Administrative Procedures for Medical Assistants
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth overview of the administrative responsibilities essential for medical assistants in a clinical or healthcare office setting. Topics include appointment scheduling, patient check-in and check-out procedures, medical record management, health information privacy (HIPAA), handling insurance claims and billing, office communication, and the application of electronic health records (EHRs). Emphasis is placed on effective customer service, organizational skills, and professional conduct to ensure the smooth operation of healthcare environments. Students will gain practical experience with common office procedures and technologies to prepare for real-world administrative roles in medical practices.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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3010 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the office uses paper medical records, where are medical records of patients who have been seen within the past year usually stored?
A) In a medical records area near the reception area
B) In the basement of the medical office building
C) In an off-site medical record storage area that is within 2 miles of the office
D) In a special medical records area of the nearest local hospital
Answer: A
Q2) Complementary medicine refers to medical treatments that patients use in addition to standard medical treatments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Medical transcription is performed by the medical assistant in most medical settings.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Professional Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often must a CMA (AAMA) (certified medical assistant) recertify to continue to use the credential?
A) Every year
B) Every 3 years
C) Every 5 years
D) Every 7 years
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is/are important character traits for a medical assistant?
A) Being tolerant of different beliefs and attitudes
B) Limiting himself or herself to only the specific tasks that have been assigned
C) Taking responsibility to tell patients when they should change their medications
D) Expressing an interest in fashion and stylish appearance on the job
E) All of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychology of Human Relations
Answer: It seems like you're asking for an answer to a question related to the Psychology of Human Relations, but the actual question you're referring to hasn't been provided. The Psychology of Human Relations is a broad field that encompasses how individuals think, feel, and behave in social situations, and how they influence and are influenced by others.
If you can provide the specific question or topic you're interested in within the Psychology of Human Relations, I'd be happy to give you a detailed answer. Some common topics in this field include communication, interpersonal relationships, group dynamics, leadership, conflict resolution, and social perception.
Please provide the question or the context, and I'll do my best to give you a full answer.
Q2) In order to be legal, a contract must be written, signed, and notarized.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Interacting With Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the fourth level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs are the needs for esteem and recognition. What do these include?
A) Self-esteem
B) Respect of others in one's peer group
C) Success in work
D) Prestige in the community
E) All of the above
Q2) Changes in facial expression and body position when communicating are examples of nonverbal cues.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common reaction to illness?
A) Anger
B) Anxiety
C) Relief
D) Guilt
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Discuss the role of assertiveness in effective professional communication
Q6) Identify techniques for overcoming communication barriers
Q7) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The movement of substances from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration is known as
A) Active transport
B) Osmosis
C) Diffusion
D) Negative feedback
Q2) What is the term used to describe a part that is located on or near the surface of the body?
A) Topical
B) Superficial
C) Deep
D) Anterior
Q3) Amino acids and glucose are transported from the small intestine and into the blood through
A) Active transport
B) Osmosis
C) Simple diffusion
D) Filtration
Q4) Describe body planes, directional terms, quadrants, and cavities
Q5) Identify body systems
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The whitish, crescent-shaped area of the nail is known as the
A) Nail root
B) Nail matrix
C) Eponychium
D) Lunula
Q2) Which of the following allows the body to detect changes in the environment?
A) Sebacous glands
B) Sensory receptors
C) Cilia
D) Sweat pores
Q3) Which of the following increases melanocytic activity?
A) Sunscreen
B) Ultraviolet rays of the sun
C) Cold temperature
D) Physical exercise
Q4) Which of the following is NOT embedded in the dermis?
A) Nails
B) Sebaceous glands
C) Hair
D) Adipose tissue
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a mature bone cell?
A) Osteoblast
B) Osteoclast
C) Osteocyte
D) Osteon
Q2) How many bones make up the adult human skeleton?
A) 80
B) 126
C) 206
D) 303
Q3) Medical Terminology
Q4) Which of the following provide a passageway through the bone matrix?
A) Sinuses
B) Lacunae
C) Lamellae
D) Canaliculi
Q5) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q6) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q7) List major organs in each body system
Q8) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
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Chapter 8: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy source for muscle contractions is
A) Creatine
B) ATP
C) Calcium
D) Glycogen
Q2) What is the name of the dome-shaped muscle that forms a partition between the thorax and abdomen?
A) Errector spinae
B) Rectus abdominis
C) Diaphragm
D) Rotator cuff
Q3) Which of the following muscles is located in the neck and is responsible for flexing and rotating the head?
A) Trapezius
B) Errector spinae
C) External oblique
D) Sternocleiodomastoid
Q4) List major organs in each body system
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) Identify body systems
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Chapter 9: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of ascending tracts of the spinal cord?
A) Carry sensory impulses from body parts to the brain
B) Carry both sensory and motor impulses to the brain
C) Carry motor impulses from the brain to muscles and glands
D) Make up reflex arcs
Q2) How many pairs of cranial nerves are in the body?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 31
Q3) Which of the following structures does NOT make up the brain stem?
A) Pons
B) Medulla
C) Diencephalon
D) Midbrain
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?
A) Regulates body temperature
B) Regulates sleep/wake cycles
C) Involved with the onset of puberty
D) Regulates secretions of hormones from the pituitary gland
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of tears?
A) Moisten and cleanse the eye
B) Destroy bacteria
C) Prevent foreign objects from entering the eye
D) Lubricate the eye
Q2) What type of senses have receptors that are localized in a particular area?
A) General senses
B) Special senses
C) Nonsenses
D) Diverse senses
Q3) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a sense receptor?
A) Mechanoreceptors
B) Chemoreceptors
C) Thermoreceptors
D) Photoreceptors
E) All of the above
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) Medical Terminology
Q7) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxytocin
A)Stimulates growth of bones, muscles, and other organs
B)Causes thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone
C)Promotes reabsorption of water in the kidney tubules
D)Reacts with receptor sites in the adrenal gland to stimulate secretion of cortical hormone
E)Promotes development of glandular tissue in female breast during pregnancy
F)Stimulates development of eggs in the ovaries and sperm in the testes
G)Causes ovulation to occur
H)Causes contraction of smooth muscle in wall of uterus
Q2) Which of the following is a function of progesterone?
A) Causes shedding of the uterine lining
B) Stimulates production of milk in the lactating breast
C) Causes the uterine lining to thicken in preparation for pregnancy
D) Stimulates ovulation to occur
Q3) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Q5) List major organs in each body system
Q6) Identify body systems
Q7) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 12: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle?
A) Mitral valve
B) Triscuspid valve
C) Bicuspid valve
D) Aortic semilunar valve
Q2) Increases during certain viral diseases, such as mononucleosis
A)Neutrophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Monocytes
Q3) Has a segmented nucleus of no more than 2 lobes with bright reddish-orange granules in the cytoplasm
A)Neutrophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Monocytes
Q4) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) After the bronchi enter the lungs, they branch into smaller passages that terminate in
A) Alveolar ducts
B) Bronchioles
C) Alveoli
D) Secondary bronchi
Q2) Uvula
A)Air-filled cavities that reduce the weight of the skull
B)Bony ridges that project into the nasal cavity
C)Interior chamber of the nose
D)Divides the nose into two parts
E)Opening through which air enters the nasal cavity
F)Openings from the nasal cavity into the pharynx
G)Separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity
H)Posterior portion of the soft palate that helps direct food into the oropharynx
Q3) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q4) List major organs in each body system
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Describe the normal function of each body system
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Food is broken down into smaller particles through the mixing actions of the stomach through a process known as
A) Hydrolysis
B) Mechanical digestion
C) Chemical digestion
D) Defecation
Q2) Apical foramen
A)Visible portion of the tooth
B)Portion of the tooth embedded in the sockets of the mandible and maxilla
C)Small region in which the crown and root meet
D)Central core of the tooth
E)Consists of connective tissue, blood vessels, and nerves, and is located in the pulp cavity
F)The pulp cavity that is located in the root of the tooth
G)Opening in the root for nerves and blood vessels
H)Surrounds pulp cavity and forms the bulk of the tooth
I)Connective tissue that surrounds the dentin in the root
J)Firmly anchors the root in the socket
K)Surrounds the dentin in the crown of the tooth
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Chapter 15: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does the urinary system NOT comprise?
A) Prostate gland
B) Kidneys
C) Ureters
D) Urinary bladder
Q2) Urine is expelled from the urinary bladder through contraction of the
A) Detrusor muscle
B) External abdominal muscles
C) Buccinator muscle
D) Rectus abdominis muscles
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of the urethra in a male?
A) Transports urine and semen
B) Is short
C) Transports urine only
D) Consists of fibrous connective tissue
Q4) Which of the following occurs in the absence of antidiuretic hormone?
A) The urine is more concentrated.
B) More water is reabsorbed by the body.
C) The amount of urine excreted is reduced.
D) The urine is more dilute.
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many mature sperm eventually result from each primary spermatocyte?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Q2) The size and shape of the breasts is determined by
A) Connective tissue
B) Adipose tissue
C) Ligaments
D) Muscle tissue
Q3) Sperm are propelled through the ductus deferens by
A) Gravity
B) A series of valves
C) Peristalsis
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q4) What is the term for the forceful discharge of semen into the urethra?
A) Ejaculation
B) Emission
C) Coitus
D) Orgasm
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Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a growth requirement for microorganisms?
A) Darkness
B) Moisture
C) Nutrition
D) Acidic environment
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered an other potentially infectious material (OPIM)?
A) Any body fluid visibly contaminated with blood
B) Vaginal secretions
C) Tears and sweat
D) Semen
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a microorganism?
A) Pinworms
B) Bacteria
C) Virus
D) Protozoa
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Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dry heat is preferred for sterilizing
A) Disposable syringes
B) Vaginal specula
C) Flexible sigmoidoscopes
D) Instruments with sharp cutting edges
Q2) Identify personal safety precautions as established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Q3) The most reliable sterilization indicators check for
A) Attainment of the proper temperature and the duration of the temperature
B) Whether the article has been in the autoclave
C) Attainment of the proper temperature and pressure
D) Presence of trapped air in the autoclave
Q4) The wrapper used to autoclave articles should
A) Prevent contaminants from getting in during handling and storage
B) Be made of a substance that does not tear or puncture easily
C) Be made of a substance not affected by the sterilization process
D) Allow steam to penetrate it
E) All of the above
Q5) Medical Law and Ethics
Q6) Compare different methods of controlling the growth of microorganisms
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When measuring blood pressure, the patient's arm should be positioned
A) Above heart level
B) At heart level
C) Across the chest
D) With the palm facing downward
Q2) Excessive pressure should not be applied when measuring radial pulse because
A) The pulse may increase.
B) The pulse may decrease.
C) It could close off the radial artery, and the pulse may not be felt.
D) It could affect the rhythm of the pulse.
Q3) What term is used to describe temporary cessation of breathing?
A) Hypoxia
B) Hypopnea
C) Apnea
D) Anoxia
Q4) A temperature of 103 °F is classified as
A) Hyperpyrexia
B) Pyrexia
C) Hypopyrexia
D) Low-grade fever
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Chapter 20: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q2) Which of the following is an example of auscultation?
A) Measuring body temperature
B) Measuring blood pressure
C) Urine testing
D) Testing pupillary reaction
Q3) One pound is equal to
A) 10 oz
B) 2.2 kg
C) 1000 g
D) 200 kg
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic procedure?
A) Electrocardiography
B) Antibiotic injection
C) CT scan
D) Sigmoidoscopy
Q5) Identify resources and adaptations that are required based on individual needs-i.e., culture and environment, developmental life stage, language, and physical threats to communication
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pertaining to
A)a-
B)audi/o
C)hyper-
D)-ic
E)-ism
F)-meter
G)-opia
H)ot/o
I)-scope
J)tympan/o
K)stigma/a
Q2) The Snellen Big E chart is used for assessing
A) Elderly individuals
B) Individuals with cataracts
C) Preschoolers
D) School-age children
Q3) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the crutch stance that is used before crutch walking?
A) Two-point position
B) Quad position
C) Four-point position
D) Tripod position
Q2) Local application of heat results in
A) Dilation of blood vessels in the area
B) Decreased blood supply to the area
C) Decreased tissue metabolism
D) Constriction of blood vessels in the area
Q3) When explaining the use of a heating pad, the medical assistant should instruct a patient to
A) Lie on the pad
B) Use pins to secure the pad in place
C) Adjust the pad to a higher setting if it no longer feels warm
D) Place a protective covering over the pad
E) All of the above
Q4) Identify principles of body mechanics and ergonomics
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When collecting a Pap smear, the ectocervical specimen is obtained using
A) The S-shaped end of the spatula
B) The rounded end of the spatula
C) A moistened cotton-tipped applicator
D) A cytology brush
Q2) Anatomy and Physiology
Q3) The purpose of the interval prenatal history is to
A) Record weight, blood pressure, and urine testing results
B) Determine the presence of any concerns or problems
C) Determine the occurrence of any additional signs of pregnancy
D) Record the fetal heart tones and fundal height
E) All of the above
Q4) Gonorrhea is transmitted through
A) Droplet infection
B) Sexual intercourse
C) Contaminated water
D) Insects
Q5) Identify body systems
Q7) Organize technical information and summaries Page 25
Q6) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span
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Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the classifications of medications, including desired effects, side effects, and adverse reactions
Q2) What immunizations are included in a DTaP injection?
A) Diphtheria, polio, tetanus
B) Dysentery, pertussis, mumps
C) Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus
D) Diphtheria, rubella, rubeola
Q3) What is the term for the process of becoming immune through the use of a vaccine or toxoid?
A) Passive artificial immunization
B) Active artificial immunization
C) Inflammation
D) Passive natural immunization
Q4) Medical Law and Ethics
Q5) What is the needle length range for a pediatric IM injection?
A) (<sup>3</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch to <sup>5</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch)
B) (<sup>5</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch to 1 inch)
C) ½ inch to 1½ inches
D) 1 inch to 2 inches
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Q1) Shave excision is often used to remove
A) Skin tags
B) Melanoma
C) Flat moles
D) Dysplastic nevi
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of melanoma?
A) Asymmetric
B) Irregular border
C) Color varies from one area to another
D) Diameter larger than a pencil eraser
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of a local anesthetic, such as Xylocaine?
A) Causes a brief stinging sensation
B) Begins working in 5-15 minutes
C) Has a duration of action of 1-3 hours
D) Produces a loss of sensation in a localized area
E) All of the above
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Q5) Discuss infection control procedures
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Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the abbreviation for three times per day?
A) q3h
B) qod
C) tid
D) bid
Q2) The vastus lateralis site is used most often to administer medication to
A) Adults
B) Infants and young children
C) Adolescents
D) Elderly patients
Q3) Identify the classifications of medications, including desired effects, side effects, and adverse reactions
Q4) Which of the following situations causes a drug to be absorbed at a slower rate?
A) Taking the medication prn
B) Taking the medication pc
C) Taking the medication hs
D) Taking the medication qd
Q5) Identify measurement systems
Q7) Pharmacology Page 29
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of asthma?
A) It is a chronic disease with no cure.
B) Its symptoms include wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.
C) It primarily affects the alveolar ducts and alveoli of the lungs.
D) It most often affects children and young adults.
Q2) Which of the following may occur when the body cannot maintain an adequate oxygen level?
A) Death of cells
B) Organ failure
C) Body system failure
D) Death
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following oxygen delivery systems separates oxygen from the air for use by the patient?
A) Compressed oxygen gas
B) Liquid oxygen
C) Oxygen concentrator
D) Oxygen compressor
Q4) Discuss fire safety issues in a health care environment
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures: Colon
Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Q1) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q2) During the CT scan, the patient must
A) Remain still
B) Move into various positions
C) Recite the Pledge of Allegiance
D) Consume a concentrated glucose solution
Q3) Cholangiogram
A)A radiograph of the urinary bladder
B)A radiograph of the lungs
C)A radiograph of the bile ducts
D)An ultrasound examination of the heart
E)A radiograph of the heart
F)A radiograph of the major arteries of the brain
G)A radiograph of the coronary arteries
H)A radiograph of the uterus and fallopian tubes
Q4) Which of the following individuals is at particular risk for osteoporosis?
A) A patient with osteoarthritis
B) An obese individual
C) A patient with diabetes
D) A postmenopausal woman Page 32
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Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is fasting (in preparation for a laboratory test) is allowed to consume
A) Baked chicken
B) Water
C) Diet soda
D) Orange juice
E) None of the above
Q2) What type of results are produced by a high-level control?
A) Results that fall below the reference range for the test
B) Invalid results
C) Results that fall above the reference range for the test
D) Positive results
Q3) Which of the following is NOT found in a laboratory directory?
A) Names and CPT codes of the tests performed by the laboratory
B) Patient preparation required for laboratory tests
C) Amount and type of specimen required by the laboratory
D) Instructions for testing specimens
E) Handling and storage of laboratory specimens
Q4) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q5) Organize technical information and summaries
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Chapter 30: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Night
A)an-
B)bilirubin/o
C)dys-
D)glyc/o
E)hemat/o
F)keton/o
G)noct/i
H)olig/o
I)-osis
J)poly
K)py/o
L)ur/o
Q2) What occurs if a urine specimen is allowed to stand for more than 1 hour at room temperature?
A) It becomes cloudy.
B) The pH becomes more acidic.
C) The specific gravity decreases.
D) Pathogens are destroyed.
Q3) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 31: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a venipuncture, which of the following techniques represents a violation of the OSHA standard?
A) Applying the tourniquet 1 inch above the bend in the elbow
B) Using a small-gauge needle to collect the specimen
C) Not labeling the blood tube
D) Removing the plastic holder from the needle for reuse
Q2) Pertaining to
A)ante-
B)anti-
C)chondr/o
D)hemat/o
E)-itis
F)lysis
G)myel/o
H)-oma
I)oste/o
J)-otomy
K)-ous
L)phleb/o
M)stasis
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Chapter 32: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q2) White
A) an-
B) -emia
C) cyt/o
D) hemat/o
E) anti-
F) leuk/o
G) -coagulant
H) -ology
I) poly-
J) -osis
K) -penia
Q3) How often should a patient on warfarin therapy have a PT/INR test performed?
A) Once each week
B) Every 2-4 weeks
C) Every 2 months
D) Every 6 months
Q4) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q5) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The BUN test is used to
A) Detect kidney disease
B) Assess liver functioning
C) Detect anemia
D) Assess thyroid functioning
Q2) What is the purpose of SMBG testing?
A) To maintain good blood glucose control
B) To delay or prevent long-term complications of diabetes
C) To test blood glucose when a side effect common to diabetes occurs
D) To make decisions regarding insulin dosage, meal planning, and physical activity
E) All of the above
Q3) Before meals, it is recommended that the blood glucose level for a diabetic patient fall between
A) 60-80 mg/dL
B) 80-120 mg/dL
C) 100-140 mg/dL
D) 100-180 mg/dL
Q4) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q5) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following microscopes has adjustment knobs that allow movement of the slide in a vertical or horizontal position?
A) Monocular microscope
B) Compound microscope
C) Mechanical stage microscope
D) Binocular microscope
Q2) A throat specimen should be collected from the
A) Tonsillar area and posterior pharynx
B) Posterior pharynx
C) Adenoids
D) Hard palate
Q3) What name is given to the interval of time between the invasion by a pathogen and the appearance of the first symptoms of the disease?
A) Prodromal period
B) Infectious period
C) Inoculation
D) Incubation period
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
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Chapter 35: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of shock is caused by loss of blood or other body fluids?
A) Neurogenic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Cardiogenic
D) Hemorrhaging
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a heart attack?
A) Sudden weakness on one side of the body
B) Chest pain
C) Shortness of breath
D) Nausea
Q3) In what type of seizure is the abnormal electrical activity localized to very specific areas of the brain?
A) Tonic-clonic
B) Partial
C) Generalized
D) Status epilepticus
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q6) Discuss potential role(s) of the medical assistant in emergency preparednes
Q7) Describe basic principles of first aid
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Chapter 36: The Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Law and Ethics:
Q2) Which of the following is NOT included on a release of medical information form?
A) The specific information to be released
B) The need for the information
C) The patient's signature
D) The expiration date of the release form
E) Medications being taken by the patient
Q3) Describe the implications of HIPAA for the medical assistant in various medical settings
Q4) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Q5) A procedure should be charted immediately after being performed to
A) Avoid charting the procedure out of sequence
B) Avoid performing the wrong procedure on a patient
C) Avoid forgetting certain aspects of the procedure
D) Prevent another staff member from charting the procedure
Q6) A review of the health status of blood relatives is known as
A) Family history
B) Review of systems
C) Genetic review
D) Chronological history
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Chapter 37: Patient Reception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe banking procedures
Q2) For which of the following patients must the medical assistant verify insurance coverage every time the patient visits the office?
A) Patients with Medicaid
B) Patients with Medicare and Medicaid
C) Patients with any managed care insurance
D) All patients
Q3) Basic Keyboarding/Computer Concepts
Q4) When a physician sees a patient with a managed care referral, the physician is usually allowed to bill charges that insurance does not pay to the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is NOT included in organizing activities for the day?
A) Paying the bills for the office
B) Reviewing the appointment lists
C) Noting which doctors are in the office for appointments
D) Noting which doctors are out of the office for various engagements
Q6) Discuss referral process for patients in a managed care program
Q7) Describe procedures for implementing both managed care and insurance plans
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Chapter 38: Medical Office Computerization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Law and Ethics
Q2) Which of the following occurs with disk defragmentation?
A) Information is rearranged on the hard disk.
B) Files and programs are stored closer together.
C) System performance improves.
D) All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following can cause a computer system to malfunction?
A) Operator error
B) Software "bug"
C) Hardware "glitch"
D) All of the above
Q4) Monitor resolution is measured in
A) Dot pitch
B) Bytes
C) Millimeters
D) Pixels
Q5) The keyboard must be connected to the computer with a cable.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explore the issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Page 43
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Chapter 39: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following items should be readily available when taking telephone messages?
A) Desk clock, computer clock, or wristwatch
B) Looseleaf notebook
C) Paper clips
D) Telephone book or Rolodex containing telephone numbers
Q2) A voicemail system in a medical office usually allows a caller to leave messages for a specific individual or department.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The telephone number of the poison control center should be placed next to every telephone in the medical office.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explore issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Q5) Identify time management principles
Q6) Identify styles and types of verbal communication
Q7) Recognize office policies and protocols for handling appointments
Q8) Medical Law and Ethics
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Chapter 40: Scheduling Appointments
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Sample Questions
Q1) When appointments are changed or cancelled in a computer appointment scheduling program, the original appointment remains visible, but appears in a different color.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Established patients are usually scheduled for 10-20 minutes for a sick visit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following reasons for an office visit will require the most time?
A) An immunization
B) A postoperative checkup
C) A complete physical examination
D) A follow-up visit for hypertension
Q4) What is important when changing the appointment date and time for a patient?
A) Delete or erase the original appointment completely.
B) Record that the appointment was changed in the patient's medical record.
C) Always draw a line through the original appointment if a manual appointment book is used.
D) Give the patient an appointment within 2 days of the original appointment, double-booking if necessary.
45
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Chapter 41: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A large practice is more likely to use a terminal digit numeric filing system than a chronologic numeric filing system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why are inactive records removed from the active file area in most offices?
A) To avoid confusion between active and inactive files
B) To create more space for the records of new patients
C) Because they are no longer necessary for billing
D) To protect them from constant wear and handling
Q3) Which of the following is an indirect method of filing?
A) Subject
B) Numeric
C) Chronologic
D) Alphabetic
Q4) If two patients have exactly the same name, what information is used to put their medical records in order?
A) Birth date
B) Chronologic age
C) Birthplace
D) Street address
Page 46
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Chapter 42: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a complex sentence?
A) I must open the letter in the outer office.
B) After I open the envelope, I will read its contents.
C) I will open the envelope, and then I will prepare a reply.
D) I will open the envelope, read its contents, and prepare a reply.
Q2) Which part of speech shows relationships of space, time, or possession?
A) Noun
B) Preposition
C) Interjection
D) Conjunction
Q3) Which part(s) of a standard letter is/are not used in the simplified letter style?
A) Salutation only
B) Printed signature line only
C) Salutation and complimentary closing
D) Printed signature line and end notations
Q4) A memorandum is usually printed on letterhead just like a business letter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explore issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
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Chapter 43: Mail
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Sample Questions
Q1) When adding the address to an envelope for mailing, all lines of the address should be formatted with a uniform left margin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some postage meters only print postage, whereas other types of postage meters and weigh letters, seal the envelopes and add postage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the medical office wants to be sure that a letter is delivered only to the intended recipient, how should it be sent?
A) Certified Mail
B) Special Handling
C) Restricted Delivery
D) Signature Confirmation
Q4) Where should special directions such as "personal" or "confidential" be placed?
A) Below the return address
B) Directly above the address
C) On the left side of the envelope
D) In the bottom left of the envelope
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Chapter 44: Managing Practice Finances
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe the bills that the practice has for office rent, equipment rental, and salaries?
A) Outgo accounts
B) Accrual accounts
C) Accounts payable
D) Accounts receivable
Q2) In bookkeeping, what is an example of a credit?
A) A patient is charged for an office visit.
B) A patient's bill is sent to the insurance company.
C) A patient is given a discount for paying in full at the time of the visit.
D) The amount of a check is returned by the bank due to insufficient funds and is added to a patient's account.
Q3) The petty cash fund should be replenished by writing a check to return the petty cash fund to the original starting amount.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss precautions for accepting checks
Q5) Explain basic bookkeeping computations
Q6) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
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Chapter 45: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which chapter of the ICD-10 manual would you expect to find the diagnosis code for an adolescent who comes to the office for a physical examination before enrolling in a school sports program?
A) The last chapter
B) The first chapter
C) The chapter dedicated to adolescents
D) The chapter dedicated to physical examinations
Q2) If the Evaluation and Management code on an insurance claim reflects a higher level of care than is reflected in the patient's medical record, the claim is an example of upcoding.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the medical assistant is coding for the removal of a lesion, what might influence selection of the proper code?
A) Type of lesion
B) Size of the lesion
C) Location of the lesion
D) Method of removal of the lesion
E) All of the above
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Page 50
Chapter 46: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a frequent reason for an insurance claim to be rejected?
A) The claim was not filed in a timely manner.
B) A two-digit modifier was used with the procedure code.
C) The procedures are not medically justified by the diagnosis.
D) The secondary insurance company is billed after the primary insurance has paid on the claim.
Q2) What program provides benefits for the dependent spouses and children of veterans who suffered total, permanent service disabilities or who died as a result of those service-connected disabilities?
A) Medicaid
B) TRICARE
C) CHAMPUS
D) CHAMPVA
Q3) How much is the copayment or coinsurance that a patient with Medicaid must pay?
A) 20% coinsurance
B) $10 copayment
C) 20% and a $100 deductible
D) The patient with Medicaid does not pay anything
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Chapter 47: Billing and Collections
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the physician's office decides to take a patient to small claims court to try to collect a balance, who usually represents the medical facility?
A) Clerk of the court
B) Collection agency representative
C) Medical assistant or other office staff member
D) The attorney that handles legal work for the practice
Q2) A patient with an overdue account may request that he or she be allowed to make monthly payments instead of putting the account into collection. What should the medical assistant do?
A) Send the bill to collection anyway
B) Take the patient to small claims court
C) Ignore the request because too much time has gone by
D) Draw up a written credit agreement with the patient, stating the minimum amount due each month
Q3) When is a patient account usually considered overdue?
A) 30 days after being billed
B) 60 days after being billed
C) 90 days after being billed
D) 120 days after being billed
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Chapter 48: The Medical Assistant As Office Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Equipment wears out. Which of the following would be most likely to result in a decision to replace a piece of equipment instead of repairing it?
A) It is 10 years old.
B) It costs more than $1,000.
C) The manufacturer no longer produces parts for repair.
D) It is used for special tests or procedures about once a week.
Q2) What type of waste container should needles and glass slides be discarded in?
A) Ordinary trash container.
B) Rigid biohazard waste container.
C) Covered biohazard waster container with plastic liner.
D) It depends on whether the item is contaminated with blood or potentially infectious material.
Q3) In each examination room, there are usually ________ waste container(s).
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
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Chapter 49: Emergency Protective Practices for the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agencies coordinates a response to any disaster that overwhelms the resources of state and local authorities?
A) FEMA
B) American Red Cross
C) National Guard
D) Alcoholics Anonymous
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a resource that may be required in an emergency?
A) EMS
B) IRS
C) Police department
D) Fire department
Q3) Who is responsible for the fire protection of the contents of a medical office?
A) Landlord or office condominium association
B) Yogi Bear
C) Local fire marshal
D) Medical office staff
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Page 54
Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a position has been offered, the question of salary is explored. What should an applicant do if the salary offered is less than anticipated?
A) Ask when raises will next be given
B) Accept the job and hope for the best
C) Decline the job and look elsewhere
D) Ask for a specific time frame when his or her performance will be reviewed and if a raise will be possible
Q2) Credentials for CPR and first aid should be included on a medical assistant's résumé.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a section of the résumé is titled Work Experience, which of the following previous experience can be included?
A) Years as a homemaker
B) Volunteer experience at a local hospital
C) Employment as a cashier at a supermarket
D) Medical assisting externship in an accredited medical assisting program
E) All of the above
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