All of the above
Q3) Abnormal reduction in number
A) an-
B) -emia
C) cyt/o
D) hemat/o
E) anti-
F) leuk/o
G) -coagulant
H) -ology
I) poly-
J) -osis
K) -penia
Q4) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Q1) Which of the following conditions CANNOT be caused by prolonged high blood glucose levels?
A) Blindness
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Kidney disease
D) Circulatory problems
Q2) Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient regarding a fasting blood glucose test?
A) Consume a low-carbohydrate evening meal.
B) Refrain from smoking for 12 hours before the test.
C) Minimize activity for 24 hours before the test.
D) Do not consume food or fluid (except water) for 12 hours before the test.
E) All of the above
Q3) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q4) Which of the following tests is used to detect a blood incompatibility problem with a mother and her unborn child?
A) Rh antigen titer
B) C-reactive protein
C) Rh antibody titer
D) Rubella titer
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Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Terminology
Q2) The period of time in which the first symptoms indicating an approaching disease occur is known as the
A) Convalescent period
B) Acute period
C) Prodromal period
D) Symptomatic
Q3) A specimen taken for microbiologic examination must not become contaminated with extraneous microorganisms, because the extraneous microorganisms may
A) Change the pH of the specimen
B) Alter the morphology of the pathogens
C) Prevent visualization of the pathogen
D) Result in the death of any pathogens present
Q4) When viewed under a microscope, gram-positive bacteria
A) Appear pink or red
B) Exhibit motility
C) Appear purple
D) Sing America the Beautiful
Q5) Describe Standard Precautions, including:
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Chapter 35: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q2) Which of the following body areas is most susceptible to frostbite?
A) Arms and legs
B) Fingers and toes
C) Head
D) Abdomen
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a heart attack?
A) Sudden weakness on one side of the body
B) Chest pain
C) Shortness of breath
D) Nausea
Q4) In what type of seizure is the abnormal electrical activity localized to very specific areas of the brain?
A) Tonic-clonic
B) Partial
C) Generalized
D) Status epilepticus
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q6) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q7) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
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Chapter 36: The Medical Record
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Q1) Which of the following can be performed by an electronic medical record software program?
A) Creation of a medical record
B) Storage of a medical record
C) Editing of a medical record
D) Retrieval of a medical record
E) All of the above
Q2) Medical Terminology:
Q3) The purpose of progress notes is to
A) Provide a review of each body system
B) Update the medical record with new patient information
C) Prevent the patient's condition from getting worse
D) Ensure that the patient returns for follow-up care
Q4) The patient registration record consists of
A) Demographic and billing information
B) Medication instructions given to the patient
C) The results of the physical examination
D) A list of problems associated with the patient's illness
E) All of the above
Q5) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Page 40
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Chapter 37: Patient Reception
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Sample Questions
Q1) When making an appointment for a patient in a managed care plan who says that he has a referral from another physician, what should the medical assistant tell the patient?
A) The patient will need a letter from the managed care plan in addition to the referral form.
B) It will not be a problem to obtain the referral form after the patient has been seen.
C) The medical assistant will call the managed care company to obtain the completed referral form.
D) The office of the referring physician must provide a written or electronic referral form.
Q2) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Q3) Which of the following forms are usually filled out by the patient before the patient sees the physician?
A) Physical examination form
B) Patient history form
C) Laboratory request form
D) X-ray request form
Q4) Describe banking procedures
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Chapter 38: Medical Office Computerization
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Q1) How are paper documents entered into a patient's electronic medical record?
A) By scanning them into the computer
B) By retyping them on the computer
C) By photocopying them
D) None of the above
Q2) The electronic medical record (EMR) may be slower to use than the paper medical record, because it is faster to file paper forms than to wait for electronic data to be transferred.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A key that is used in conjunction with another key to enter commands into the computer is known as a
A) Modifier key
B) Lock key
C) Navigation key
D) Shift key
Q4) Computer programs used to perform functions are collectively called computer software.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Telephone Techniques
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Q1) What is the name of the telephone feature that allows a medical assistant to send calls from one telephone number or extension to another?
A) Speed dialing
B) Call forwarding
C) Call waiting
D) Caller ID
Q2) Which of the following calls is put through immediately to the doctor, even if the doctor is with a patient?
A) A laboratory reporting negative results
B) Another doctor to whom a referral was made
C) An angry patient who insists on speaking to the doctor
D) A caller who says that she will only speak with the physician
Q3) When is call forwarding used?
A) When a telephone call must be transferred to a different extension
B) When the line is busy and the call is sent to voicemail
C) When all calls are rerouted to another telephone number
D) When the person answering the telephone wants to be able to identify a caller before answering the telephone
Q4) Organize technical information and summaries
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Chapter 40: Scheduling Appointments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explore issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a physician preference or need that may affect the appointment schedule?
A) The time of day a physician prefers to do certain types of examinations
B) Other obligations such as hospital rounds or nursing home visits
C) Attendance at conferences and meetings
D) The number of satellite offices affiliated with the medical practice
Q3) If a patient with managed care insurance must be referred to a specialist physician, what is the responsibility of the primary care physician's office?
A) Nothing; the patient just makes an appointment with the specialist.
B) To make the appointment with the specialist.
C) To submit a referral form the managed care organization and obtain preauthorization for the referral.
D) To notify the specialist so that the specialist's office can obtain preauthorization for a patient appointment.
Q4) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q5) Recognize office policies and protocols for handling appointments
Q6) Discuss pros and cons of various types of appointment management systems
Q7) Discuss referral process for patients in a managed care program
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Chapter 41: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the alphabetic system of filing, what would "The Harris Office Supply Company" be filed under?
A) T
B) H
C) O
D) C
Q2) Identify both equipment and supplies needed for filing medical records
Q3) Describe indexing rules
Q4) What is an advantage of an electronic medical record system?
A) Inactive records are automatically removed from the system.
B) It is easier to preserve patient confidentiality.
C) It is less expensive to initiate than a paper record system.
D) Less space is required for record storage.
Q5) When can a physician destroy a patient's file?
A) If the patient was treated only once.
B) When the record has been inactive at least seven years after the statute of limitations has expired.
C) If the patient transfers to another physician.
D) Legally, medical records can never be destroyed.
Q6) Identify systems for organizing medical records
Page 45
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Chapter 42: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a way to monitor laboratory test results using the electronic medical record?
A) Posting an alert when follow-up testing is overdue
B) Tracking how fast patients follow up with additional tests
C) Tracking that patients have been notified of laboratory results
D) Tracking to be sure that all results have been received from the testing facility
Q2) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Q3) A memorandum is usually printed on letterhead just like a business letter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A word that modifies or qualifies a noun is an interjection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following letters would most likely be signed by the medical assistant?
A) Order for office supplies
B) Medical reports to an insurance company
C) Letter dictated by the physician to a patient
D) Letter to another physician about a consultation
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Chapter 43: Mail
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using an online postage service requires a postal scale which can be integrated with the computer software to calculate postage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When several envelopes must be prepared, it is most common to print them from the manual feed tray of the printer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which letters to the physician may the medical assistant usually open?
A) All mail except First-Class letters
B) All letters except those marked "personal" or "confidential"
C) All letters received by the practice
D) All mail addressed to the medical office, but not letters with the physician's name on the recipient line or the attention line
Q4) Organize technical information and summaries
Q5) The five-digit ZIP code identifies a specific delivery area such as a city block or office building.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Managing Practice Finances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of codes appear on most office itemized charge slips?
A) Diagnosis codes only
B) Procedure codes only
C) Both diagnosis and procedure codes
D) Codes do not usually appear on the itemized charge slip
Q2) In bookkeeping, what is an example of a credit?
A) A patient is charged for an office visit.
B) A patient's bill is sent to the insurance company.
C) A patient is given a discount for paying in full at the time of the visit.
D) The amount of a check is returned by the bank due to insufficient funds and is added to a patient's account.
Q3) What is the major disadvantage of the single entry bookkeeping system?
A) It requires extensive training to perform correctly.
B) It is not commonly used, so it is unfamiliar to most people.
C) It requires more record keeping than other bookkeeping systems.
D) There is no method to crosscheck for accuracy of recording and calculations.
Q4) A credit adjustment is a change to a patient's account that reduces the balance of a patient's account.
A)True
B)False
Page 48
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Chapter 45: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organization compiled the first disease classification system in the United States?
A) American Board of Internists
B) American Medical Association
C) American College of Surgeons
D) Department of Health and Human Services
Q2) How often should the medical office purchase new code books or computer code sets?
A) Annually
B) Every 2 years
C) Every 6 months
D) Every time there is a new edition of the CPT manual
Q3) What would be added to a code for a procedure that was extensive or unusual or that required an assistant?
A) A two-digit modifier
B) A two-letter modifier
C) A three-digit modifier
D) A three-letter modifier
Q4) Define upcoding and why it should be avoided
Q5) Describe how to use the most current HCPCS coding
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Chapter 46: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT required for each charge on an insurance claim form?
A) Procedure code
B) Time of service
C) Place of service
D) Date(s) of service
Q2) Mary and Tom divorced after a few years. However, they both continued to work and share custody of their children (joint custody). However, the children reside with Mary. Neither parent has remarried. Tom is the "responsible party" for the children. Whose insurance is the primary insurance?
A) Both
B) Tom's
C) Mary's
D) The birthday rule applies
Q3) Under Medicare Part B, which of the following goods/services are covered?
A) Cosmetic surgery
B) Over-the-counter drugs
C) Services in the hospital on an inpatient basis
D) Medications administered in the medical office
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Chapter 47: Billing and Collections
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Q1) Which bills may be handled in a different manner from those of other patients?
A) Those for patients who have died
B) Those for minors who received treatment for STDs
C) Those for patients who have credit agreements with the office allowing time payments
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) In which situation should the medical office stop payment on a check?
A) The recipient of a check (payee) reports that it has been lost
B) A check has been returned to the office lacking a signature
C) The medical assistant makes an error writing a check and needs to write a new one
D) The medical assistant is afraid that there isn't enough money in the office account to cover an outstanding check
Q3) When is the first bill usually sent to a patient?
A) The next time bills are prepared
B) Within a week of the office visit
C) When the patient calls to request a bill
D) At the next scheduled billing after insurance has paid
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Chapter 48: The Medical Assistant As Office Manager
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Q1) What is a comfortable temperature for treatment rooms or special procedure rooms?
A) 68-70S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0F
B) 70-72S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0F
C) 72-74S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0F
D) 74-76S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0F
Q2) An incident report should always include names and identifying information for any witness to the incident that is described in the report
A)True
B)False
Q3) What items in the medical office should have labels or be color-coded for safety reasons?
A) Flammable gases
B) Plastic biohazard bags
C) Rigid biohazard waste containers
D) Refrigerators containing biohazardous materials
E) All of the above
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Chapter 49: Emergency Protective Practices for the Medical Office
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Q1) Which of the following occurs during the alarm reaction of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
A) The body senses a stress and begins to react.
B) Epinephrine is released.
C) Individual attention becomes narrowly focused on the perceived threat.
D) The body prepares for fight or flight.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a component of an evacuation plan?
A) Preplanned escape route from the facility
B) A diagram of the escape route posted on the front door of the office
C) Identification of conditions that would require evacuation of the area
D) Information on evacuation individuals with disabilities
Q3) Which of the following agencies coordinates a response to any disaster that overwhelms the resources of state and local authorities?
A) FEMA
B) American Red Cross
C) National Guard
D) Alcoholics Anonymous
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Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment
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Q1) What is the predominant reason why a person decides to leave a job?
A) The salary is too low.
B) The commute is too long.
C) There is no room for advancement.
D) There is conflict with other employees.
Q2) How can the medical assistant identify potential employers?
A) Scan advertisements for possible open positions.
B) Fill out applications at larger institutions where résumés remain on file.
C) Perform Internet searches to identify local physicians and medical facilities.
D) Ask contacts who work at health care facilities to look at internal job postings.
E) All of the above.
Q3) How many names and addresses of references should be included on a résumé?
A) None
B) Two to four
C) Exactly four
D) Five to seven
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