Acute Care Physical Therapy Test
Bank
Course Introduction
Acute Care Physical Therapy focuses on the evaluation and management of patients with complex and critical medical conditions in hospital settings. The course covers the role of physical therapists in addressing mobility, functional independence, and early intervention for patients following surgery, trauma, or acute illness. Emphasis is placed on understanding medical equipment, safety considerations, interdisciplinary collaboration, and the implementation of evidence-based interventions to prevent complications, promote recovery, and facilitate safe discharge planning. Through case studies and practical experiences, students gain skills in patient assessment, clinical decision-making, and tailored therapeutic approaches within the fast-paced and dynamic acute care environment.
Recommended Textbook
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Evidence to Practice 5th Edition by
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45 Chapters
861 Verified Questions
861 Flashcards
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Donna Frownfelter
Chapter 1: Epidemiology As a Basis for Informing
Contemporary Physical Therapy Practice
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The leading cause of premature mortality and disability in industrialized countries is: A) cancer.
B) diabetes.
C) obstructive lung disease.
D) ischemic heart disease.
Answer: D
Q2) Modifiable risk factors for ischemic heart disease include increased cholesterol,increased homocysteine,smoking,inactivity,high blood pressure,weight,and:
A) diabetes and stress.
B) diabetes and osteoarthritis.
C) age and family history.
D) sex and past medical history.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Oxygen Transport: the Basis of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitrogen is the largest component of atmospheric (room)air.This concentration of nitrogen gas in the air is physiologically important to the mechanics of respiration for which of the following reasons?
A) Nitrogen is the gas that drives our respiration.
B) Nitrogen maintains the patency of the alveoli.
C) Nitrogen is a substitute for oxygen at higher elevations.
D) Nitrogen is the gas responsible for the ozone layer.
Answer: B
Q2) Concerning the process of oxygen transport,all of the following are essential to the process except:
A) cellular uptake of oxygen.
B) utilization of oxygen in the tissue.
C) delivery of fully oxygenated blood to the peripheral tissue.
D) return of oxygenated blood to the lungs for exchange.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Movement of the lower ribs during inspiration is described as:
A) caliper movement.
B) pump-handle movement.
C) bucket-handle movement.
D) pivot movement.
Answer: C
Q2) The accessory action of the trapezius muscles is said to be:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) both inspiration and expiration.
D) neither inspiration nor expiration.
Answer: D
Q3) The accessory action of the internal intercostal muscles is said to be: A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) both inspiration and expiration.
D) neither inspiration nor expiration.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a healthy adult with a pulse rate of approximately 75 beats/min,the cardiac cycle occurs in approximately seconds.
A) 0.6
B) 0.8
C) .08
D) 8.0
Q2) According to the authors,the effects of afterload would correspond to which of the following cardiac reflexes in healthy adults based primarily on response to exercise demands?
A) Anrep effect
B) Starling effect
C) Bowditch effect
D) Ventura effect
Q3) If the pneumotaxic center is compromised,the resulting breathing pattern would be known as:
A) pneumotaxic respiration.
B) apneustic breathing.
C) pneumotaxic breathing.
D) apneustic respiration.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient recovering from cardiac surgery is at risk for developing which type of dysrhythmia?
A) Sinus tachycardia
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Conduction block
D) Atrial fibrillation
Q2) Hypercholesterolemia can lead to other cardiovascular diagnoses because:
A) it is always associated with atherosclerotic disease.
B) it increases the blood coagulation rate and increases the risk of blood clot formation.
C) it changes the structure and function of endothelial tissue.
D) it changes the heart rate.
Q3) A physical therapist working with patients in cardiac rehabilitation should be able to discern anginal pain.One major difference between stable and unstable angina is:
A) brought on by stress (psychological or emotional).
B) duration (time with intense pain).
C) brought on by activity (physical exertion or exercise).
D) none of the above.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Manifestations of Systemic Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physical therapist completes an evaluation of a child with cerebral palsy.As part of the physical therapy interventions,physical therapist is planning to educate the parents or caregivers.What items will be most appropriate to include to maintain optimal cardiovascular and pulmonary health?
A) Consideration of a scoliosis screen
B) Consideration of seating adaptations
C) Consideration of the risk for aspiration
D) Consideration for supplemental oxygen
Q2) Abnormalities seen in red blood cells that would affect the ability of the cell to transport oxygen might be seen clinically as which symptom?
A) Hemoptysis
B) Hemorrhage
C) Dyspnea
D) Pleuritic chest pain
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8
Chapter 7: Measurement and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When selecting tests and measures,which is most accurate?
A) Characteristics or qualities of measurements, such as reliability and validity, should not influence the therapist's decision.
B) The risk-to-benefit ratio implies that the risk is always worth the data collected.
C) Selected tests and measures should be relevant as measured by their potential ability to impact the direction of the examination and intervention.
D) Environmental or personal factors do not influence the selection.
Q2) Which of the following is true?
A) When deciding whether a measurement is a ratio or interval, the attribute that is being measured is irrelevant.
B) Interval measurements can only have negative values and cannot be subjected to some arithmetic operations.
C) For a measurement to be of value to a therapist, the measure should be both reliable (reproducible) and valid (meaningful).
D) Categorical measurements are considered ordinal if being assigned to multiple categories.
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9
Chapter 8: History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes cardiac chest pain?
A) Chest pain originates from the parietal pleura or endothoracic fascia.
B) Deep breathing, coughing, and laughing are extremely painful.
C) There is a characteristic buildup, or escalation, of angina pain.
D) There is a characteristic cessation, or deescalation, of angina pain.
Q2) Which is not a neurologic abnormality resulting in dyspnea?
A) Spinal cord injury
B) Fibrotic lung disease
C) Ascending polyneuritis
D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Q3) Which best describes orthopnea?
A) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the recumbent position
B) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the sitting position
C) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the standing position
D) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the inverted position
Q4) Which is not phase of the couch mechanism?
A) Compressive phase
B) Inspiratory phase
C) Expansive phase
D) Expiratory phase
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes an obstructive condition of the lungs?
A) A condition that limits the amount of volume coming into the lungs
B) A condition that increases air volume coming into the lungs
C) A condition that increases the volume in exhalation
D) A condition that relates to problems in exhalation airflow
Q2) Which is not true regarding total lung capacity (TLC)?
A) TLC is the amount of gas the lung contains at the end of a maximum inspiration.
B) A decrease in TLC may be seen in restrictive lung disease, such as pulmonary brosis.
C) It is made up of inspiration capacity (IC) and functional residual capacity (FRC).
D) An increase in TLC may be seen in atelectasis, neoplasms, pleural effusions, and hemothorax.
Q3) When should spirometric measurements be considered a vital sign?
A) In those younger than 40 years of age
B) In those who do not smoke
C) In those with normal mucous production
D) In those with unexplained wheezing
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Chapter 10: Arterial Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of hemoglobin?
A) It is crucial for oxygen transport.
B) It is crucial for carbon dioxide transport.
C) It is crucial for H CO transport.
D) It is unable to cross the capillary membrane.
Q2) In regards to respiratory failure,which is true?
A) Positional changes can affect the oxygenation status.
B) During the chronic phase, the kidneys have not started to compensate, and the base HCO is within normal limits.
C) Acute respiratory failure can be noted by an increased PCO , a pH within normal limits, and a low PO .
D) When hyperoxygenation is noted, treatment consists of oxygen therapy, CPAP or biphasic positive airway pressure, and alleviation of the cause of hyperoxygenation.
Q3) What are the normal arterial pH values?
A) 7.80 to 9.0
B) 2.5 to 5.0
C) 6.35 to 7.2
D) 7.35 to 7.45
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Chapter 11: Imaging of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered the standard views for chest radiographs?
A) A superoanterior (PA) and a left lateral view
B) A posteroanterior (PA) and a left lateral view
C) A posteroanterior (PA) and a right lateral view
D) A superoanterior (PA) and a right lateral view
Q2) On a radiograph,what does the dark area represent?
A) Pockets of air within the body
B) Fatty areas within the body
C) Muscle and other soft tissues
D) Bones within the body
Q3) How does a PET scan work?
A) Uses magnetic energy to align the cells and measures the density of tissue
B) Measures the uptake of radiolabeled glucose in the tissue
C) Uses standard ionizing radiation to generate images or slices of the body
D) Uses standard ionizing isotopes to measure the density of tissue to crease a single image
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13
Chapter 12: Electrocardiogram Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) When considering a third-degree heart block,which of the following is true?
A) Third-degree block is considered an incomplete heart block.
B) Third-degree block has a 1:1 ratio of P wave to QRS complexes.
C) Third-degree block have a progressively longer P-R interval until a P wave is fails to conduct to the ventricles.
D) Third-degree block is treated with implantation of a pacemaker.
Q2) What is the normal timing of the P-R interval?
A) 0.01 seconds
B) 0.12 to 0.2 seconds
C) >0.2 seconds
D) <0.1 seconds
Q3) With regard to a patient's readiness for activity or participation in a cardiac rehabilitation program,which of the following does not need to be able to be answered by the rehabilitation professional?
A) Recognition of heart rhythms and their associated variations
B) Implications of a rhythms systemic and hemodynamic effects
C) Benign heart rhythms
D) All of the above
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14
Chapter 13: Multisystem Assessment and Laboratory Investigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a test of peripheral vascular function?
A) Peripheral pulses
B) Capillary filling time
C) Ankle systolic pressures
D) Fibrin clotting time
Q2) Which of the following describes the average volume and constituents of blood in an adult?
A) 3 L of plasma; 2 L of cells
B) 5 L of plasma; 2 L of cells
C) 1 L of plasma; 4 L of cells
D) 2 L of plasma; 5 L of cells
Q3) Which product of the adrenal glands inhibits the action of insulin and thus the uptake of glucose by cells?
A) Dopamine
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Norepinephrine
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Special Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the advantage of using an 11-C-Acetate isotope versus 18F-fluoro-deoxyglucose to study myocardial metabolism?
A) It does not rely on substrate use.
B) It crosses the capillary membrane at a rate proportional to that of glucose.
C) It becomes trapped in the myocardium.
D) All of the above
Q2) Which type of imaging uses x-rays and collimators to allow for the visualization of cross-sectional slices of body organs?
A) PET
B) CT
C) SPECT
D) Planar
Q3) Which is not one of the three basic components of a radionuclide imaging system?
A) Radiopharmaceutical agent
B) Radiation detector or camera
C) Computer
D) Surgical scalpels and sutures
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Chapter 15: Clinical Evaluation and Assessment of the Cardiovascular
and Pulmonary
Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which heart sound is normal in children and young adults but abnormal in individuals older than age 40 years?
A) S1
B) S2
C) S3
D) S4
Q2) During evaluation of thoracic expansion,a symmetrical decrease in chest wall motion occurs in which condition?
A) Lobar pneumonia
B) Scoliosis
C) Surgical incision
D) COPD
Q3) Which breath sounds are described as high pitched and are distinguished by a pause that exists between the inspiratory and expiratory phases that are heard?
A) Bronchial
B) Bronchovesicular
C) Vesicular
D) Adventitious
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Chapter 16: Monitoring Systems, catheters, and Devices in the Intensive Care Unit
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal pH of the body?
A) Below 7.35
B) 7.35 to 7.45
C) 7.45 to 7.55
D) Above 7.55
Q2) If a patient's chest tube becomes dislodged during mobilization,what is the appropriate protocol for a physical therapist?
A) Attempt to replace the tube immediately before notifying a nurse.
B) Monitor the patient's pulse and breathing after notifying a nurse.
C) Apply immediate compression to the site and notify a nurse.
D) Keep the site clean and clear of linens or other objects while notifying a nurse.
Q3) Which of the following refers to acute reductions in arterial carbon dioxide levels?
A) Hypoxia
B) Hyperoxia
C) Hypocapnia
D) Hypercapnia
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18
Chapter 17: Maximizing Outcomes: Relating Interventions to an
Individuals Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goals of treatment fall into three categories:
A) preventive, long term, and short term.
B) primary, secondary, and tertiary.
C) cognitive, psychosocial, and nutritional.
D) restricted mobility, intrinsic factors, and extrinsic factors.
Q2) The American Physical Therapy Association's Guide To Physical Therapist Practice (2001)reflects a broad scope of practice.The guide describes:
A) diagnosis, treatment, extrinsic factors, and intrinsic factors.
B) long-term goals, short-term goals, primary goals, secondary goals.
C) examination, evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, intervention.
D) extrinsic factors, intrinsic factors, prognosis, intervention.
Q3) The physical therapist has a major role in preventing infections of all types but:
A) respiratory infections.
B) renal infections.
C) cardiopulmonary infections.
D) blood infections.
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Chapter 18: Mobilization and Exercise: Physiological Basis for Assessment,
evaluation, and Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metabolic costs increase with illness and injury as a result of:
A) insurance coverage.
B) the length of the hospital stay.
C) severity of the injury.
D) healing and repair.
Q2) An intervention-related factor that contributes to increased metabolic demand and oxygen consumption is:
A) fever.
B) noise.
C) anxiety.
D) range of motion exercises.
Q3) What pathophysiological factor that contributes to increased metabolic demand and oxygen consumption?
A) Healing or repairing
B) Fever
C) Combating infection
D) All of the above
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Mobilization and Exercise: Testing and Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extreme body position changes simulate,but do not replace,the:
A) physiological stir-up and perturbations that occur with normal mobility and being left side-lying.
B) physiological stir-up and perturbations that occur with normal mobility and being recumbent.
C) physiological stir-up and perturbations that occur with normal mobility and being prone.
D) physiological stir-up and perturbations that occur with normal mobility and being upright.
Q2) Body position should first be exploited when coupled with movement followed by the:
A) the patient being placed in a supine position.
B) patient being placed in a recumbent position.
C) erect sitting positions with the legs dependent.
D) patient being placed in a propped-up position.
Q3) Prescription of body positioning is based on an analysis of the factors that:
A) contribute to impaired oxygen transport for each patient.
B) contribute to improved oxygen transport for each patient.
C) contribute to improved cardiovascular function for each patient.
D) contribute to decreased cardiovascular function for each patient.
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Chapter 20: Body Positioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for percussion,which is a traditional approach to secretion mobilization,is:
A) rhythmic stabilization.
B) mechanical tapping.
C) chest therapy.
D) chest clapping.
Q2) An indication for airway clearance is:
A) nonproductive cough.
B) atelectasis.
C) respiratory muscle weakness.
D) asthma.
Q3) All of the following refer to bronchial hygiene techniques EXCEPT:
A) chest physical therapy.
B) tracheal tapping.
C) bronchial drainage.
D) chest physiotherapy.
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Chapter 21: Airway Clearance Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postural drainage is accomplished by positioning the patient so that the angle of the lung segment to be drained allows:
A) is closest to the physical therapist.
B) farthest from the physical therapist.
C) aligned with the bronchial tree.
D) gravity to have its greatest effect.
Q2) Light percussion,_______ and ________ are used in conjunction with postural drainage positioning:
A) vibration, clapping
B) clapping, shaking
C) vibration, shaking
D) soft clapping, shaking
Q3) Preparation for any secretion removal technique should include:
A) evaluation of the patient's pulmonary status.
B) preparation of the surrounding area.
C) removal of all jewelry.
D) review of the patient's medical history.
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23
Chapter 22: Facilitating Airway Clearance With Coughing Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Speech and language pathologists work with patients who have swallowing dysfunction (dysphagia)by:
A) helping them to learn techniques and procedures for safe swallowing.
B) helping them to learn proper breathing techniques to aid in swallowing.
C) helping them to learn proper airway clearing techniques to aid in swallowing.
D) working in conjunction with a physical therapist on a treatment plan.
Q2) The anterior chest compression technique is more effective than the costophrenic assist for patients with a very weak:
A) chest wall muscle.
B) immune system.
C) pectoral muscle.
D) abdominal muscle.
Q3) Patients with asthma and emphysema tend to go into an expiratory wheeze when they:
A) overexert themselves.
B) are in a prone position for too long.
C) force and prolong exhalation.
D) force and prolong inhalation.
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Chapter 23: Facilitating Ventilation Patterns and Breathing Strategies
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Q1) The following are all indications for teaching controlled-breathing techniques EXCEPT:
A) rib fractures.
B) endocrine disturbances.
C) airway clearance dysfunction.
D) apprehension or nervousness.
Q2) The practitioner must actively include ventilation in every activity to help the patient understand that:
A) breathing transcends all activities.
B) body positioning is important.
C) endurance can improve.
D) inactivity limits function.
Q3) Inhalation promotes trunk extension,and exhalation promotes:
A) trunk side flexion (right).
B) trunk elongation.
C) trunk flexion.
D) trunk side flexion (left).
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Exercise Testing and Training: Primary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heart failure can be characterized as:
A) diastolic.
B) systolic.
C) neither a nor b.
D) both a and b.
Q2) Patients with severe chronic heart failure often have high ventilatory demands during exercise,and they have:
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) respiratory acidosis.
C) metabolic alkalosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
Q3) Of individuals who participate in pulmonary rehabilitation programs,the largest portion is made up of those with:
A) lung transplants.
B) lobectomies.
C) segmentectomies.
D) emphysema.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Exercise Testing and Training: Secondary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) The exercise limitations of individuals with connective tissue conditions result in part from the restrictive component associated with which of the following body systems?
A) Pulmonary
B) Circulatory
C) Muscular
D) Neurologic
Q2) Management of patients with systemic atherosclerosis and circulatory dysfunction is similar to management of patients with which of the following pathologies?
A) Stroke
B) Heart and lung failure
C) End-stage renal disease
D) Hypertension
Q3) Blood sugar abnormalities associated with diabetes necessitate monitoring in all the following conditions related to exercise EXCEPT:
A) 1 hour before.
B) right before.
C) during.
D) immediately after.
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Muscle Training
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Q1) Respiratory muscle weakness is often observed in patients with:
A) asthma.
B) chronic bronchitis.
C) acute respiratory failure.
D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Q2) Inspiratory and expiratory training enhances the:
A) respiratory muscle in patients with Parkinson disease.
B) neuromuscular junction in patients with neuromuscular disease (NMD).
C) respiratory muscle performance in patients with chronic heart failure (CAD).
D) respiratory muscle performance in patients with neuromuscular disease (NMD).
Q3) People with Parkinson disease can exhibit:
A) musculoskeletal weakness.
B) chronic lung dysfunction.
C) respiratory muscle weakness.
D) chronic respiratory dysfunction.
Q4) Respiratory muscle weakness increase:
A) the movement of the diaphragm.
B) alveolar inflation.
C) the relative load for breathing.
D) collateral circulation.
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Chapter 27: Complementary Therapies As
Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Interventions
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Q1) T'ai chi practice has been recommended as a:
A) way of lessening anxiety
B) therapeutic intervention in balance disorders and fall prevention in the elderly
C) to lower episodes of myocardial ischemia
D) way to lower the incidents of Type A behavior patterns
Q2) Osteopathic medicine stresses the importance of:
A) believing that illness and disease result from vertebral misalignment and regular manipulation can maintain energy flow to organs and the body/mind
B) using light touch to balance energy flow, partly by balancing the flow of cerebral spinal fluid during its circulation around the meninges of the cranium and down the spinal column
C) holistic health, nutrition and joint mobilization to maintain proper balance and homeostasis
D) using hands-on therapy to enhance relaxation and emotional awareness
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Chapter 28: Patient Education
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Q1) Determining the effectiveness of patient education efforts involves evaluating not only what the patient learned but also:
A) how smart the patient is.
B) how the teacher taught.
C) the age of the patient being treated.
D) how well the treatment was documented.
Q2) The most important aspect of planning for patient education is:
A) assessing the physical therapist.
B) assessing the clinic where the patient will be treated.
C) assessing the behavior-modification approach.
D) assessing the learner.
Q3) Prioritizing the patient's goals along with other intervention goals enhances the therapist's:
A) pay.
B) job security.
C) patient load.
D) efficiency.
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Chapter 29: Individuals With Acute Medical Conditions
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Q1) Which of the following is LEAST appropriate for a patient with hypertension?
A) Smoking cessation
B) Nutritional counseling
C) Aerobic exercise
D) Resistance training
Q2) Pneumonia:
A) rarely results in morbidity and mortality in hospitalized patients.
B) decreased in the presence of artificial airways.
C) transmitted through contact.
D) often preceded by atelectasis.
Q3) A patient with acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis:
A) is cachectic and red or pink in color.
B) has increased vital capacity.
C) uses less accessory muscles.
D) intermittently exhibits sternal retractions.
Q4) Which of the following statements regarding hypertension is FALSE?
A) Essential hypertension is the most common type of hypertension.
B) Salt consumption has been linked with hypertension.
C) Hypertension treatment typically includes the use of vasodilators.
D) Hypertension is not typically associated with heart failure.
31
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Chapter 30: Individuals With Acute Surgical Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anesthesia results in:
A) decreased atelectasis.
B) depression of breathing.
C) increased functional residual capacity.
D) increased residual volume.
Q2) You are consulted on a patient after resection of the right lung for treatment of lung cancer.The patient has had no postoperative precautions,but you wish to implement treatment plans that will sustain alveolar inflation and functional residual capacity.According to the textbook,_______________________ is/are the most appropriate course of action to achieve these goals.
A) placing the patient in a recumbent position
B) maximal inspiratory maneuvers alone
C) mobilization and position changes
D) forced coughing
Q3) Which of the following would promote postoperative complications after thoracic or cardiovascular surgery?
A) Deep breathing
B) Ambulation
C) Reduced arousal
D) Huffing
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Chapter 31: Individuals With Chronic Primary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary
Dysfunction
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Q1) The goal of physical therapy with a patient with valve dysfunction is to:
A) optimize oxygen transport.
B) decrease quality of life.
C) increase work of the heart.
D) provide long doses of exercise.
Q2) Angina is caused by:
A) valve dysfunction.
B) electrical dysfunction.
C) atherosclerosis.
D) bacterial infection.
Q3) All of the following diagnoses typically fall under the umbrella of chronic airflow limitation EXCEPT:
A) asthma.
B) bronchiectasis.
C) chronic bronchitis.
D) emphysema.
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Chapter 32: Individuals With Chronic Secondary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following contributes to pulmonary compromise in a patient with Parkinson disease?
A) Spasticity
B) Chest wall rigidity
C) Hypotonicity
D) Hypervigilance
Q2) The following aerobic exercise would be MOST appropriate for the patient with systemic lupus erythematous (SLE).
A) Running
B) Step aerobics
C) Biking
D) Plyometrics
Q3) Ankylosis spondylitis result in decreases in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) vital capacity.
B) total lung capacity.
C) inspiratory muscle function.
D) ventilatory capacity.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Comprehensive Management of Individuals in the Intensive Care Unit
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Q1) When establishing treatment goals for an ICU patient,what information is necessary for the physical therapist to consider?
A) State of patient arousal
B) Acid-base imbalances
C) Balance of electrolytes
D) All of the above
Q2) What would be the best way to wean an obese patient from the use of a mechanical ventilator?
A) Wean in a semirecumbent position.
B) Wean in a supine position.
C) Wean in a 90-degree upright position.
D) Wean in a prone position.
Q3) What is the main purpose of supplemental oxygen?
A) Prevent desaturation with exercise
B) For use before and after suctioning
C) Maintain PaO within an optimal range
D) Minimize the effects of acidemia
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Primary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following is not a common complication related to a patient's premorbid status before open heart surgery?
A) Lung collapse
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Stroke
D) Pulmonary emboli
Q2) What body position has been shown to have the greatest benefit for the patient with acute respiratory failure?
A) Sitting upright in a chair at the bedside
B) Scheduled four point turning
C) Randomized positioning
D) High Fowler position
Q3) Which of the following would be the best option for a patient unable to bear weight who you wish to mobilize into an upright position to improve cardiovascular and pulmonary function and gas exchange?
A) A chair at the side of the bed
B) Wait to try this intervention until weight-bearing status changes
C) Stretcher chair
D) Standing with maximum assistance of multiple assistants
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Chapter 35: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Secondary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Where would you place a chest tube in the treatment of a pneumothorax?
A) Sixth intercostal space in the posterior axillary line
B) Third intercostal space in the posterior axillary line
C) Sixth intercostal space in the midclavicular line
D) Third intercostal space in the midclavicular line
Q2) What should not be included during treatment and management of a patient with central nervous system trauma?
A) Occasional turning regimen of the patient
B) Judicious tracheal suctioning
C) Lung hyperventilation with manual breathing bag in nonventilated patient
D) Deep breathing or sighs in ventilated patients
Q3) While treating an obese patient,which of the following would not be an appropriate intervention?
A) Placing the patient in a prone position
B) Placing the patient in a half prone position
C) Lower extremity exercises
D) Whole-body ROM exercises
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Chapter 36: Intensive Care Management of Medical and Surgical Complications
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Q1) Which of the following is a complication from surgery that may arise with a patient in intensive care?
A) Pulmonary dysfunction
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Metabolic dysfunction
D) Deep vein thrombosis
Q2) Which of the following is not a classical feature of shock?
A) Hyperventilation
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Reduced cardiac output
Q3) A patient with acute lung injury presents with atelectasis and loss of lung compliance because of the impairment of the production of surfactant and pulmonary fluid that covers the alveolar epithelium.Which type(s)of alveolar cell is/are damaged?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Types I and II
D) Type III
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Chapter 37: Infants and Children With Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Concerns
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Q1) Which of the following describe the defects associated with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
A) Ventricular septal defect, right ventricular outflow obstruction, left ventricular hypertrophy, and aortic override
B) Atrial septal defect, right ventricular outflow obstruction, right ventricular hypertrophy, and aortic override
C) Ventricular septal defect, right ventricular outflow obstruction, right ventricular hypertrophy, and aortic override
D) Ventricular septal defect, left ventricular outflow obstruction, left ventricular hypertrophy, and aortic override
Q2) Which of the following conditions is associated with Arnold-Chiari type II malformation?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Myelomeningocele
C) Down syndrome
D) Muscular dystrophy
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Chapter 38: The Aging Patient
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Q1) The increase in the work of breathing becomes greater as most people age.For a 70-year-old man,what is the percentage of the total oxygen consumption needed for the respiratory muscles?
A) 5% to 7%
B) 10% to 12%
C) 8% to 15%
D) 10% to 20%
Q2) The decrease in VO max is approximately what percent per decade for men and women?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
Q3) Which of the following is not a suspected mechanism of VO max reduction?
A) Decrease in maximum heart rate
B) Decrease in cardiac output
C) Decrease in blood pressure
D) Decrease in stroke volume
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Chapter 39: Multisystem Clinical Implications of Impaired
Breathing Mechanics and Postural Control
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Q1) When should correction of imbalances of the thoracic muscles be initiated?
A) As soon as the deficits are found
B) After the child reaches skeletal maturity
C) Only if ventilation capacity is compromised
D) After the child is able to expand the thorax in all three planes
Q2) How can the pelvic floor influence one's ability to cough?
A) Increasing positive pressure in the abdomen to produce a more forceful cough
B) Decreasing positive pressure in the abdomen reducing a forceful cough
C) Allowing pressure release of pressure created by the abdomen and thorax
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following strategies may be used to optimize thoracic development?
A) Frequent changes in position
B) Facilitation of the weakened chest wall muscles
C) Promotion of optimal breathing patterns
D) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following is not the cause of symmetrical breathing patterns?
A) Stroke
B) Scoliosis
C) Unilateral spinal or nerve root injuries
D) Bilateral spinal cord injuries
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Chapter 40: The Transplant Patient
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Q1) What is the principle limitation to survival after a transplant?
A) Medication dosing
B) Graft rejection
C) Overexertion when trying to return to prior level of activity
D) Oversuppression of the immune system
Q2) What is the most common diagnosis referred for lung transplant?
A) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
B) COPD
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
Q3) What is the primary need of heart transplant in children younger than the age of 1 year?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Acute myocardial infarction
C) Mitral valve prolapse
D) Congenital abnormalities
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Chapter 41: The Patient in the Community
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Q1) Why should vital signs and oximetry be evaluated after each intervention in patients recovering from cardiac or pulmonary conditions?
A) To determine their effectiveness in progression of heart rate and oxygen saturation
B) To determine if there is an effect of medication on heart rate and respiratory rate
C) To determine if increases in heart rate and respiratory rate are proportional to activity
D) To ensure sound documentation
Q2) Which of the following is a priority among impairments found during the recovery of an episode of cardiac or pulmonary issues according to the text?
A) Ineffective sleep
B) Nonemergent breathing problems
C) Nutritional concerns
D) Pain
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43
Chapter 42: Body Mechanics: Positioning and Moving Patients
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Q1) Which shoulder position is recommended to increase upper chest wall movement and thoracic extension?
A) Glenohumeral internal rotation and scapular protraction
B) Glenohumeral abduction and scapular elevation
C) Glenohumeral external rotation and scapular retraction
D) Glenohumeral flexion and scapular elevation
Q2) Which occupations account for more than half of the annual prevalence of low back pain among health care personnel?
A) Physicians and laboratory technicians
B) Anesthesiologists and dentists
C) Nurses and therapists
D) Paramedics and ambulance drivers
Q3) Which of the following is an appropriate lifting tip?
A) Lift with your legs.
B) Do not attempt to lift solely with your arms and back.
C) Avoid rotation of the spine when lifting.
D) All of the above
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Respiratory Care Practice Review
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Q1) Which oxygen delivery method is most helpful for patients with obstructive sleep apnea?
A) Liquid oxygen
B) Partial rebreathing mask
C) CPAP
D) Heliox
Q2) Which alarm sounds most commonly when a ventilated patient is receiving physical therapy?
A) High-pressure alarm
B) Apnea alarm
C) FiO alarm
D) Volume alarm
Q3) Which location is included in the scope of a respiratory therapist?
A) Hospitals
B) Long-term care
C) Patients' homes
D) All of the above
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient With an Artificial Airway
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Q1) Which postoperative complication of tracheostomy can result from incorrect suctioning technique and the presence of a foreign body in the trachea?
A) Crusting
B) Tracheobronchitis
C) Tracheal stenosis
D) Infection at the surgical site
Q2) Which complication from tracheal suctioning can be minimized by performing preoxygenation?
A) Infection
B) Bronchospasm
C) Hypoxemia
D) All of the above
Q3) Which should be performed after suctioning a patient's artificial airway?
A) Check the patient's breath sounds.
B) Monitor the patient for dysrhythmias.
C) Use pulse oximetry to monitor desaturation.
D) All of the above
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Chapter 45: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Drug Actions
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Q1) What equation can be used to calculate blood pressure?
A) Cardiac output x Total peripheral resistance
B) Cardiac output/Total peripheral resistance
C) Heart rate x Stroke volume
D) Heart rate/Stroke volume
Q2) Which -adrenergic blocking drug is most useful in men with enlarged prostates?
A) Phentolamine
B) Phenoxybenzamine
C) Prazosin
D) Phenylephrine
Q3) Which drug is an anticholinergic with bronchodilatory effects useful in patients with asthma?
A) Ipratropium
B) Carbachol
C) Pilocarpine
D) None of the above
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