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Administrative Medical Assisting is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the essential clerical and organizational duties performed in medical offices, clinics, and allied health settings. The course covers a variety of key topics including patient scheduling, records management, medical billing and coding, insurance processing, and effective communication with patients and healthcare professionals. Students will also develop vital skills in medical office technology, appointment management systems, document preparation, and compliance with healthcare regulations such as HIPAA. Emphasis is placed on developing professionalism, ethical practices, and problem-solving abilities needed to support the smooth and efficient functioning of a healthcare environment.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by
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3010 Verified Questions
3010 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complementary medicine refers to medical treatments that patients use in addition to standard medical treatments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Three trends in modern medicine have led to an increase in office-based health care. Which of the following is NOT one of these trends?
A) Desire to reduce health care costs for employers, governments, and insurance companies
B) Medical offices' and clinics' providing a wide range of diagnostic and treatment services to avoid having to admit patients to the hospital
C) State governments now requiring that all patients must seek ambulatory care before going to a hospital
D) Evidence and research on outcomes demonstrating that people feel better the less they must be confined in or go to a hospital for treatment
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) When was the American Association of Medical Assistants organized?
A) 1956
B) 1966
C) 1978
D) 1988
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following changes in medical care encouraged the development of medical assisting as a profession?
A) Physicians made more house calls.
B) Medical offices had to submit insurance forms for patients covered by government insurance plans.
C) Patients were given specific appointment times instead of just coming at any time.
D) Patients were sent to the hospital for diagnostic testing.
Answer: B
Q3) Risk management refers to sterilization procedures in the medical setting.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the legal meaning of the word "liability"?
A) Malfeasance
B) Responsibility
C) Negligence
D) Prudence
Answer: B
Q2) Lois Collagen had her nose reconfigured by a plastic surgeon. Two days after the surgery she had a nose bleed and noticed that she had an elevated temperature. She did not report this to her doctor. As a result, her nose became badly inflamed and the surgical result was not what she had hoped for. At the trial, the judge found that Lois was 40% responsible for her damages. What is this called?
A) Defamation
B) Assumption of risk
C) Comparative negligence
D) Malpractice
Answer: C
Q3) In order to be legal, a contract must be written, signed, and notarized.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true with regard to anxiety and anxiety attacks?
A) They should be dealt with it as a medical issue first.
B) Severe episodes are often called panic attacks.
C) The patient should be instructed to breathe into a brown paper bag.
D) Anxious patients often do not remember what they are told.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a closed question?
A) "What is the reason for your visit today?"
B) "Are you an only child?"
C) "Can you describe your pain for me?"
D) "What are your plans for the future?"
Q3) How could the medical assistant show empathy for a patient?
A) Express sympathy for the patient's problems.
B) Tell the patient about his or her own problems.
C) Acknowledge the patient's feelings.
D) Make no comment in order to avoid embarrassing the patient.
Q4) How can the medical assistant be a good communicator?
A) Make explanations using technical terms.
B) Speak in a hurried manner.
C) Be effective in sending and receiving messages.
D) Set up barriers to effective communication.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the nonliving material that fills the space between cells?
A) Plasma
B) Intercellular matrix
C) Extracellular matrix
D) Membranes
Q2) Which of the following is not among the functions of connective tissue?
A) Binds structures together
B) Supports organs
C) Transmits nerve impulses
D) Helps repair tissue damage
Q3) What is the function of serous fluid?
A) Reduces friction and provides lubrication
B) Traps foreign particles
C) Synthesizes cartilage
D) Destroys bacteria
E) All of the above
Q4) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q2) Which of the following increases melanocytic activity?
A) Sunscreen
B) Ultraviolet rays of the sun
C) Cold temperature
D) Physical exercise
Q3) Which of the following is NOT embedded in the dermis?
A) Nails
B) Sebaceous glands
C) Hair
D) Adipose tissue
Q4) Which of the following produces hair?
A) Sebaceous gland
B) Stratum granulosum
C) Hair follicle
D) Sudoriferous gland
Q5) Identify body systems
Q6) List major organs in each body system
Q7) Medical Terminology
Q8) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones make up the cranium?
A) Frontal
B) Occipital
C) Temporal
D) Ethmoid
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following covers the ends of long bones?
A) Fibrocartilage
B) Synovial membrane
C) Articular cartilage
D) Tendon
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Which of the following provide a passageway through the bone matrix?
A) Sinuses
B) Lacunae
C) Lamellae
D) Canaliculi
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q7) Identify body systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cytoplasm of a muscle fiber (cell) is known as the
A) T tubule
B) Sarcolemma
C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) Sarcoplasm
Q2) Which of the following muscles is used to administer an IM injection?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Gluteus minimus
D) Iliopsoas
Q3) Which of the following muscles does NOT move the shoulder and upper arm?
A) Trapezius
B) Pectoralis major
C) Biceps brachii
D) Deltoid
Q4) Most of the heat produced by the body is through
A) Visceral muscle contractions
B) Digestion
C) Skeletal muscle contractions
D) Shivering

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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the interconnected fluid-filled cavities in the brain?
A) Central canals
B) Fossa
C) Ventricles
D) Dorsal columns
Q2) List major organs in each body system
Q3) Which of the following structures of the meninges is filled with cerebrospinal fluid and contains blood vessels?
A) Subarachnoid space
B) Pia mater
C) Arachnoid
D) Dura mater
Q4) A myelin sheath is formed around axons within the central nervous system by
A) Microglia
B) Schwann cells
C) Astrocytes
D) Oligodendrocytes
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q7) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the range of frequencies for normal speech?
A) 300-4,000 vibrations per second
B) 500-1,000 vibrations per second
C) 1,000-10,000 vibrations per second
D) 5,000-10,000 vibrations per second
Q2) What happens several minutes after a heating pad has been applied to an individual's skin?
A) It starts feeling hotter
B) It feels the same
C) It no longer feels warm
D) It feels cold
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Identify body systems
Q5) Which of the following part of the brain interprets visual impulses?
A) Temporal lobe
B) Parietal lobe
C) Occipital lobe
D) Frontal lobe
Q6) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q7) Medical Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following raises blood glucose levels?
A) Glucagon
B) Bile
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Pepsin
Q2) Growth hormone
A)Stimulates growth of bones, muscles, and other organs
B)Causes thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone
C)Promotes reabsorption of water in the kidney tubules
D)Reacts with receptor sites in the adrenal gland to stimulate secretion of cortical hormone
E)Promotes development of glandular tissue in female breast during pregnancy
F)Stimulates development of eggs in the ovaries and sperm in the testes
G)Causes ovulation to occur
H)Causes contraction of smooth muscle in wall of uterus
Q3) Where are the adrenal glands located?
A) On the posterior surface of the thyroid glands
B) Above the kidneys
C) At the base of the brain
D) Just below the pancreas
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Q1) What is the function of erythropoietin?
A) Stimulates leukocyte production
B) Destroys worn-out red blood cells
C) Stimulates erythrocyte production
D) Stimulates thrombocyte production
E) All of the above
Q2) Has a round or slightly indented nucleus that almost completely fills the cell and stains a deep purplish blue
A)Neutrophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Monocytes
Q3) What antibodies are present in an individual with type A+ blood?
A) A antibodies
B) A and B antibodies
C) B antibodies
D) B and Rh antibodies
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Terminology
Q2) List major organs in each body system
Q3) The respiratory center is located in the
A) Pons and medulla of the brain stem
B) Cerebellum
C) Hypothalamus
D) Occipital lobe
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of the right lung?
A) Divided into two lobes
B) Contains the cardiac notch
C) Is long and narrow
D) Divided into three lobes
Q5) The process of taking air into the lungs is known as
A) Inhalation
B) Exhalation
C) Internal respiration
D) External respiration
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q7) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q8) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Gastrin
C) Presence of fat in the stomach
D) Secretin
Q2) Longitudinal folds in the wall of the stomach that allow the stomach to expand are known as
A) Rugae
B) Villi
C) Fundus
D) Striations
Q3) Which of the following increases the surface area for absorption in the small intestine?
A) Plicae circularis
B) Villi
C) Microvilli
D) All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renal medulla
A)Functional unit of the kidney
B)Large cavity in the central region of the kidney that collects urine as it is produced
C)Triangular-shaped regions of the kidney that appear striated
D)Part of the renal cortex that extends into the spaces between adjacent pyramids
E)Connective tissue that holds the kidney in place
F)Thick layer of adipose tissue that surrounds each kidney
G)Tough fibrous connective tissue that encases each kidney
H)Indentation in the kidney
I)Outer reddish region of the kidney
J)Inner reddish brown region of the kidney
Q2) Which of the following is an enzyme secreted by the kidneys that helps to regulate the blood pressure?
A) Epinephrine
B) Insulin
C) Renin
D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of testosterone?
A) Promote maturation of male reproductive organs
B) Stimulates spermatogenesis
C) Promotes development of male secondary sex characteristics
D) Initiates puberty
Q2) The cessation of the female reproductive cycle is known as
A) Menarche
B) Menopause
C) Dysmenorrhea
D) Amenorrhea
Q3) What is the term for the forceful discharge of semen into the urethra?
A) Ejaculation
B) Emission
C) Coitus
D) Orgasm
Q4) Sperm are propelled through the ductus deferens by
A) Gravity
B) A series of valves
C) Peristalsis
D) Endoplasmic reticulum

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of nonintact skin?
A) Skin with dermatitis
B) Burned skin
C) Bruised skin
D) Chapped skin
Q2) What is the purpose of the Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act?
A) To ensure that an injection is administered correctly
B) To ensure the proper disposal of sharps
C) To reduce the chance of infection developing at the injection site
D) To reduce needlestick injuries among health care workers
Q3) The purpose of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is to
A) Improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States
B) Protect public health and the environment outside of the workplace
C) Reduce the risk to employees of exposure to infectious diseases
D) Prevent exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens
Q4) The CDC recommends that washing the hands with soap and water be performed
A) After eating
B) When the hands are visibly soiled
C) Before using the restroom
D) After taking a patient's blood pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of wrapping articles before they are sterilized in the autoclave is to
A) Permit better steam penetration during autoclaving
B) Protect the articles from recontamination after autoclaving
C) Ensure complete destruction of all pathogens
D) Protect the articles from damage
E) All of the above
Q2) The proper time for sterilizing an article in the autoclave depends on
A) The type of autoclave being used
B) What is being sterilized
C) The type of sterilization indicator being used
D) The intended use of the article
Q3) Discuss all levels of governmental legislation and regulation as they apply to medical assisting practice, including FDA and DEA regulations
Q4) High-level disinfection is a process that
A) Destroys all pathogenic microorganisms
B) Destroys all microorganisms and spores
C) Destroys all microorganisms except tubercle bacilli
D) Destroys all microorganisms, but not spores
Q5) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Q1) Which of the following is used to describe the condition in which the radial pulse rate is less than the apical pulse?
A) Apical-radial pulse
B) Pulse pressure
C) Pulse deficit
D) Atrial fibrillation
Q2) If the patient's fingers are cold when performing pulse oximetry, the medical assistant should
A) Take the reading on another finger.
B) Use a disposable probe to take the reading.
C) Cleanse the probe with an antiseptic wipe.
D) Ask the patient to rub his or her fingers together.
Q3) Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia?
A) A trained athlete
B) An infant
C) An elderly person
D) A diabetic patient
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of palpation?
A) Measuring visual acuity
B) Assessing the fetal heart rate
C) Assessing a patient's mental status
D) Performing a breast examination
Q2) Medical Terminology
Q3) Knowledge
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
Q4) Identify safety techniques that can be used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Identify principles of body mechanics and ergonomics
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Q1) Instrument used to measure
A)a-
B)audi/o
C)hyper-
D)-ic
E)-ism
F)-meter
G)-opia
H)ot/o
I)-scope
J)tympan/o
K)stigma/a
Q2) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q3) Visual acuity refers to
A) Sharpness of vision
B) The ability to distinguish colors
C) An error of refraction
D) A weakness in muscle tone of the eye
Q4) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Sample Questions
Q1) When explaining the use of a heating pad, the medical assistant should instruct a patient to
A) Lie on the pad
B) Use pins to secure the pad in place
C) Adjust the pad to a higher setting if it no longer feels warm
D) Place a protective covering over the pad
E) All of the above
Q2) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q3) Walkers are used primarily by
A) Pediatric patients
B) Prenatal patients
C) Geriatric patients
D Psychiatric patients
Q4) Identify principles of body mechanics and ergonomics
Q5) An ice bag should be filled with small pieces of ice to
A) Prevent the application from becoming too cold
B) Allow the bag to mold better to a body area
C) Prevent adverse secondary effects
D) Avoid irritation to the patient's skin

24
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemoglobin and hematocrit
A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies
Q2) Describe the relationship between anatomy and physiology of all body systems and medications used for treatment in each
Q3) The causative agent of trichomoniasis is a
A) Yeast
B) Motile protozoan
C) Bacterium
D) Virus
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Sample Questions
Q1) What immunizations are included in a DTaP injection?
A) Diphtheria, polio, tetanus
B) Dysentery, pertussis, mumps
C) Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus
D) Diphtheria, rubella, rubeola
Q2) Which of the following indicates that the proper cuff size has been selected for a pediatric patient?
A) The cuff fits snugly on the child's arm.
B) The cuff is positioned at least 1 inch above the bend in the elbow.
C) The bladder of the cuff encircles 80-100% of the child's arm.
D) The bladder is centered over the antecubital space.
Q3) What is the needle length range for a pediatric IM injection?
A) (<sup>3</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch to <sup>5</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch)
B) (<sup>5</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch to 1 inch)
C) ½ inch to 1½ inches
D) 1 inch to 2 inches
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q6) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q7) Medical Terminology
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Q1) The protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called
A) Infection
B) Inflammation
C) Healing
D) Immunity
Q2) Something that is sterile is considered contaminated if it
A) Comes in contact with a pathogen
B) Comes in contact with a nonpathogen
C) Becomes wet
D) Touches something clean
E) All of the above
Q3) The purpose of swabbing the cervix with acetic acid during colposcopy is to
A) Allow visualization of abnormal areas
B) Kill microorganisms present on the cervix
C) Numb the cervix to reduce pain
D) Control bleeding
Q4) Discuss infection control procedures
Q5) Psychology of Human Relations
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The early symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction include
A) Sneezing, hives, erythema, angioedema, disorientation
B) Diplopia, diaphoresis, tachycardia, increased blood pressure
C) Dyspnea, decreased blood pressure, thready pulse
D) Abdominal cramping, nausea, vomiting, fever
Q2) What is the abbreviation for one-half?
A) cc
B) ss
C) gtt
D) SL
Q3) Discuss all levels of governmental legislation and regulation as they apply to medical assisting practice, including FDA and DEA regulations
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a reason for charting the location of the injection?
A) To avoid injecting the medication into a major nerve or blood vessel
B) To avoid overuse of a site if the patient requires more than one injection
C) To locate the site if test results need to be read at a later date
D) To provide a reference point if a problem results at the injection site
Q5) Pharmacology
Q6) Identify measurement systems
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Q1) What is a cardiac cycle?
A) Contraction of the atria
B) One complete heartbeat
C) Relaxation of the entire heart
D) Contraction of the ventricles
Q2) Electrocardiography is used to
A) Detect a dysrhythmia
B) Evaluate chest pain or shortness of breath
C) Detect the presence of cardiac ischemia
D) Determine the presence of hypertrophy of the heart
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a pulmonary function test?
A) Coronary angiography
B) Diffusion capacity
C) Arterial blood gas studies
D) Pulse oximetry
Q4) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q5) List major organs in each body system
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q7) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nuclear medicine diagnostic imaging procedures?
A) Radioactive substances are introduced into the body.
B) It shows the actual function of organs.
C) A gamma camera detects the radiation given off by the body.
D) The examination takes only a short time.
Q2) A physician specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of disease using radiation and other imaging techniques is known as a(n)
A) Radiologist
B) Radiology technician
C) Pathologist
D) Cardiologist
Q3) The breasts are compressed during mammography to
A) Prevent the patient from moving
B) Protect the patient from radiation burns
C) Obtain a clear radiograph
D) Reduce patient discomfort
E) All of the above
Q4) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q5) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
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Q1) What temperature is usually required for storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests?
A) Body temperature
B) Room temperature
C) A very cold temperature
D) A temperature between 100 °F and 104 °F
Q2) What is the purpose of the patient accession number found on the laboratory report?
A) To provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory
B) To provide information required for third-party billing
C) To identify the source of the specimen
D) To assist the physician in making a diagnosis
E) All of the above
Q3) The purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) is to
A) Improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States
B) Prevent the exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens in the workplace
C) Ensure safety in the laboratory
D) Prevent errors in technique during laboratory testing
Q4) Analyze charts, graphs, and/or tables in the interpretation of health care results
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78925
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q2) Which of the following substances is normally present in urine?
A) Ketones
B) Urea
C) Leukocytes
D) Bilirubin
E) All of the above
Q3) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q4) The type of specimen that should be used to test for the presence of nitrite in the urine is
A) Specimen that has been left standing at room temperature for one-half hour
B) 24-hour urine specimen
C) Freshly voided random specimen
D) First-voided morning specimen
Q5) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q7) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q8) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q9) Medical Terminology
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Q1) Which of the following should be performed if an evacuated tube contains a clot activator?
A) Push the posterior needle through the tube stopper before puncturing the vein.
B) Fill the tube only half-full with blood.
C) Gently invert the tube five times after drawing it.
D) Centrifuge the tube immediately after drawing it.
Q2) What may occur if a finger puncture is made that is deeper than 3.1 mm?
A) Damage to nerves in the finger
B) Penetration of the bone
C) Inaccurate test results
D) Excessive bleeding
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a correct technique for applying a tourniquet?
A) Placing the tourniquet 3-4 inches above the bend in the elbow
B) Asking the patient to clench his or her fist
C) Applying the tourniquet so that it is snug, but not tight
D) Leaving the tourniquet on for at least 3 minutes before drawing the specimen
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Identify safety techniques that can be used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment
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Q1) White
A) an-
B) -emia
C) cyt/o
D) hemat/o
E) anti-
F) leuk/o
G) -coagulant
H) -ology
I) poly-
J) -osis
K) -penia
Q2) The red blood cell indices assist the diagnosis of the different types of
A) Anemia
B) Hepatitis
C) Influenza
D) Leukemia
Q3) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q4) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q5) Medical Terminology
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Q1) Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient regarding a fasting blood glucose test?
A) Consume a low-carbohydrate evening meal.
B) Refrain from smoking for 12 hours before the test.
C) Minimize activity for 24 hours before the test.
D) Do not consume food or fluid (except water) for 12 hours before the test.
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of infectious mononucleosis?
A) Severe fatigue
B) Anemia
C) Fever
D) Sore throat
E) Swollen lymph nodes
Q3) What is the term for glucose that is stored in muscle and liver tissue for later use?
A) Glucagon
B) Carbohydrate
C) Glycogen
D) Lipoprotein
Q4) Medical Laboratory Procedures
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a natural defense mechanism of the body?
A) Phagocytosis by white blood cells
B) The skin
C) Antibiotics
D) Antibodies
Q2) Which of the following could result in the medical assistant becoming infected with a pathogen?
A) Eating while testing a microbiologic specimen
B) Licking a label for a specimen container
C) Having an open sore on the hand
D) Drinking coffee in the office laboratory
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by streptococci?
A) Scarlet fever
B) Streptococcal sore throat
C) Rheumatic fever
D) Tuberculosis
Q4) Describe Standard Precautions, including:
Q5) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of an EMD?
A) To answer emergency calls
B) To obtain needed information from a caller
C) To provide consent for treatment of a conscious patient
D) To send appropriate personnel and equipment
Q2) What term describes a progressive lung disorder in which there is a loss of elasticity of the alveoli of the lungs?
A) Emphysema
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Asthma
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q3) What is the name of the type of fracture in which the broken ends of the bone are forcefully jammed together?
A) Transverse
B) Greenstick
C) Impacted
D) Closed
Q4) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Q2) An expansion of the chief complaint is known as the
A) Review of systems
B) Present illness
C) Progress report
D) Provisional diagnosis
Q3) With reverse chronological order, the most recent document is
A) Filed alphabetically
B) Filed by subject title
C) Placed in front of the other documents
D) Placed in back of the other documents
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Which of the following situations requires the completion of a release of medical information form?
A) When a patient transfers records to a new physician
B) To bill the patient's insurance company
C) To send the patient's records to a consulting physician
D) To determine the patient's eligibility for insurance benefits
Q6) Identify systems for organizing medical records
Q7) Medical Law and Ethics:
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Q1) What is it called when the office accepts payments directly from the insurance company?
A) Assignment of benefits
B) Direct pay
C) Insurance benefits
D) Capitation
Q2) Which of the following forms are usually filled out by the patient before the patient sees the physician?
A) Physical examination form
B) Patient history form
C) Laboratory request form
D) X-ray request form
Q3) Discuss the importance of routine maintenance of office equipment
Q4) When closing the office, some rooms or areas should be locked including the medical record files.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Unloads the autoclave
A) When opening the office
B) When closing the office
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Q1) Which of the following can be performed by a medical office with an electronic medical record prescription program that is networked with an outside laboratory?
A) Completion of the laboratory request form on the screen of monitor
B) Transmission of the laboratory requisition electronically
C) Access of the laboratory report electronically
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following does the electronic medical record prescription program NOT have the ability to perform?
A) Check for potential interactions with other medication being taken by the patient.
B) Check the prescription against any patient drug allergies.
C) Determine the number of medication refills.
D) Print a list of medications being taken by the patient.
Q3) Describe the implications of HIPAA for the medical assistant in various medical settings
Q4) Computer programs used to perform functions are collectively called computer software.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What should the medical assistant do as follow-up if a patient calls to request laboratory results?
A) If a paper medical record system is used, find the medical record and attach the message to the record.
B) Review the laboratory results and write them on the message slip.
C) Call the patient back if laboratory results are normal to avoid bothering the physician.
D) Enter a note in the patient's medical record to state that the patient telephoned requesting laboratory results.
Q2) How often should the medical assistant check back with a caller who is on hold?
A) At least every 10 seconds
B) At least every 20 seconds
C) At least every 30 seconds
D) At least every minute
Q3) Identify styles and types of verbal communication
Q4) Discuss the role of assertiveness in effective professional communication
Q5) Identify principles of body mechanics and ergonomics
Q6) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q7) Medical Law and Ethics
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Q1) Which method(s) can be used to allow the physician to avoid falling behind or catch up with appointment times?
A) Leave at least 15-20 minutes free each morning and/or afternoon
B) Schedule a lunch break that is 20-30 minutes longer than the physician will need
C) End appointment times about an hour before the physician really plans to go home
D) Schedule the physician for examination rooms that are side by side
E) All of the above
Q2) If patients must fast for laboratory tests, what special scheduling requirements should be initiated?
A) Schedule the patient for the laboratory test at least one week before an appointment with the physician.
B) Schedule the patient early in the morning if possible.
C) Instruct the patient to arrive for the laboratory test with a full bladder.
D) The patient can be scheduled at any time of day that is convenient.
Q3) Describe scheduling guidelines
Q4) Recognize office policies and protocols for handling appointments
Q5) Medical Law and Ethics
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Q1) Discuss pros and cons of various filing methods
Q2) Which filing system used for paper medical records protects patient identity most successfully?
A) Subject
B) Alphabetic
C) Numeric
D) Cross-indexed
Q3) Where should the medical assistant's paper tickler files be stored?
A) Near the inactive medical record files
B) In a locked cabinet
C) In a desk or file cabinet near where the medical assistant usually sits
D) In the patient waiting room
Q4) Identify both equipment and supplies needed for filing medical records
Q5) What is an indexing unit in an alphabetic filing system for medical records?
A) The patient's full name
B) Each color-coded label placed on the medical record
C) Each part of a patient's name
D) Each letter of a patient's name
Q6) Discuss filing procedures
Q7) Basic Keyboarding/Computer Concepts
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Q1) If the physician wants to use a printed title, such as "Professor of Medicine," in the closing of a letter, where would it be placed?
A) On the reference notation line
B) On the same line as the typed signature
C) Right-justified on the last line of the letter
D) On the line immediately below the typed signature
Q2) Which of the following is punctuated correctly?
A) June 13 1987
B) June 13, 1987
C) June 13<sup>th</sup>, 1987
D) June 13, of 1987
Q3) What type of sentence is composed of two independent clauses?
A) Simple sentence
B) Run-on sentence
C) Complex sentence
D) Compound sentence
Q4) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q5) Describe the implications of HIPAA for the medical assistant in various medical settings
45
Q6) Explore issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
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Q1) Which type of correspondence is best sent by Certified Mail with Return Receipt requested?
A) Fragile items with a high dollar value
B) Patient records needed by another physician
C) Payment to a supplier of office forms
D) Letter informing a patient that he should find a new physician because he has missed several appointments
E) All of the above
Q2) If a letter to a physician concerns a patient, what should the medical assistant do before giving it to the physician?
A) Attach the letter to the patient's paper medical record
B) Place the letter in a special pile separate from other correspondence
C) Place the date of the patient's last visit in red next to the patient's name
D) Place the letter on top of all other correspondence so that the physician will see it first
Q3) When adding the address to an envelope for mailing, all lines of the address should be formatted with a uniform left margin.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When a patient charge is entered into a computerized medical billing system, the posting is reflected both in the patient ledger as well as the daily record of charges.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which account keeps a record of cash disbursements?
A) Accounts payable
B) Accounts receivable
C) Money market account
D) The cash bookkeeping system
Q3) Discuss precautions for accepting checks
Q4) What type of record is used to keep track of all the charges and payments for each individual patient?
A) Patient ledger
B) Daily journal
C) Patient statement
D) Transaction entry record
Q5) Discuss types of adjustments that may be made to a patient's account
Q6) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q7) Identify procedures for preparing patient accounts
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Q1) In the ICD-10 code M84.50xA, what is the function of the "x"?
A) It is a placeholder for information that is not specified.
B) It makes the code more specific by indicating right or left.
C) It indicates whether it the visit is the initial visit, or a subsequent visit.
D) It determines the number of sites of involvement for the condition.
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to require a HCPCS Level II code?
A) Spirometry
B) Metal crutches
C) Electrocardiogram
D) Removal of a lesion
Q3) Who publishes the CPT manual for procedure codes?
A) Various publishers
B) World Health Organization
C) American Medical Association
D) The U.S. Department of Health
Q4) The section of the CPT manual that contains the most codes is the Evaluation and Management section.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A participating provider (PAR) in the Medicare program is allowed to bill a patient for the portion of the bill that Medicare did not allow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) are used to classify patients by diagnosis in order to gather statistics for National Center for Health Statistics
A)True
B)False
Q3) What insurance plan provides care for low-income individuals and children?
A) Medicare
B) Medicaid
C) TRICARE
D) CHAMPVA
Q4) When is the physician reimbursed directly for his services by the insurance company?
A) Never
B) Always
C) If the patient has signed a written consent for treatment
D) If the patient has signed an assignment of benefits form
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Q1) If a medical office sends a collection letter to a patient, what should be included?
A) The patient's account number
B) A specific date by which payment is required
C) The letter should be notarized by a notary public
D) A statement that the office may be forced to take action that will ruin the patient's credit rating
Q2) If a patient's account is in collection, the medical office should tell the patient to find another physician and refuse any further appointments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a patient has filed bankruptcy under Chapter VII, what must have occurred for the medical office to collect an outstanding balance?
A) The patient must have an outstanding balance owed to the office.
B) The office must have a signed written credit agreement with the patient.
C) The office will not be able to receive payment under any circumstances.
D) The office must have already turned the account over to a collection agency.
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Q1) What is a comfortable temperature for treatment rooms or special procedure rooms?
A) 68-70S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0F
B) 70-72S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0F
C) 72-74S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0F
D) 74-76S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0F
Q2) An electronic security system makes it unnecessary to have other locked areas in a medical office.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Equipment wears out. Which of the following would be most likely to result in a decision to replace a piece of equipment instead of repairing it?
A) It is 10 years old.
B) It costs more than $1,000.
C) The manufacturer no longer produces parts for repair.
D) It is used for special tests or procedures about once a week.
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Q1) Which of the following agencies coordinates volunteer activities to prevent crime and respond to emergencies?
A) OSHA
B) Poison Control Center
C) Hazmat response team
D) Citizen Corps
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a manmade disaster?
A) Radiation incident
B) Hurricane
C) Fire
D) Terrorism
Q3) Who or what sets the standard for the number and location of smoke detectors in the medical office?
A) Federal law
B) State law
C) Local law
D) Medical office manager
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Q1) What is the predominant reason why a person decides to leave a job?
A) The salary is too low.
B) The commute is too long.
C) There is no room for advancement.
D) There is conflict with other employees.
Q2) It is illegal for an employer to ask an applicant for a medical assistant position to take a keyboarding test.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A medical assistant with several years of experience might want to highlight skills that will transfer to a different type of work. What style of résumé meets this goal?
A) Targeted
B) Functional
C) Experiential
D) Chronological
Q4) The statement, "prepared patients for examination" would be an example of the participle form of the verb.
A)True
B)False
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