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Administration of Justice provides an in-depth exploration of the structures, functions, and processes of the criminal justice system. This course examines key components including law enforcement, courts, and corrections, while highlighting the roles and responsibilities of each segment. Students will analyze the principles of justice, due process, legal frameworks, and constitutional protections that guide the administration of justice. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, contemporary issues, and the impact of societal influences on justice practices. The course aims to equip students with foundational knowledge necessary for further study or careers in criminal justice, law enforcement, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
America's Courts and the Criminal Justice System 11th Edition by David W. Neubauer
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Q1) Most criminal defendants hire a private lawyer for their defense.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Criminal justice is best viewed as a system and a A)conglomerate
B)business
C)nonsystem
D)victim's agency
Answer: C
Q3) If the grand jury finds probable cause to hold the defendant for trial it returns a A)warrant
B)no true bill
C)true bill
D)Alford bill
Answer: C
Q4) Crimes fall into three categories-felonies, misdemeanors, and _____.
Answer: violations
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Q1) Which of the following is not an element of a crime?
A)Mens rea
B)Actus reus
C)Attendant circumstances
D)Guilty conscience
Answer: D
Q2) _____ are conclusions or deductions that can be made based on the facts that have been established by the evidence.
Answer: Inferences
Q3) A ruling in a previous case that serves as a guide in deciding subsequent cases with similar circumstances is known as a _____.
Answer: precedent
Q4) The three key characteristics of common law are: judge-made law, precedent, and _____ sources of law.
Answer: multiple
Q5) One of the most fundamental protections recognized in the American criminal justice process is the presumption of _____.
Answer: innocence
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Q1) _____ jurisdiction means that a court has the authority to try a case and decide it.
Answer: Original
Q2) Which of the following is not true of federal district court judges?
A)They are nominated by the President.
B)They must be confirmed by the U.S.Senate.
C)They must reside in their district.
D)They are appointed for eight year terms.
Answer: D
Q3) The United States has one national court system plus separate court systems in each of the 50 states and the District of Columbia.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Appellate courts are considered finders of fact.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The onset of the _____ Revolution increased the caseload of the federal courts.
Answer: Industrial
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Q1) Lower courts handle what stages of felony cases?
A)the final stages
B)the intermediate stages
C)the appeal stages
D)the preliminary stages
Q2) In states without intermediate appellate courts, state courts of last resort
A)must hear all criminal appeals.
B)have discretion to hear only the cases they decide are the most important.
C)hear only the most notorious cases.
D)None of these answers is correct.
Q3) What event following the Civil War produced fundamental changes in the structure of the American Judiciary?
A)decreases in population
B)rapid industrialization
C)lower volumes of litigation
D)decreases in urban populations
Q4) County courts stood at the heart of American colonial government.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One of the key components of court unification is _____ administration.
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Q1) A law in action approach to court delay sets out specific times within which the prosecutor must indict and try the case.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The shared decision making of the courtroom work group helps to diffuse responsibility.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The concept of assembly-line justice stresses the high volume of cases in courthouses and the emphasis on moving the docket.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What right did Barker's lawyer argue was violated?
A)the Sixth Amendment right to a speedy trial.
B)the Seventh Amendment right to a speedy trial.
C)the Eighth Amendment right to a speedy trial.
D)the Fourth Amendment right to a speedy trial.
Q5) The _____ is responsible for maintaining order in the courtroom.
Q6) Clerks of court and court _____ work behind the scenes.
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Q1) Who sets the tone for plea bargaining in the courtroom?
A)the judge
B)the prosecutor
C)the defense attorney
D)the clerk
Q2) More so than judges and defense attorneys, the prosecutor is the most powerful official in the criminal courts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the difference between vertical and horizontal assignment of cases to prosecutors.
Q4) Prosecutors consider both legal and extra-legal focal concerns when making a charging decision.Which of the following is an extra-legal focal concern?
A)degree of harm caused by the offense
B)degree of cooperation by the defendant
C)socio-economic status of the victim
D)likelihood of prosecution in another jurisdiction
Q5) Assistant district attorneys spend most of their time not in the central office but in the ____.
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Q1) At which of the following stages in the criminal justice process is an indigent defendant provided counsel paid by the government?
A)at the time of arrest
B)during a preliminary hearing
C)during a grand jury hearing
D)when filing a discretionary appeal
Q2) Which Amendment provides the right to counsel?
A)4<sup>th</sup> Amendment
B)5<sup>th</sup> Amendment
C)6<sup>th </sup>Amendment
D)7<sup>th</sup> Amendment
Q3) Defendants do not have a constitutional right to self-representation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Legal ethics seek to ensure that lawyers will zealously advocate for their clients. A)True
B)False
Q5) Statements made by a client to his or her attorney are considered _____ communication.
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Q1) Discuss the role of the judge within the courtroom work group.
Q2) Barack Obama demonstrated his commitment to judicial _____ by nominating the first Latina to the U.S.Supreme Court.
Q3) _____ does not mean conviction, but rather allegations of wrongdoing-roughly the equivalent of a grand jury indictment.
Q4) If the state judicial conduct commissions find merit to the complaint about a judge they often
A)work informally to correct the problem
B)work formally to correct the problem
C)file formal charges
D)file formal warnings
Q5) The Senate _____ Committee holds a hearing on Presidential judicial nominees before the full Senate votes to confirm the nomination.
Q6) Judicial _____ Evaluations are an important tool for maintaining judicial accountability.
Q7) State judicial conduct commissions were first created in _____ for the purpose of disciplining judges.
Q8) Explain the three main methods of judicial selection.
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Q1) The criminal justice system has done little to help victims recover from the financial and emotional problems they suffer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most of what we know about the ordeal of testifying in court comes from research on victims of
A)rape.
B)robbery.
C)assault.
D)burglary.
Q3) In what percent of all felony arrests in New York did the victim have a prior relationship with the offender?
A)fifty percent
B)forty percent
C)sixty percent
D)seventy percent
Q4) What prompted the passage of the Victim and Witness Protection Act? In what way(s) did the Act help victims and witnesses?
Q5) Victim advocacy groups have become a powerful _____ voice.
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Q1) Grand juries decide the guilt or innocence for defendants charged with felony offenses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a power of the grand jury?
A)All of these are powers of the grand jury
B)To subpoena witnesses
C)To indict defendants
D)To grant witness immunity
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the four types of charging documents?
A)arrest warrant
B)Complaint
C)Indictment
D)writ of certiorari
Q4) The Uniform Crime Report's Type I offenses are also referred to as _____ crimes.
Q5) A(n) _____ is defined as the physical taking into custody of a suspected law violator.
Q6) The Constitution does not specifically provide that all citizens have a right to _____.
Q7) How do arrests made by the police impact the criminal court process?
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Q1) All of the following are warrantless search except?
A)search with consent
B)search incident to lawful arrest
C)hidden view
D)plain view
Q2) The particularity requirement means that
A)warrants should be as detailed as possible.
B)applications for warrants should be as detailed as possible.
C)arrest warrants should be as detailed as possible.
D)search warrants should be as detailed as possible.
Q3) Searches conducted at any _____ border do not require a warrant.
Q4) Compare and contrast the exclusionary rule and the fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine.Provide a history of both in your answer.
Q5) Which Amendment to the U.S.Constitution provides for protection against self-incrimination?
A)1<sup>st </sup>Amendment
B)4<sup>th </sup>Amendment
C)5<sup>th</sup> Amendment
D)6<sup>th</sup> Amendment
Q6) Miranda applies only to _____ interrogations.
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Q1) Explain the difference between a count bargain, a charge bargain, and a sentence bargain.Which do you think best benefits a defendant? Why?
Q2) How many different types of plea agreements are there?
A)one
B)four
C)three
D)two
Q3) A count bargain means
A)the defendant's top charge was reduced to something less severe.
B)the defendant agrees to plead guilty to fewer charges.
C)the defendant agrees to plead guilty in exchange for a lesser sentence.
D)the defendant gets one sentence for multiple charges, instead of consecutive sentences.
Q4) In this type of plea agreement the defendant pleads guilty to a charge in the indictment in exchange for other charges in the indictment being dropped.
A)charge bargain
B)count bargain
C)reduction bargain
D)nolo contendere
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Q1) What is the minimum size of a jury in noncapital criminal cases?
A)9 persons
B)6 persons
C)3 persons
D)12 persons
Q2) In a high-profile case what might be necessary to find a pool of potential jurors who could render a fair and impartial verdict, free from the taint of pretrial publicity?
A)a change in custody
B)a rebuttal
C)jury consultants
D)a change in venue
Q3) Which of the following are requirements of jurors in virtually all states?
A)residents of the locality
B)minimum age
C)understand English
D)All of these answers are correct
Q4) Evidence at trial is limited to relevant evidence.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What are the major differences between the viewpoints of the due process model of criminal justice and the criminal control model of criminal justice and the death penalty?
Q2) Good time is a mechanism used to reduce overcrowding.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The major alternatives to imprisonment include probation; fines; restitution; and intermediate sanctions.Describe each of these alternatives and discuss the cases where they are generally used.
Q4) The Prison Litigation Reform Act severely limited the federal courts' supervisory powers over what?
A)state probation programs
B)city prisons
C)city probation programs
D)state prisons
Q5) State efforts to make non-homicide cases death eligible have been _____ by the Supreme Court.
Q6) A _____ trial process is one in which there is a separate trial for guilt and sentencing.
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Q1) How has the U.S.Supreme Court limited sentencing guidelines?
Q2) Which offender-victim dyad has research show is most likely to result in execution?
A)black offender, white victim
B)black offender, black victim
C)white offender, white victim
D)white offender, black victim
Q3) The use of discretion by criminal justice system actors can sometimes nullify or compensate for severe punishment laws.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A sentencing guidelines grid allows for upward and downward departures from the guidelines.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discrimination refers to legitimate influences on the sentencing processes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ circumstances may lead to a higher penalty.
Q7) Structured sentencing schemes target sentencing decisions by _____.
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Q1) Unlike trial courts, appellate courts do not hear _____ at trials.
Q2) During trial, attorneys must make timely objections to the judge's rulings on points of law, or the objection will be deemed waived.This is called the
A)the contemporaneous objection rule
B)the off-the-record objection rule
C)the contemporary objection rule
D)the on-the-record objection rule
Q3) What is the last of the six customary phases in the appeals process?
A)filing a notice of appeal.
B)briefing the cases.
C)designating the record on appeal.
D)writing the opinion.
Q4) Criminal defendants are guaranteed the right to have an appellate court directly examine their convictions for all types of alleged errors as long as they do what?
A)file a writ of habeas corpus
B)file a notice of appeal within the specified time limits
C)request a hearing with the judge
D)file a request for de novo review
Q5) Once a not guilty verdict is returned the prosecutor cannot _____ the acquittal.
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Q1) Describe the three major types of cases that may be heard in juvenile court.Provide examples of each type of case.
Q2) In status offenses, the child is charged with violation of a criminal law that is not based on age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Gault and subsequent cases signaled that the juvenile court must become a real court and its procedures must be regularized in accordance with A)constitutional requirements.
B)parens patriae.
C)civil law.
D)criminal rules of procedure.
Q4) What case held that the death penalty may not be imposed on offenders who commit crimes before they are 18??
A)in re Gault
B)In re Winship
C)Thompson v.Oklahoma
D)Roper v.Simmons
Q5) Discuss the doctrine of parens patriae and its relevance to the juvenile court.
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