Administrative Medical Assisting Final Exam
Course Introduction
Administrative Medical Assisting introduces students to the essential functions and responsibilities of a medical administrative assistant within a healthcare setting. The course covers a broad range of topics including medical office procedures, patient scheduling, medical records management, health information privacy (HIPAA), billing and insurance processing, and communication skills necessary for effective interaction with patients and healthcare professionals. Emphasis is placed on the use of electronic health records (EHR), professional ethics, and time management. Students will gain practical experience with key administrative tasks, preparing them to support efficient and compliant medical office operations.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Medical Assisting 6th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh
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Chapter 1: The Medical Assisting Profession
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an expectation of a student at their practicum site?
A)Punctuality
B)Openness to criticism
C)Pay
D)Mindfulness of patient confidentiality
Answer: C
Q2) An individual who graduated from a CAAHEP-accredited medical assistant program and successfully passes the certification exam through the AMT has earned which of the following credentials?
A)CMA (AAMA)
B)CMAS
C)CMA
D)RMA
Answer: D
Q3) Licensure
A) voluntary
B) mandatory
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Health Care Settings and the Health Care Team
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Q1) Which of the following is an eye specialist?
A)Ophthalmologist
B)Orthopedist
C)Otolaryngologist
Answer: A
Q2) evaluates and treats medical conditions resulting from trauma or sudden illness
A)emergency medicine
B)internal medicine
C)urology
D)otolaryngology
E)pediatrics
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is not recognized by the WHO as potentially treatable by acupuncture?
A)Gynecological Disorders
B)Cancer
C)Pain
D)Psychological disorders
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Coping Skills for the Medical Assistant
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with the body's psychological response to stress?
A)Anxiety
B)Depression
C)Immune system disorders
D)Eating problems
Answer: C
Q2) Practice accuracy and proficiency when performing tasks and skills.
A) long-term goal
B) short-term goal
Answer: B
Q3) Focus on office management during the third year of employment.
A) long-term goal
B) short-term goal
Answer: A
Q4) Add front office administrative tasks and skills to the routine during second year of employment.
A) long-term goal
B) short-term goal
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication Skills
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Q1) Mrs.Kind shows up for her appointment and puts her name on the sign-in sheet.
A) speaking
B) listening
C) gestures or body language
D) writing
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a roadblock to communication?
A)Sharing subjects
B)Reassuring cliches
C)Criticizing
D)Required explanations
Q3) Which of the following must be present to achieve effective verbal and nonverbal communication?
A)Masking
B)Clustering
C)Congruency
D)Projection
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Chapter 5: The Therapeutic Approach to the Patient With a Life-Threatening Illness
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an Asian expression of pain?
A)General terms of relating the imbalance of the body
B)Descriptive words such as piercing or throbbing
C)Description of disturbances of the mind
D)Describing pain on a scale of 1 to 10
Q2) In the acronym TEAR, the "T" stands for which of the following?
A)To experience the pain of the loss
B)To adjust to what was lost
C)To accept the reality of the loss
D)To reinvest in a new reality
Q3) Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic response by the medical assistant to a patient with a life-threatening illness?
A)Capitalize on the patient's strengths.
B)Build on the patient's own culture and coping abilities.
C)Maintain hope.
D)Show continued care and concern.
E)All of the above
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Legal Considerations
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Q1) A promise was made to cure the patient, when a cure may not be possible.
A) subject to criminal law
B) subject to civil law
Q2) Dr.King thinks a patient can no longer be effectively served by him and plans to dismiss the patient from her care.What are the legal charges Dr.King must be careful to avoid in doing this?
A)Criminal
B)Abandonment
C)Defamation of character
D)Uninformed consent
Q3) Which of the following best describes the authority that regulates the practice of medicine with the intent of protecting citizens from harm?
A)Hospital policies
B)State medical practice acts
C)American Medical Association
D)Federal regulations
Q4) The medical assistant gave the wrong medication, causing harm to the patient.
A) subject to criminal law
B) subject to civil law
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Chapter 7: Ethical Considerations
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Q1) A provider charges a patient for multiple or complex insurance forms.
A) ethical
B) unethical
Q2) Which of the following best describes the principles of ethical and moral conduct set forth as they relate to the medical assistant?
A)AAMA Code of Ethics
B)Principles as outlined by the provider or employer
C)Hippocratic oath
D)Code of Hammurabi
Q3) In allocation of scarce health resources, ethical considerations include which of the following?
A)Who should receive health benefits and treatments?
B)How much money should be spent and distributed?
C)Who will make decisions for allocation of resources and services?
D)All of the above
Q4) Hospice discourages
A)CPR
B)IV therapy
C)Feeding tubes
D)all of the above
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emergency Procedures and First Aid
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Q1) Which of the following statements pertaining to Good Samaritan laws is false?
A)They provide some legal protection to emergency care providers.
B)Providers must act in a reasonable and prudent manner.
C)No matter what level of training, providers must do everything for the patient.
D)The conditions of the law vary in each state.
Q2) Which of the following is most appropriate of the medical assistant in responding to an emergency situation?
A)Act when transportation is available.
B)Act quickly and assess the nature of the situation.
C)Act after the provider tells you to do so.
D)Act only in emergency situations in the medical office.
Q3) Which of the following would be the most appropriate assessment for symptoms of exaggerated, air-hungry respirations and "fruity acetone breath"?
A)Insulin shock
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Diabetes
D)Acidosis
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Chapter 9: Creating the Facility Environment
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Q1) Which of the following is not a guideline to room readiness?
A)Comfortable temperature
B)Pleasantly illuminated
C)Empty cabinet surfaces
D)Well organized and spotless
Q2) Which of the following applies to the number of employees necessary in order to require a business to be in compliance with the ADA?
A)2
B)5
C)15
D)50
Q3) Which of the following best describes making facilities and equipment available to all users?
A)Facilitation
B)Debilitating
C)Accessibility
D)Empowerment
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11
Chapter 10: Computers in the Medical Clinic
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Q1) Which of the following must be installed on the computer or provided by the operating system to convert data output from one device into a format compatible with another device?
A)Server
B)Driver
C)Printer
D)Mouse
Q2) Which of the following best describes the most widely known injury associated with individuals routinely using a computer.
A)Increased eye strain
B)Chronic fatigue syndrome
C)Increased back pain
D)Carpal tunnel syndrome
Q3) fax machine
A) data input device
B) data output device
C) data storage device
Q4) Bluetooth®
A) hardwired system
B) wireless system
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Chapter 11: Telecommunications
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the purpose of a standard telephone pad for taking messages?
A)To have carbon copies in order to maintain written records
B)For emergency calls only
C)For making appointments
D)For screening calls
Q2) pharmaceutical sale representative
A) medical assistant
B) provider
Q3) Which is not a type of VoIP service?
A)Protocol connection
B)Computer/computer
C)IP phone
D)Analog telephone adapter
Q4) scheduling patient test
A) medical assistant
B) provider
Q5) information about the practice
A) medical assistant
B) provider
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Chapter 12: Patient Scheduling
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Q1) Which of the following best describes one of the primary sources for any provider?
A)Physician referrals
B)Yellow pages
C)Media advertising
D)Patient referrals
Q2) Which of the following best describes the most widely used scheduling system in which each patient is assigned a specific time?
A)Double booking
B)Modified wave
C)Open hours
D)Stream
E)Clustering
Q3) Which of the following situations will require the most time for an appointment?
A)Minor illness
B)Routine checkup
C)Suspicious rash
D)Complete physical examination, first visit
E)Blood pressure check
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Chapter 13: Medical Records Management
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Q1) Which of the following best describes records that need to be readily accessible for retrieval of information?
A)Active
B)Inactive
C)Closed
D)Cross-referenced
Q2) How many indexing units apply to the name and title, John W.Williams, M.D.?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
E)Five
Q3) Which of the following best describes a filing method that serves as a reminder for future actions?
A)Shingling
B)Purging
C)Indexing
D)Tickler
E)Release
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Written Communications
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Q1)
A) align type horizontally
B) center
C) move left
D) insert
E) insert space
F) paragraph indent
Q2) larynx
A) spelled correctly
B) spelled incorrectly
Q3) humerus
A) spelled correctly
B) spelled incorrectly
Q4) absess
A) spelled correctly
B) spelled incorrectly
Q5) hemorrhage
A) spelled correctly
B) spelled incorrectly
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Chapter 15: Medical Documents
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Q1) chronological description of patient's illness
A) radiology report
B) operative report
C) autopsy report
D) pathology report
E) H & P
F) consultation
G) discharge summary
Q2) number and types of views taken
A) radiology report
B) operative report
C) autopsy report
D) pathology report
E) H & P
F) consultation
G) discharge summary
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Chapter 16: Medical Insurance
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Q1) Which of the following applies to medical insurance for dependents of active duty or retired military personnel and their dependents?
A)TRICARE
B)SSI
C)CMS
D)HCFA
Q2) Which of the following best describes insurance policies that provide coverage on a fee-for-service basis?
A)Traditional
B)Group
C)Managed care
D)Indemnity
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a category for referrals?
A)Post-dated
B)Regular
C)Urgent
D)STAT
Q4) usually must stay inside the provider network
A) managed care
B) traditional
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Medical Coding
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Q1) Which of the following applies to the coding book used for specifying services and procedures performed in the medical office?
A)ICD-9-CM
B)RBRVS
C)CPT
D)EOB
Q2) How many procedure codes would apply to the preceding scenario?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
E)Five
Q3) Why is it important for the medical assistant to understand medical insurance coding?
A)Needed to transfer all information
B)Assists explanations to patients
C)Helps the patient file claims
D)Serves as basis for the information on the claim form
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Chapter 18: Daily Financial Practices
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Q1) The encounter form is also known as the:
A)Charge slip
B)Multipurpose billing form
C)Superbill
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is used to reconcile a bank statement?
A)Daily cash
B)Daily income
C)Accounts receivable
D)Depositor's checkbook
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the ABN form?
A)Must be in writing
B)Must indicate the type of procedure(s)
C)Must include the final cost
D)Must include the reason the patient is responsible
Q4) On the ledger card, which column is used for entering payments?
A)Credit column
B)Debit column
C)Balance column
D)Adjustment column
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Chapter 19: Billing and Collections
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Q1) Which of the following measures the speed with which outstanding accounts are paid?
A)Collections ratio
B)Accounts receivable ratio
C)Desirable ratio
D)Delinquent accounts ratio
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a service offered by collection agencies?
A)Provide intercept letters.
B)Provide credit ratings to providers' offices.
C)Trace patient accounts who are "skips."
D)Obtain funds from bankruptcy accounts.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a legal or ethical guideline governing collection calls?
A)Callers must identify themselves.
B)Callers may not threaten persons.
C)Callers must talk to the person responsible for the debt.
D)Callers must disclose the finance charge imposed.
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Chapter 20: Accounting Practices
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Q1) Which of the following is the recommended turnaround time of an efficient billing and collections policy?
A)1 month or less
B)2 months or less
C)1 week
D)6 months
Q2) Which bond covers all employees and is most beneficial?
A)Position-scheduled bond
B)Blanket-position bond
C)Family-practice bond
D)Personal bond
Q3) Which of the following ratios is calculated by dividing total expenses by the total number of procedures for 1 month?
A)Collection
B)Cost
C)Accounts receivable
D)Accounts payable
Q4) depreciation
A) fixed costs
B) variable costs
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Chapter 21: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis
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Q1) Which of the following links in the infection cycle would wearing gloves most effectively break?
A)Portal of exit
B)Portal of entry
C)Mode of transmission
D)Infectious host
E)Susceptible host
Q2) When hand washing with antimicrobial soap and water is not available, which method can be used?
A)Antimicrobial wipes
B)Alcohol-based hand rub
C)Lotion
D)Do nothing
Q3) Who has the highest risk of developing a nosocomial infection?
A)People in social settings
B)Children
C)Hospitalized patients
D)Women
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Chapter 22: The Patient History and Documentation
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Q1) What should the medical assistant do if a patient refuses to answer a question regarding sexual history during the patient interview?
A)Skip the question completely.
B)Wait until the patient is ready to answer.
C)Force the issue and ask for answers.
D)Attempt to return to the question later.
Q2) In the SOAPER charting method, what does the letter "E" represent?
A)Examination
B)Early history
C)Education
D)Elaboration
Q3) Information such as the patient's full name, address, and telephone number would be found on what form?
A)Medical history form
B)Financial information form
C)Insurance form
D)Demographic data form
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24
Chapter 23: Vital Signs and Measurements
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Q1) Which of the following best describes a pulse rate with bradycardia?
A)120 beats per minute
B)100 beats per minute
C)40 beats per minute
D)72 beats per minute
E)200 beats per minute
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of respiration?
A)its involuntary
B)is triggered by varying levels of oxygen
C)its controlled by a specific part of the brain
D)carbon dioxide affects respiration
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a recommended alternative type to replace mercury thermometers for use in the health care setting?
A)Digital
B)Electronic
C)Paper
D)Tympanic
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25
Chapter 24: The Physical Examination
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Q1) The provider completes the head and neck examination.He asks you to position the patient for a pelvic examination and Pap smear.Which of the following is the most appropriate position?
A)Sims'
B)Dorsal recumbent
C)Supine
D)Lithotomy
E)Prone
Q2) feeling body parts or organs
A) inspection
B) palpation
C) percussion
D) auscultation
E) mensuration
Q3) Which of the following is the most appropriate position to be in to wait for a general physical examination?
A)In a sitting position at the end of the exam table.
B)Lying supine on the exam table.
C)Lying in the lithotomy position on the exam table.
D)Assuming the prone position.
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Chapter 25: Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Q1) Which of the following is the type of abortion in which there is evacuation of the fetus and placenta from the uterus at the mother's request?
A)Spontaneous
B)Complete
C)Threatened
D)Induced
E)Missed
Q2) The Bethesda System is used to report what type of results?
A)HPV
B)Pathology
C)Pap smear
D)DNA
Q3) Which of the following stages denotes the stage of labor from onset to complete dilation?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
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Chapter 26: Pediatrics
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Q1) Which of the following is a term for a procedure to place special tubes in the ears if the symptoms become chronic?
A)Myringotomy
B)Tympanotomy
C)Tympanostomy
D)Myringostomy
Q2) Which of the following is the normal range in inches for newborn head circumference?
A)10.5 to 12.5 inches
B)11.5 to 13.5 inches
C)12.5 to 14.5 inches
D)14.5 to 16.5 inches
Q3) What vaccine is given for the prevention of Kawasaki disease?
A)HAV
B)ROTA
C)HIB
D)IPV
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Chapter 27: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following disorders would Mr.King's symptoms indicate?
A)Prostatitis
B)Urethritis
C)Benign prostatic hypertrophy
D)Ureteritis
Q2) Which of the following is a common procedure of removing a portion of the vas deferens to cause the male to be sterile?
A)Vasectomy
B)Ureterostomy
C)Rectopexy
D)Prostatotomy
Q3) What test would a physician do first to help determine whether there is some pathology of the prostate?
A)Urinalysis
B)Testicular exam
C)Digital rectal exam
D)PSA test
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Chapter 28: Gerontology
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Q1) longing for death
A) psychological
B) physical
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when encountering a visually impaired patient?
A)Rub the patient's back.
B)Cough or say something aloud.
C)Do not approach until your presence is known.
D)Stand in front of the patient and touch lightly on the shoulder.
Q3) Which of the following is the number one cause of death today?
A)Pneumonia
B)Heart disease
C)Cancer
D)Renal failure
Q4) new poverty
A) psychological
B) physical
Q5) anxious to please
A) psychological
B) physical
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Examinations and Procedures of Body Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease caused by blocked sebaceous glands?
A)Dermatitis
B)Eczema
C)Acne
D)Impetigo
Q2) gout
A) urinary
B) digestive
C) sensory
D) circulatory
E) musculoskeletal
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a part of the middle ear?
A)Malleus
B)Incus
C)Stapes
D)Auricle
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Chapter 30: Assisting With Minor Surgery
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Q1) used to keep the sterile covering underneath in place
A) dressing
B) bandage
Q2) Which of the following is the primary purpose of surgical asepsis?
A)To clean and disinfect contaminated surfaces
B)To prevent microorganisms from entering the body during invasive procedures
C)To prevent exposing the body to microorganisms
D)To sterilize the skin
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an effective skin cleanser or antiseptic?
A)Betadine®
B)Hibiclens®
C)Hydrogen peroxide
D)Benzoine tincture
Q4) should be handled with care to avoid contamination
A) dressing
B) bandage
Q5) is applied directly to the wound
A) dressing
B) bandage
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Imaging
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Q1) Which of the following refers to an x-ray directed from one side to the opposite side?
A)Anterioposterior
B)Posteroanterior
C)Lateral
D)Supine
Q2) Which of the following is NOT included in patient preparation for a barium enema?
A)Special diet
B)No water
C)Laxative
D)Enemas
Q3) Mrs.Lane is scheduled for a barium enema in 3 days.For which of the following diseases is this test primarily performed?
A)Hiatal hernia
B)Esophageal varices
C)Polyps, tumors, and lesions
D)Kidney blockage
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Chapter 32: Rehabilitation and Therapeutic Modalities
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Q1) If you are soaking or immersing patients in water, the water temperature must NOT be greater than which of the following?
A)50°F
B)75°F
C)111°F
D)110°F
E)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using a walker?
A)Lightweight
B)Can be adjusted for height
C)Can be used on uneven ground
D)Can be fitted for wheels to push
E)Provides ambulation with confidence
Q3) Which of the following should be remembered when performing range-of-motion exercises on a patient?
A)Support the limb at the joint.
B)Do each movement only one time.
C)Position the patient in the supine position.
D)Use quick movements.
E)Have the patient go past the point of pain.
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Chapter 33: Nutrition in Health and Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered a classification of nutrients?
A)Water
B)Preservatives
C)Fats
D)Vitamins
E)Proteins
Q2) Which of the following is the total of all changes, chemical and physical, that take place in the body?
A)Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)
B)Metabolism
C)Calories
D)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding vitamins?
A)Vitamins are needed in large quantities.
B)Vitamins A, B, D, and E are fat soluble.
C)Vitamins B and C are water soluble.
D)Water-soluble vitamins are stored in fatty tissues.
E)Vitamins are simple molecules.
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35
Chapter 34: Basic Pharmacology
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the process whereby the drug is transported from the blood to the intended site of action?
A)Absorption
B)Biotransformation
C)Distribution
D)absorption
Q2) Which of the following describes the characteristics of over-the-counter medications?
A)May be used beyond the expiration date
B)Are safe to use with other drugs
C)May be used to avoid seeking needed medical care
D)Have only one active ingredient
Q3) Which of the following is an undesirable action of a drug that may limit its usefulness?
A)Contraindication
B)Interaction
C)Side effect
D)Adverse reaction
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Chapter 35: Calculation of Medication Dosage and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered to be parenteral?
A)Intravenous
B)Ingestion
C)Intramuscular
D)Intradermal
Q2) Which of the following best describes how syringes and needles should be disposed?
A)Remove the needle and place it in a sharps container.
B)Discard the needle in a rigid, puncture-proof container.
C)Recap the needle and place both the cap and the needle in a sharps container.
D)Cut off the needle and place it in a sharps container.
Q3) How many grams is equal to 3,000 milligrams?
A)1.5 g
B)2 g
C)2.5 g
D)3 g
E)4.5 g
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Cardiac Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs if the metal tip of a lead wire becomes detached from an electrode?
A)Alternating current artifacts
B)Muscle artifacts
C)Wandering baseline
D)Interrupted baseline
Q2) If the electrocardiograph is properly standardized, the standardization mark should be how high?
A)5 mm
B)10 mm
C)15 mm
D)20 mm
Q3) Why would the medical assistant place the power cord pointing away from the patient and not allow the cable to go underneath the table?
A)Causes interrupted baseline
B)Helps reduce AC interference
C)Helps reduce wandering baseline
D)Causes somatic tremor artifacts
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38
Chapter 37: Regulatory Guidelines for Safety and Quality in the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is responsible for compliance with OSHA regulations?
A)Employee
B)Employer
C)Safety officer
D)Department of Labor
Q2) Which of the following best describes how a laboratory manager can keep a current and updated list on the waived tests?
A)Check the FDA website.
B)Check the OSHA website.
C)Read the Medicaid manuals.
D)Read the Federal Register only.
Q3) Moderate-complexity tests require:
A)A higher degree of training
B)Personnel licensing
C)More strict regulations
D)All of the above
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Chapter 38: Introduction to the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) In TDM (Therapeutic Drug Monitoring), measuring the highest level of medication in the patient's blood is referred to as which of the following?
A)Trough
B)Peak
C)Diagnosis
D)HRT
Q2) CBC with diff, hepatitis B surface antigen, rubella antibody, syphilis, antibody screen, RBC, and blood typing
A) arthritis
B) general health
C) lipid
D) obstetric
Q3) Which of the following best describes the purpose of using oil immersion?
A)Decrease magnification
B)Scatter light rays throughout the field
C)Multiply ocular lens magnification
D)Visualize all objects in the field
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Chapter 39: Phlebotomy: Venipuncture and Capillary
Puncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes why OSHA requires safety needles be made available to employees?
A)Eliminates the need for biohazard waste containers
B)Can only be used with specific guidelines
C)Prevents on-the-job needle stick injuries
D)Protects patients completely from accidental sticks
Q2) Pressure to the site must be held longer than 2 to 3 minutes after a venipuncture is performed if the patient is taking which of the following?
A)Coumadin
B)Aspirin
C)Ginko biloba
D)All of the above
Q3) This uses a multi-draw needle.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
Q4) Pull gently with plunger.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
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Chapter 40: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukocytes provide specific disease-fighting functions in the blood.Which one of the following is NOT one of them?
A)Coagulation
B)Phagocytosis
C)Detoxification
D)Immune response
Q2) Which of the following is the hormone required for the production of new red blood cells?
A)Hematopoietin
B)Erythropoietin
C)Hemoglobin
D)Plasma
Q3) How can the WBC count be estimated when performing the microhematocrit test?
A)Cannot be estimated
B)Measured at the bottom of the tube
C)By measuring buffy coat thickness
D)By the amount of plasma and platelets
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42
Chapter 41: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which area on the reagent test strip would be positive, indicating an infection and its presence in a urine sample?
A)Specific gravity
B)Leukocytes
C)Ketones
D)Urobilinogen
Q2) Which of the following best describes the characteristics of yeast cells on microscopic examination?
A)Larger than red blood cells
B)Resembles casts
C)Smaller than red blood cells
D)Resembles crystals
Q3) Which of the following is NOT included in the physical examination of urine?
A)Observing and recording color
B)Noting unusual urine odor
C)Noting excess glucose
D)Measuring specific gravity
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43
Chapter 42: Basic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be used when obtaining a nasopharyngeal collection for a culture?
A)Sterile tongue depressor
B)Sterile applicator stick
C)Special swab on a thin wire
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT included in inoculating techniques?
A)Loop
B)Lawn streak
C)Colony count
D)Random streak
Q3) What is the organism that causes strep throat?
A)Group A, alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
B)Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococcus
C)Group B, alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
D)Group B, beta-hemolytic streptococcus
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Chapter 43: Speciality Laboratory Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that can alter the results of a semen analysis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)Orchitis
B)Fever
C)Cigarette smoking
D)Low fat diet
Q2) Which of the following is an indication for notifying the physician and stopping the glucose tolerance test?
A)Hypoglycemia on a blood sample.
B)Patient develops nausea.
C)Extreme hyperglycemia on the fasting specimen.
D)Patient develops weakness, faintness, or perspiration.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT included in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis?
A)Hematology tests
B)Serology tests
C)Patient symptoms
D)Chemistry tests
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45
Chapter 44: The Medical Assistant As Clinic Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a fringe benefit made to full-time employees?
A)Paid holidays
B)Health insurance
C)Transportation costs
D)Profit-sharing options
Q2) Which of the following best describes the staff member most likely responsible for preparing payroll checks?
A)Physician
B)Administrative assistant
C)Office manager
D)Receptionist
Q3) Which of the following is NOT considered a proven means of time management?
A)Handle items once.
B)Develop a to-do list.
C)Guard your time.
D)Never delegate work.
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Chapter 45: The Medical Assistant As Human Resources Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following interview questions would be inappropriate?
A)What is most important to you about this job?
B)How would a co-worker describe you?
C)Do you have any health problems that might affect your job performance?
D)What are your weaknesses?
Q2) mission statement
A) policy manual
B) procedures manual
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an important aspect of the exit interview:
A)It is usually not necessary
B)It is an opportunity for the voluntary separation employee to discuss positive and negative aspects of the job
C)The voluntary separation employee may ask for a letter of reference
D)The voluntary separation employee may discuss changes that can be made for the incoming employee
Q4) What should one NOT look for when evaluating a candidate's résumé?
A)Education
B)Good "fit" for the job
C)Errors
D)Religious background
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Chapter 46: Preparing for Medical Assisting Credentials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a group of practicing medical assistants, providers, and medical assisting educators from across the United States who write items for the American Associations of Medical Assistants' certification examination?
A)Curriculum Review Board
B)Task Force for Test Construction
C)American Medical Association
D)Prometric Testing Center
Q2) Which of the following organization awards the Certified Medical Administrative Assistant credential?
A)American Association of Medical Assistants
B)National Healthcareer Association
C)American Medical Technologists
D)Committee on Accreditation of Health Education Programs
Q3) Which of the following is a correct statement about the CMA certification examination application process?
A)Must not by typewritten.
B)Mail the instructions back with the application.
C)Applications may take 15 days after exam application deadline to process.
D)Incomplete applications are returned.
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Chapter 47: Employment Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are danger signs of an employer that could make your work life difficult except:
A)Questions regarding your accomplishments
B)Disrespectful behavior
C)Signs of insecurity by the manager
D)Negative attitude in statements
Q2) When creating an online profile, you should avoid all of the following buzzwords/phrases except:
A)Lead a team to develop specific protocols
B)Experienced
C)Team player
D)References available upon request
Q3) Therésuméwork summary should:
A)Be 3-5 short paragraphs
B)Be 1 paragraph long
C)Include your entire work history
D)Be listed as the last entry
Q4) watched
A) power verb
B) not a power verb
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