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Administrative Medical Assisting Final Test Solutions - 1893 Verified Questions

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Administrative Medical Assisting Final Test Solutions

Course Introduction

Administrative Medical Assisting covers the essential responsibilities and skills required for managing the front office of a healthcare facility. The course introduces students to topics such as patient scheduling, medical records management, insurance processing, billing, coding, and effective communication within healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on understanding health information privacy laws, maintaining accurate documentation, and utilizing office technologies and electronic health records. By the end of the course, students will be equipped to provide professional administrative support, ensuring efficient operations and positive patient experiences in medical offices, clinics, and other healthcare environments.

Recommended Textbook

Comprehensive Medical Assisting 6th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh

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47 Chapters

1893 Verified Questions

1893 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Medical Assisting Profession

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Sample Questions

Q1) Registration

A) voluntary

B) mandatory Answer: A

Q2) Certification

A) voluntary

B) mandatory Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following qualities does a medical assistant who continually asks to leave early to go to other appointments need to develop?

A)Flexibility

B)Dependability

C)Initiative

D)Effective communication Answer: B

Q4) Licensure

A) voluntary

B) mandatory Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Health Care Settings and the Health Care Team

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34 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Approximately what percentage of all osteopaths practice in primary care areas?

A)25% to 35%

B)45% to 55%

C)65%

D)75%

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following best describes the form of medical practice management in which the provider's personal property is attached and may be sold if the business fails?

A)CHAPTER S corporation

B)Limited partnership

C)Professional service corporation

D)Sole proprietorship

Answer: D

Q3) The form of medical practice that allows an unlimited number of owners is called A)HMO

B)Sole proprietor

C)Professional corporation

D)Partnership

Answer: D

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Coping Skills for the Medical Assistant

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following goals are focused and have precise boundaries?

A)Specific goals

B)Attainable goals

C)Measured goals

D)Realistic goals

Answer: A

Q2) Enroll in office management classes.

A) long-term goal

B) short-term goal

Answer: B

Q3) What can help prevent stress and panic associated with too much work?

A)Antidepressants

B)Planning and prioritization

C)Procrastination

D)Bright colors in the workplace

Answer: B

Q4) Evaluate progress on a regular basis and identify areas that need improvement.

A) long-term goal

B) short-term goal

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication Skills

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a roadblock to communication?

A)Sharing subjects

B)Reassuring cliches

C)Criticizing

D)Required explanations

Q2) Mrs.Love has just seen the physician and, as you walk her from the examining room, she says, "Dr.Med sure was short with me today." You respond, "Did you get to spend all the time you needed? " Which of the following best describes the communication skill used in your response?

A)Masking

B)Congruency

C)Clustering

D)Feedback

Q3) Mrs.Kind shows up for her appointment and puts her name on the sign-in sheet.

A) speaking

B) listening

C) gestures or body language

D) writing

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Chapter 5: The Therapeutic Approach to the Patient With a Life-Threatening Illness

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Sample Questions

Q1) To which of the following categories of patients does the Patient Self-Determination Act pertain?

A)Patients in nursing homes

B)Patients at personal homes

C)Patients receiving care from Medicare/Medicaid institutions

D)Patients receiving only hospice care

Q2) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate issue to discuss with patients facing a life-threatening illness?

A)Alternative methods of treatment

B)Health care directive and durable power of attorney

C)Planning for friends' needs

D)Discussing personal finances

Q3) Mrs.S.has just found out that her husband has a life-threatening illness and informs both you and the physician that under no circumstances are you to tell her husband about the prognosis.Which of the following best describes this example?

A)Secretive wife

B)Person who is afraid of the diagnosis

C)Expression of cultural perspectives

D)Prejudice

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Legal Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a written order naming a specific date, time, and reason to appear in court?

A)Contract

B)Testimony

C)Tort

D)Subpoena

Q2) Which of the following patient cases does not require public reporting by the medical provider?

A)Knife wound

B)Head injury

C)Child abuse

D)Transmittable diseases

Q3) Any individual who administers, prescribes, or dispenses any controlled substance is required to register with which of the following?

A)Federal Trade Commission

B)Internal Revenue Service

C)Medicare Audit System

D)Drug Enforcement Administration

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Chapter 7: Ethical Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A provider charges a patient for multiple or complex insurance forms.

A) ethical

B) unethical

Q2) Stem cells in cord blood can help in which of the following diseases?

A)Children with newly diagnosed Type 2 diabetes

B)Sickle cell anemia

C)Adults with Type 1 diabetes

D)All of the above

Q3) Which of the following refers to a physician's directive that specifies an individual's end-of-life wishes?

A)Euthanasia

B)Advance directive

C)Brain death

D)Hospice

Q4) In the provider's absence, the medical assistant suggests medication for the patient to try until the provider can be contacted.

A) ethical

B) unethical

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Chapter 8: Emergency Procedures and First Aid

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would be the most appropriate assessment for symptoms of exaggerated, air-hungry respirations and "fruity acetone breath"?

A)Insulin shock

B)Hypoglycemia

C)Diabetes

D)Acidosis

Q2) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response when caring for a person who is having a seizure?

A)Remove objects from the surrounding area to prevent injury.

B)Hold patient in position and restrain from convulsing.

C)Do not force anything between teeth.

D)Cushion the patient's head.

E)Roll the patient's head to the side in case there are any fluids in the mouth.

Q3) avulsion

A) tissue torn and uneven

B) superficial scraping

C) skin or part torn off

D) sharp object injury

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Chapter 9: Creating the Facility Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the most effective way to check a room's readiness for a patient?

A)Check all the supplies.

B)Place yourself in the room as a patient.

C)Ask the patient whether the room is comfortable.

D)Dust and clean the room daily.

Q2) Who should be called when you are unsure about security measures, both during and after office hours?

A)Patients for their opinion

B)Local law enforcement

C)EMS services

D)Providers for their preferences

Q3) Which of the following best describes where patients may feel most comfortable discussing conditions, procedures, or treatments?

A)Providers's office

B)Reception area

C)Examination room

D)Laboratory area

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11

Chapter 10: Computers in the Medical Clinic

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most common network(s) encountered in the medical office is (are) which of the following?

A)LAN (Local Area Network)

B)Internet

C)WAN (Wide Area Network)

D)All of the above

Q2) permits restoration of the system in case of a catastrophic event

A) firewall

B) data management

C) data backup

D) training

Q3) Which of the following best describes how computer equipment should be set up to minimize the occurrence of injury?

A)Place the top of the monitor just above eye level.

B)Position feet in firm contact with floor.

C)Sit with thighs below knees.

D)Adjust seat backs slightly forward.

Q4) digital subscriber phone line (DSL)

A) hardwired system

B) wireless system

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Telecommunications

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Sample Questions

Q1) You start an incoming call by asking the caller some questions in order to screen calls.Why is this important?

A)To be sure the caller talks to the person who will be most helpful

B)To elicit information and give you time to think

C)To give you time to signal the office manager for help

D)To get out your protocol book to help the person

Q2) An important part of telephone courtesy is listening.Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when listening?

A)Pay attention to what is being said.

B)Do not interrupt.

C)Use empathy.

D)End the call by saying "bye-bye"

E)Listen to tone of voice.

Q3) insurance information

A) medical assistant

B) provider

Q4) scheduling patient test

A) medical assistant

B) provider

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Chapter 12: Patient Scheduling

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a basic item that should be obtained from a new patient?

A)Patient's full legal name

B)Chief complaint

C)Daytime telephone number

D)Address of the patient

Q2) Which of the following scheduling records should be kept for legal purposes?

A)Appointment books

B)Hard copy day sheets

C)Computerized schedules

D)All of the above

Q3) Which of the following is the most appropriate action documenting patient "no-shows" in the appointment schedule?

A)It is not necessary to document them.

B)Erase or delete the patient's name in the appointment schedule and note in the chart in red.

C)Black out the name in the appointment schedule.

D)Indicate with a red X.

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14

Chapter 13: Medical Records Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT essential equipment needed with a numeric filing system?

A)Consecutive numbered guides

B)Miscellaneous numeric section

C)Outguide

D)Alphabetic card file

E)Accession record

Q2) Which method of arranging charts uses a page that lists vital identification data, immunizations, allergies, medications, and problems?

A)Problem-oriented medical record (POMR)

B)Source-oriented medical record (SOMR)

C)Strict chronological arrangement

D)Shingling

Q3) How would Henry Patrick Hays IV be filed in relation to Henry Patrick Hays Jr.?

A)Before

B)After

C)Depends on the birthdays

D)By address to separate

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Chapter 14: Written Communications

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following procedures is NOT followed after the mail is opened?

A)Stamp to indicate date received.

B)Attach the envelope to the letter.

C)Give the envelope with contents in it to the physician.

D)If the address is not included on the letter, write it on.

Q2) Which of the following is the recommended format for the date line of a letter?

A)On the tenth line on the right margin

B)At the top of page in an abbreviated format

C)Two or three lines below the letterhead

D)Three lines below the inside address

Q3) Which of the following is the correct number of lines required between the inside address and salutation?

A)None

B)One

C)Two

D)Three

Q4) anurysm

A) spelled correctly

B) spelled incorrectly

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Chapter 15: Medical Documents

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Sample Questions

Q1) Turnaround times for hospital reports fall into three categories.Which one is NOT a category?

A)ASAP

B)STAT

C)Aged

D)Current

Q2) In order for other providers, attorneys, or insurance companies to review medical reports, all of the following must be done EXCEPT what on all medical reports in the patient's medical record?

A)Must be scanned

B)Must be neat

C)Must be complete

D)Must be accurate

Q3) Which specialized report is also known as a necropsy report?

A)Radiology report

B)Pathology report

C)Autopsy report

D)All of the above

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Chapter 16: Medical Insurance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best describes the managed care organization model having the freedom of obtaining medical services from an HMO provider or by self-referral to a non-HMO provider?

A)Health maintenance organization

B)Exclusive provider organization

C)Integrated delivery system

D)Point-of-service plan

Q2) capitation payment

A) managed care

B) traditional

Q3) The statement mailed to the patient summarizing how the insurance carrier determined the reimbursement is known as what?

A)(COB) coordination of benefits

B)(SOB) statement of benefits

C)(DOB) determinant of benefits

D)(EOB) explanation of benefits

Q4) usually can go outside provider network

A) managed care

B) traditional

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Chapter 17: Medical Coding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a convention used when there is not enough information to find a more specific code?

A)NEC

B)NOS

C)V codes

D)E codes

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a section of the CPT coding system?

A)Evaluation and Management

B)Anesthesiology

C)Medicine

D)Psychiatry

Q3) Which of the following applies to the coding book used for specifying services and procedures performed in the medical office?

A)ICD-9-CM

B)RBRVS

C)CPT

D)EOB

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Chapter 18: Daily Financial Practices

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the ABN form?

A)Must be in writing

B)Must indicate the type of procedure(s)

C)Must include the final cost

D)Must include the reason the patient is responsible

Q2) Which of the following best classifies the adjustment column in the accounting process and its effect on the balance due?

A)Credit column; increases balance

B)Debit column; decreases balance

C)Neutral; no change to balance

D)Debit column; increases balance

E)Credit column; decreases balance

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a procedural step when disbursing the petty cash funds?

A)Sort all vouchers by account.

B)List all accounts involved.

C)Total vouchers for each account.

D)Write a check to replace funds.

E)Add receipts to original petty cash amount

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Chapter 19: Billing and Collections

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Sample Questions

Q1) Match the appropriate description with the federal regulation. Truth in Lending Act

A) legal guidelines governing telephone collections

B) shows installment payments and interest agreements

C) bankruptcy laws

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a service offered by collection agencies?

A)Provide intercept letters.

B)Provide credit ratings to providers' offices.

C)Trace patient accounts who are "skips."

D)Obtain funds from bankruptcy accounts.

Q3) Which of the following must the collection of fees be directed to when a patient dies?

A)Executor of the estate

B)Small claims court

C)Probate court

D)Deceased's insurance carrier

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Chapter 20: Accounting Practices

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Sample

Questions

Q1) Which of the following accounting systems is based on the principle that assets equal liabilities plus owner's equity.This system requires time and skill and provides a comprehensive financial picture with built-in accuracy controls?

A)Single entry

B)Double entry

C)Pegboard

D)Computerized

Q2) Which would NOT be considered part of the ledger or journal entry?

A)Date of transaction

B)Account names involved

C)Dollar amount of charges

D)Total receipts

Q3) If your facility chooses not to purchase accounting software or to use computers, an alternative would be to use what?

A)Managed care

B)Service bureau

C)Personal accountant

D)Financial consultant

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22

Chapter 21: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following stages of infectious disease shows improvement levels of health?

A)Incubation

B)Prodromal

C)Acute

D)Convalescent

E)Declining

Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered standard personal protective equipment?

A)Gloves

B)Mask

C)Face shield

D)Gown

E)Shoe cover

Q3) Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant when removing contaminated gloves?

A)Hold hands near the body and pull quickly.

B)Throw the gloves away in the regular garbage.

C)Throw the gloves into a separate container.

D)Turn the gloves inside out one over the other.

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Page 23

Chapter 22: The Patient History and Documentation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when the patient comes into the office for a singular problem and wants to discuss many problems with the physician?

A)List all the problems under chief complaint.

B)Remind the patient that the physician's time is limited, but he will try and accommodate if possible.

C)Tell the patient not to worry because the physician will meet all his needs.

D)Tell the patient more time is needed and reschedule the appointment.

Q2) What should the medical assistant do if a patient refuses to answer a question regarding sexual history during the patient interview?

A)Skip the question completely.

B)Wait until the patient is ready to answer.

C)Force the issue and ask for answers.

D)Attempt to return to the question later.

Q3) Which is considered the patient's chief concern?

A)Disease

B)Illness

C)Treatment

D)Medication

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Vital Signs and Measurements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following terms is used to denote the force exerted on the arterial walls during cardiac contraction?

A)Diastole

B)Asystole

C)Systole

D)Hyperbole

Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding body temperature?

A)Pyrexia and hypothermia are synonyms for fever.

B)Febrile denotes that a fever is not present.

C)The gradual return of an elevated body temperature to normal levels is lysis.

D)Fever means the body is not working properly.

E)Fluctuation of body temperature between periods of normal and fever is remittent fever.

Q3) Which of the following is the meaning of "dyspnea"?

A)Labored breathing

B)Air in the pericardium

C)Rapid breathing

D)Abnormal gas in the pleura

E)Breathing while upright

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Page 25

Chapter 24: The Physical Examination

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following examination methods is used to check the amount of flexion and extension of a joint by using forceful passive movement?

A)Palpation

B)Percussion

C)Auscultation

D)Mensuration

E)Manipulation

Q2) Which of the following positions requires the patient to kneel on the examination table with buttocks elevated?

A)Sims'

B)Dorsal recumbent

C)Supine

D)Proctologic

E)Prone

Q3) vitiligo

A) yellow

B) white patches

C) blue

D) no color

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Obstetrics and Gynecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the type of abortion in which all products of conception and placenta are expelled?

A)Spontaneous

B)Complete

C)Threatened

D)Incomplete

E)Missed

Q2) A 30-year-old sexually active woman calls and states she last had a Pap smear 2 years ago.She asks whether she should make an appointment to come in for another Pap smear.In how many years should the medical assistant tell her that she is due for another exam according to American Cancer Society guidelines?

A)She is overdue by 1 year.

B)Get another smear next year.

C)Get another smear in 2 years.

D)Get another smear in 3 years.

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Chapter 26: Pediatrics

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Sample Questions

Q1) How will you position Carol to take her apical pulse?

A)Sitting upright on the exam table

B)Sitting prone on the exam table

C)Sitting prone on her parent's lap

D)Sitting on her parent's lap

Q2) At what age are most of the child's recommended vaccines administered?

A)12-15 months

B)15-18 months

C)20-18 months

D)24-28 months

Q3) Which muscle is the preferred site for injections on infants to 2 years of age?

A)Deltoid

B)Dorsal gluteal

C)Vastus lateralis

D)Ventrogluteal

Q4) What is the appropriate protocol for administering multiple vaccines? ?

A)inject 1-2 inches apart on the same limb

B)inject 2-3 inches apart on the same limb

C)inject 3-4 inches apart on the same limb

D)separate limbs should be used for each vaccine

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Chapter 27: Male Reproductive System

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Q1) Which of the following terms is incorrectly spelled?

A)Semen analysis

B)Prostrate gland

C)Vasectomy

D)Transilluminator

Q2) Which of the following surgeries is most commonly performed in cases for testicular cancer followed by radiation?

A)Prostatectomy

B)Cystectomy

C)Orchiectomy

D)Vasectomy

Q3) Which of the following carries spermatozoa to the ejaculatory duct?

A)Vas deferens

B)Prostate

C)Urethra

D)Ureter

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29

Chapter 28: Gerontology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when encountering a visually impaired patient?

A)Rub the patient's back.

B)Cough or say something aloud.

C)Do not approach until your presence is known.

D)Stand in front of the patient and touch lightly on the shoulder.

Q2) Poor hygiene, insomnia, and inability to concentrate are all symptom's of what condition?

A)Dementia

B)Anxiety

C)Alzheimer's disease

D)Depression

Q3) Which of the following is NOT considered a cause of dementia or sudden loss of memory?

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Stroke

C)Dopamine deficiency

D)Syphilis

E)Poor nutrition

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Chapter 29: Examinations and Procedures of Body Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) cataract

A) nearsightedness

B) bacterial infection

C) lens loses transparency

D) irregular lens curvature

Q2) Which of the following parts of the ear is responsible for maintaining equilibrium?

A)Tympanum

B)Cochlea

C)Vestibule

D)Auricle

Q3) Which of the following body areas would be examined by medical imaging when the provider suspects Bell's palsy?

A)Lower back

B)Face

C)Brain

D)Spinal cord

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Chapter 30: Assisting With Minor Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) lighted instrument used for viewing

A) scopes

B) scalpel

C) bayonet forceps

D) retractors

E) probes

Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when setting up and covering a sterile field?

A)Grasp the drape at the top cut corner.

B)Drag the non-sterile side carefully across the tray or table surface.

C)Consider all edges of the drape to be sterile.

D)Keep the drape below the waist and above the table.

Q3) What type of material is commonly used to wrap instruments when using an autoclave?

A)Muslin

B)Polyester

C)Nylon

D)Cotton

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32

Chapter 31: Diagnostic Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is part of patient preparation?

A)Ensure thorough patient knowledge of the procedure.

B)Ensure that patient understands the preparation.

C)Verbal instructions are given.

D)Written instructions are taken home.

E)All the above.

Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about the dosimeter?

A)Read yearly

B)Reports exposure to federal authorities

C)Records direct exposure only

D)Records on a strip of film

Q3) Which of the following is a superior procedure for visualizing the brain?

A)PET scan

B)CT scan

C)Ultrasound

D)MRI

E)Fluoroscopy

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Chapter 32: Rehabilitation and Therapeutic Modalities

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Sample Questions

Q1) If you are soaking or immersing patients in water, the water temperature must NOT be greater than which of the following?

A)50°F

B)75°F

C)111°F

D)110°F

E)None of the above

Q2) A physiological benefit from massage therapy is what?

A)Increased metabolism

B)Promotion of healing

C)Improving circulation

D)All of the above

Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using a walker?

A)Lightweight

B)Can be adjusted for height

C)Can be used on uneven ground

D)Can be fitted for wheels to push

E)Provides ambulation with confidence

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34

Chapter 33: Nutrition in Health and Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following can result from bulimia?

A)Dental caries

B)Amenorrhea

C)Alopecia

D)Low blood pressure

Q2) ovolacto-vegetarians

A) Islamic

B) Roman Catholic

C) Seventh Day Adventist

D) Jewish (Orthodox)

E) Mormon

Q3) Which of the following is the most appropriate patient education basic starting points for weight loss?

A)Sleep needs, low-salt foods, moderate exercise

B)Low-salt foods, no fat, and moderate exercise

C)Low calorie, low-salt food, and moderate exercise

D)Low calorie, moderate exercise, and sleep needs

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35

Chapter 34: Basic Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a newer administration system for medications?

A)Transdermal

B)Implantable device

C)Ear injections

D)Infusion pumps

Q2) gives the potential dangers of the drug

A) description

B) precautions

C) warnings

D) contraindications

E) adverse reactions

Q3) Which of the following is the classification of penicillin?

A)Emetic

B)Antibiotic

C)Diuretic

D)Analgesic

E)Anticholinergic

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Chapter 35: Calculation of Medication Dosage and Medication

Administration

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is choosing the proper site for injections important?

A)Ensures the medication is delivered to the correct tissue type.

B)Pain and swelling are avoided.

C)Quantities can be given in specific sites.

D)All injections can be given only in certain tissue.

Q2) Which of the following types of injections requires you to pull the skin to the side before the needle insertion?

A)Intramuscular

B)Subcutaneous

C)Intradermal

D)Z-track

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a procedure to follow when a medication error occurs?

A)Recognize the error.

B)Assess the patient's condition.

C)Report the error immediately to the physician.

D)Documenting the error in the medical record is not necessary as long as the provider is notified.

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Chapter 36: Cardiac Procedures

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why are electrodes applied to the fleshy part of a limb?

A)To reduce AC interference

B)To correct wandering baseline

C)To prevent interrupted baseline

D)To minimize the artifacts

Q2) Which of the following artifacts can be caused by poor quality electrolyte gel?

A)Voluntary muscle movement

B)Alternating current

C)Somatic tremor

D)Wandering baseline

Q3) What does the cardiac cycle represent?

A)Contraction of the atria

B)One heartbeat

C)Relaxation of the entire heart

D)Contraction of the ventricles

Q4) What is the name of the body's natural pacemaker?

A)Medulla

B)AV node

C)SA node

D)Bundle branches

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Chapter 37: Regulatory Guidelines for Safety and Quality in the Medical Laboratory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is responsible for compliance with OSHA regulations?

A)Employee

B)Employer

C)Safety officer

D)Department of Labor

Q2) issued on the basis of approval by the CMS

A) COW

B) PPMP

C) Registration

D) Accreditation

E) Compliance

Q3) Federal Register

A) formal order to obey certain rules and regulations

B) organized into a notebook for employee use

C) barrier used in the laboratory to capture chemical vapors

D) government agency from which written CLIA '88 guidelines may be obtained

E) sample tests performed to determine whether a specific degree of accuracy is achieved

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Chapter 38: Introduction to the Medical Laboratory

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Sample Questions

Q1) uric acid, ESR, fluorescent noninfectious agent screen, and rheumatoid factor

A) arthritis

B) general health

C) lipid

D) obstetric

Q2) Which of the following tests would NOT be covered by insurance if the patient's diagnosis was "Urinary Tract Infection"?

A)Urine dipstick

B)Urine culture

C)Glucose tolerance test

D)None of the above

Q3) cholesterol, triglycerides, HDL, and LDL

A) arthritis

B) general health

C) lipid

D) obstetric

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Chapter 39: Phlebotomy: Venipuncture and Capillary

Puncture

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best describes when a syringe is most often used for venipuncture?

A)When large blood samples are needed

B)When collecting small amounts of blood from fragile veins

C)When a patient has a good vein in the antecubital area

D)When multiple tubes are needed

Q2) Which of the following is in a mixture of blood obtained from capillary puncture specimens?

A)Blood from arterioles

B)Blood from venules

C)Interstitial fluid

D)All the above

Q3) Which of the following is NOT the medical assistant's role in phlebotomy?

A)Collect blood as efficiently as possible.

B)Provide high-quality care to patients.

C)Perform blood testing using automated equipment only.

D)Performs tasks that are critical to patient's diagnosis.

Q4) This uses a multi-draw needle.

A) syringe method

B) vacuum tube system

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Chapter 40: Hematology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Platelets or thrombocytes are involved in doing what in the blood?

A)Fighting infection

B)Coagulation

C)Carry's oxygen

D)All the above

Q2) Which of the following is the most common type of hemoglobin disease seen in ambulatory care?

A)Iron deficiency anemia

B)Sickle cell anemia

C)Pernicious anemia

D)Hypovolemia

Q3) Which of the following is the normal value for a platelet count?

A)20,000-50,000

B)50,000-100,000

C)150,000-450,000

D)400,000-600,000

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Chapter 41: Urinalysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following urine specimens is usually requested when quantitative tests are needed for different substances?

A)Random

B)Fasting timed

C)24-hour

D)Catheterized

Q2) Which of the following are significant crystals that need to be documented?

A)Ammonium biurate

B)Uric acid

C)Triple phosphate

D)Calcium oxalate

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a major kidney function?

A)Secretion

B)Reabsorption

C)Diffusion

D)Filtration

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43

Chapter 42: Basic Microbiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is used for a stab culture?

A)Inoculating loop

B)Inoculating needle

C)Incinerator

D)Bunsen burner

Q2) Which of the following best describes how a bacterium is determined to be Gram positive or negative?

A)Nature of the cytoplasm

B)Ability to retain or lose color

C)Presence of ribosomes

D)Absence of cytoplasm

Q3) Which of the following is NOT included in inoculating techniques?

A)Loop

B)Lawn streak

C)Colony count

D)Random streak

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Chapter 43: Speciality Laboratory Tests

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true regarding a 7-mm reaction to the Mantoux test?

A)Positive

B)Doubtful

C)Negative

Q2) What is the reference range for normal serum values for a fasting blood sugar?

A)110-170 mg/dl

B)70-110 mg/dl

C)50-90 mg/dl

D)100-150 mg/dl

Q3) Which of the following is an incorrect step in obtaining a blood sample for PKU testing?

A)Make a puncture approximately 2-3 mm deep in the lateral heel.

B)Soak blood completely through the paper.

C)Use as many blood drops as necessary to fill each circle.

D)Allow PKU test card to completely dry.

Q4) When is semen analysis NOT performed?

A)Complete PE

B)Evaluate vasectomy effectiveness

C)Determine paternity

D)Substantiate rape cases

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Chapter 44: The Medical Assistant As Clinic Manager

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Sample Questions

Q1) A summary report of which of the following payroll forms must be sent to the Social Security Administration each year according to federal law?

A)W-4

B)W-6

C)941

D)W-2

Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a fringe benefit made to full-time employees?

A)Paid holidays

B)Health insurance

C)Transportation costs

D)Profit-sharing options

Q3) authorizing payroll

A) personnel data

B) medical records

C) employee time sheets

D) financial and billing reports

E) equipment and supplies requests and inventory data

F) staffing requirements and appointment schedules

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Page 46

Chapter 45: The Medical Assistant As Human Resources Manager

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the final interview is completed, what should the HR manager NOT do?

A)Offer the interviewee the job.

B)Compare notes with the others involved.

C)Check references.

D)Discuss impressions with others involved.

Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when performing interviews?

A)Discuss specific salaries.

B)Wait until the second interview before discussing a specific salary.

C)Make a job offer as soon as you like a candidate, even if there are more applicants scheduled.

D)Schedule interviews back to back.

Q3) The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits discrimination by all private employers with how many employees?

A)Five or more

B)Ten or more

C)Fifteen or more

D)Twenty-five or more

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Preparing for Medical Assisting Credentials

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a correct statement about the CMA certification examination application process?

A)Must not by typewritten.

B)Mail the instructions back with the application.

C)Applications may take 15 days after exam application deadline to process.

D)Incomplete applications are returned.

Q2) Continuing education for the RMA is available through which of the following publications?

A)Professional Medical Assistant

B)Journal of Continuing Education Topics & Issues

C)STEP Continuing Education

D)CMA Today

Q3) An applicant taking the certification exam offered through NHA must have either a high school diploma, or its equivalency, and have recently worked in the field of certification for a minimum of how many years as a full-time employee?

A)3 years

B)1 years

C)2 years

D)4 years

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Page 48

Chapter 47: Employment Strategies

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Sample Questions

Q1) At the end of the interview, what should you do if you are interested?

A)Plead for the job.

B)Leave an extra copy of the resume.

C)Ask to be considered for the job.

D)Plan to write a letter to the interviewer.

Q2) produced

A) power verb

B) not a power verb

Q3) All of the following are danger signs of an employer that could make your work life difficult except:

A)Questions regarding your accomplishments

B)Disrespectful behavior

C)Signs of insecurity by the manager

D)Negative attitude in statements

Q4) Which of the following best describes the type of résumé useful for a person re-entering the job market?

A)Targeted

B)Functional

C)Chronological

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