

Acute Care Physical Therapy Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Acute Care Physical Therapy focuses on the assessment and management of patients in hospital settings who are experiencing sudden or severe health issues, such as after surgery, injury, or medical emergencies. The course introduces students to the principles of acute care, including patient evaluation, treatment planning, and intervention techniques aimed at promoting mobility, functional recovery, and prevention of complications. Emphasis is placed on interdisciplinary collaboration, safety considerations, early mobilization, and discharge planning, preparing students to deliver effective physical therapy interventions in fast-paced and complex acute care environments.
Recommended Textbook
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Evidence to Practice 5th Edition by Donna Frownfelter
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861 Verified Questions
861 Flashcards
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2

Chapter 1: Epidemiology As a Basis for Informing
Contemporary Physical Therapy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lifestyle-related conditions can no longer be considered adult conditions or age related because children with sedentary lifestyles,low activity levels,and poor nutrition are manifesting lifestyle-related conditions earlier than previous generations and are expected to:
A) die prematurely from them but still have longer life expectancies than their parents.
B) have less morbidity associated with these conditions throughout their lives.
C) have fewer age-related conditions and add more years to their lives.
D) die prematurely from them and have shorter life expectancies than their parents.
Answer: D
Q2) An individual entering the health care system presents with insulin resistance,high blood pressure,elevated triglycerides and cholesterol,and obesity.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Genetic syndrome
B) Cardiac syndrome
C) Metabolic syndrome
D) Stockholm syndrome
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Oxygen Transport: the Basis of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cellular ATP and creatine phosphate are used first for energy as the patient or client initiates exercise activities; food substances are necessary to maintain energy stores.The process by which energy is created within the body is:
A) an anaerobic process.
B) an aerobic process.
C) a glycolysis process.
D) a glycolytic process.
Answer: C
Q2) Plasma is an extracellular fluid found in the bloodstream.This fluid is composed of protein and fibrinogen.How much protein is in plasma?
A) 17% albumin
B) 7% albumin
C) 10% albumin
D) 35% albumin
Answer: C
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4

Chapter 3: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The accessory action of the serratus anterior muscles is said to be:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) both inspiration and expiration.
D) neither inspiration nor expiration.
Answer: A
Q2) The accessory action of the internal intercostal muscles is said to be:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) both inspiration and expiration.
D) neither inspiration nor expiration.
Answer: C
Q3) The phrenic nerve passes through the diaphragm along with the inferior vena cava.Both of these structures pierce the diaphragm and create which opening?
A) Vena caval opening
B) Esophageal opening
C) Aortic opening
D) Lymphatic opening
Answer: A
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Page 5

Chapter 4: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider ventilation and perfusion matching in humans.What portion of the lungs would provide the best results in an erect human?
A) Apical segments
B) Posterior segments
C) Base segments
D) Anterior segments
Q2) Considering the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve,a shift in the curve to the left results in decreased oxygen affinity and a greater dissociation of oxygen and hemoglobin.What condition might have this effect on the curve?
A) Working skeletal muscle
B) Emphysema
C) Polycythemia
D) None of the above
Q3) If the pneumotaxic center is compromised,the resulting breathing pattern would be known as:
A) pneumotaxic respiration.
B) apneustic breathing.
C) pneumotaxic breathing.
D) apneustic respiration.
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Page 6

Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can present during an asthma attack EXCEPT:
A) chest tightness.
B) the expiratory phase of breathing is prolonged.
C) breath sounds diminish with progressive hyperinflation.
D) the inspiratory phase of breathing is prolonged.
Q2) A patient recovering from cardiac surgery is at risk for developing which type of dysrhythmia?
A) Sinus tachycardia
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Conduction block
D) Atrial fibrillation
Q3) A physical therapist working with patients in cardiac rehabilitation should be able to discern anginal pain.One major difference between stable and unstable angina is:
A) brought on by stress (psychological or emotional).
B) duration (time with intense pain).
C) brought on by activity (physical exertion or exercise).
D) none of the above.
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Page 7

Chapter 6: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Manifestations of Systemic Conditions
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Q1) Reduced lung compliance resulting from an increased fibrotic event of the lung parenchyma would be related to changes of what origin?
A) Musculoskeletal conditions
B) Neurologic conditions
C) Gastrointestinal conditions
D) Connective tissue conditions
Q2) A patient seen by a physical therapist is suspect of having right-sided heart failure.This condition is likely to lead to because blood is not forwarded to the lungs effectively.
A) pulmonary vasodilation
B) hyperkalemia
C) hypoxemia
D) hypoventilation
Q3) Abnormalities seen in red blood cells that would affect the ability of the cell to transport oxygen might be seen clinically as which symptom?
A) Hemoptysis
B) Hemorrhage
C) Dyspnea
D) Pleuritic chest pain
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Chapter 7: Measurement and Documentation
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Q1) Which is true regarding validity?
A) Measurements are always reliable and valid.
B) Measurements provide meaningful information and accurately reflect the characteristic for which the measure is intended.
C) Concurrent validity is when a measurement accurately reflects measurements made outside of an accepted standard.
D) Measurements with predictive validity can be used to only estimate the probability of occurrence of a past event.
Q2) What is required from a clinician to create a patient-identified problem?
A) Final outcomes of treatment at patient discharge from therapy
B) Only the initial diagnosis
C) Only the objective data collective during the evaluation
D) All data collected in the patient evaluation
Q3) Which is the best example of a nominal measurement?
A) A classification of heart failure
B) Grade 1 angina
C) 0° Celsius
D) 0° Kelvin
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9

Chapter 8: History
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Q1) Which is true regarding paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)?
A) The patient usually falls asleep in the sitting position and 1 or 2 hours later, awakens from sleep with acute shortness of breath.
B) The mechanism of PND is the transfer of fluid from intravascular tissues into the bloodstream (or extravascularly) during sleep.
C) Classic PND is resolved by elevating the lower extremities in the supine position.
D) This symptom has strong predictive value as a sign of CHF.
Q2) Which best defines dyspnea?
A) Shortness of breath when the patient assumes the sitting position from the supine position
B) Shortness of breath in one lateral position but not the other
C) Chest pain that originates from the parietal pleura
D) The sensation of difficulty in breathing
Q3) Which of the following would cause an abnormality in the ventilator pump?
A) Kyphoscoliosis
B) Large pleural effusions
C) Phrenic nerve injuries
D) All of the above
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can occur when the dead space of the lungs increases?
A) A larger percentage of the tidal volume is ventilating the dead space, leaving a smaller percentage for alveolar ventilation.
B) The patient does not have to work as hard to fill the alveoli.
C) There is better lung perfusion.
D) Patient fatigue lessens.
Q2) Which best describes the work of breathing?
A) The tidal volume (TV) divided by the respiratory rate (RR)
B) The expiratory reserve volume (ERV) times the respiratory rate (RR)
C) The expiratory reserve volume (ERV) divided by the respiratory rate (RR)
D) The tidal volume (TV) times the respiratory rate (RR)
Q3) Which best describes a restrictive condition of the lungs?
A) A condition that relates to restrictions in exhalation airflow
B) A condition that limits the amount of volume coming into the lungs
C) A condition that increases air volume coming into the lungs
D) A condition that increases the volume in exhalation
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Chapter 10: Arterial Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs with gas exchange across the alveolar capillary membrane?
A) Alveolar units ventilate and capillary units bring deoxygenated blood to the tissues, excreting O back into the alveoli to be removed through the lungs.
B) Alveolar units ventilate and capillary units bring oxygenated blood to the tissues, excreting CO back into the alveoli to be removed through the lungs.
C) Alveolar units ventilate and capillary units bring oxygenated blood from the tissues, excreting O back into the alveoli to be removed through the lungs.
D) Alveolar units ventilate and capillary units bring CO to the tissues, excreting O back into the alveoli to be removed through the lungs.
Q2) Which best describes the base excess-base deficit concept?
A) Acidosis is an abnormal acid-base balance in which the base dominates.
B) When there is an increase in HCO , it is seen in a negative base excess and referred to as a base de cit.
C) Alkalemia is an abnormal acid-base balance in which the acids dominate.
D) When there is a decrease in HCO , it is seen in a negative base excess and referred to as a base de cit.
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Chapter 11: Imaging of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which imaging technique shows the function of the organs?
A) PET scan
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Ultrasonography
Q2) What does a CT scan use for imaging?
A) Ionizing radiation
B) Magnetic energy
C) Radioactive isotopes
D) Radiolabeled glucose
Q3) What general anatomy should be identified in a chest radiograph?
A) Spine, sternum, and pelvis
B) Mediastinum and great vessels
C) Heart and esophagus
D) Main bronchi and femoral artery
Q4) On a radiograph,what does the white area represent?
A) Pockets of air within the body
B) Fatty areas within the body
C) Muscle and other soft tissues
D) Bones within the body

Page 13
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Chapter 12: Electrocardiogram Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the definition of a narrow-complex tachycardia?
A) Supraventricular in origin and has a QRS complex <0.12 sec
B) Ventricular in origin and ha a QRS complex <0.12 sec
C) Supraventricular in origin and has a QRS complex >0.12 sec
D) Ventricular in origin and has a QRS complex > 0.12 sec
Q2) How can a ventricular dysrhythmia be differentiated from a supraventricular dysrhythmia?
A) Taking the patient's heart rate.
B) The length of the QRS segment
C) The presence of an ectopic focus in the atria
D) The absence of QRS complex
Q3) Which of the following causes the absolute refractory period during depolarization?
A) An influx of Ca² ions
B) An influx of Na ions
C) The lack of an ion gradient for potential discharge
D) The increased ion gradient
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Chapter 13: Multisystem Assessment and Laboratory Investigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is taken from circulating blood by the thyroid to eventually create thyroid hormones?
A) Iodine
B) Insulin
C) Glucose
D) Albumin
Q2) Which of the following is likely to result from an increase in thyroid hormones?
A) Decrease in the rate and depth of breathing
B) Increased appetite and food intake
C) Decreased gastrointestinal motility
D) None of the above
Q3) Which organ produces bile and is responsible for detoxification of the blood?
A) Pancreas
B) Spleen
C) Liver
D) Kidney
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15
Chapter 14: Special Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which testing provides direct measurements of heart chamber pressures,blood flow,and oxygen saturation?
A) Cardiac ventriculography
B) Echocardiography
C) Computed tomography
D) Cardiac catheterization
Q2) Which type of imaging uses x-rays and collimators to allow for the visualization of cross-sectional slices of body organs?
A) PET
B) CT
C) SPECT
D) Planar
Q3) What is the purpose of a ventilation-perfusion lung scan?
A) To diagnose pulmonary embolism
B) To monitor the response to radiotherapy
C) To predict whether someone can tolerate a pneumonectomy
D) All of the above
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16

Chapter 15: Clinical Evaluation and Assessment of the Cardiovascular
and Pulmonary
Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is an imaginary topographic line on a lateral view of the thorax?
A) Midsternal line
B) Anterior axillary line
C) Midclavicular line
D) Midscapular line
Q2) Which heart sound signifies the closing of the atrioventricular valves?
A) S1
B) S2
C) S3
D) S4
Q3) Which voice sound phenomenon distorts the "e" sound so that an "aaa" sound is heard over the peripheral lung area?
A) Bronchophony
B) Egophony
C) Whispered pectoriloquy
D) Wheezing
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Page 17
Chapter

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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal range for PaO in young adults in the upright seated position?
A) 70 to 85 mm Hg
B) 85 to 95 mm Hg
C) 90 to 100 mm Hg
D) 100 to 110 mm Hg
Q2) What is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A) Decreased peripheral blood pressure
B) Changes in consciousness
C) Pallor and skin dryness
D) Hyporeflexia
Q3) Which of the following is most likely symptomatic of fluid excess?
A) Jugular vein distention
B) Blood pressure decrease
C) Decreased skin turgor
D) All of the above
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18

Chapter 17: Maximizing Outcomes: Relating Interventions to an Individuals Needs
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Q1) The American Physical Therapy Association's Guide To Physical Therapist Practice (2001)reflects a broad scope of practice.The guide describes:
A) diagnosis, treatment, extrinsic factors, and intrinsic factors.
B) long-term goals, short-term goals, primary goals, secondary goals.
C) examination, evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, intervention.
D) extrinsic factors, intrinsic factors, prognosis, intervention.
Q2) Limitations of _______ and _______interfere with the performance of specific activities that are involved in fulfilling roles and obligations in life
A) strength, range
B) cognition, ambulation
C) function, pathology
D) anatomic structure, physiological function
Q3) Health has been defined by the World Health Organization as:
A) the absence of pathology.
B) a person's capacity to live a life consistent with his or her needs and wants.
C) emotional, spiritual, intellectual, and physical well-being.
D) a and
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Page 19

Chapter 18: Mobilization and Exercise: Physiological Basis for Assessment,
evaluation, and Training
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Q1) Whenever possible,mobilization is performed in the:
A) supine position.
B) prone position.
C) upright position.
D) recumbent position.
Q2) When people are both recumbent and inactive:
A) gravitational stress and exercise stress are removed.
B) exercise stress and vertical gravitational gradient are removed.
C) both a and
D) none of the above.
Q3) The increase in systemic cardiac output results in increased:
A) oxygen transport.
B) hypertension.
C) venous return and pulmonary cardiac output.
D) anaerobic metabolism.
Q4) Return to work is often related to oxygen transport capacity in terms of:
A) aerobic and muscle power.
B) mobilization and exercise.
C) stress level and social contact.
D) capacity for activity and participation.
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Chapter 19: Mobilization and Exercise: Testing and Training
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Q1) Prescriptive body positioning is based on:
A) routine positioning.
B) the therapists and other team members' time.
C) clear indications and well-defined parameters.
D) unclear indications and underdefined parameters.
Q2) Because of the marked changes that can be expected with body positioning and body positioning changes,the physical therapist has a narrow window of opportunity to assess and:
A) treat the patient before, during, and after position changes.
B) treat the patient after position changes.
C) treat the patient before and during position changes.
D) treat the patient before position changes.
Q3) Body positions that simulate the normal physiological effects of gravity and position change on oxygen transport are:
A) the clinical priority.
B) the patient's objective.
C) the principles for prescribing therapeutic body positioning.
D) the specific indications for body positioning.
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Chapter 20: Body Positioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Efforts aimed at mucus clearance by creating a differential airflow rate led to the development of:
A) low-frequency chest wall moderated system.
B) low-frequency chest wall oscillation system.
C) high-frequency chest wall moderated system.
D) high-frequency chest wall oscillation system.
Q2) ACT is the acronym for:
A) advanced cardiac treatment.
B) avascular coronary treatment.
C) airway clearance techniques.
D) always clear trachea.
Q3) Vibration is applied throughout exhalation concurrent with:
A) slight compression to the chest wall.
B) mild compression to the chest wall.
C) significant compression to the chest wall.
D) maximal compression to the chest wall.
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Chapter 21: Airway Clearance Techniques
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Q1) The process of prescribing an appropriate technique for secretion mobilization should be ongoing,with periodic:
A) increased frequency.
B) equipment checks.
C) reevaluation of the method.
D) patient/caregiver education.
Q2) Shaking involves:
A) a gentle high-frequency force.
B) a more vigorous force.
C) a rhythmic oscillatory force.
D) a gentle low-frequency force.
Q3) A breathing technique that uses expiratory airflow to mobilize bronchial secretions is:
A) automatic drainage.
B) breathing control.
C) autogenic drainage.
D) controlled drainage.
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Chapter 22: Facilitating Airway Clearance With Coughing Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deficiencies in glottal openings and expulsion are often related to:
A) brain injuries and coordination difficulties.
B) muscle injuries coordination difficulties.
C) skeletal injuries and movement.
D) spinal cord injuries and mobilization difficulties.
Q2) The most effective assistive-cough technique for the widest cross-section of patients with:
A) musculoskeletal disorders.
B) chest wall muscle weakness.
C) neurologic disorders.
D) cardiovascular disorders.
Q3) Three manually assisted techniques are:
A) anterior chest compression, long sitting, and hands-and-knees rocking.
B) anterior chest compression, counterrotation, and prone on elbows head flection.
C) costophrenic, anterior chest compression, and long sitting.
D) costophrenic, anterior chest compression, and counterrotation.
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24

Chapter 23: Facilitating Ventilation Patterns and Breathing Strategies
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Q1) All of the following are significant ventilatory movement strategies for patients with spinal cord injuries EXCEPT:
A) pair trunk flexion activities with exhalation.
B) pair upward eye gaze with inspiration.
C) pair downward eye gaze with exhalation.
D) pair trunk flexion activities with inspiration.
Q2) The pectorals muscle group provides powerful anterior and lateral expansion of the upper chest and can substitute quite effectively for paralyzed intercostal muscles in the:
A) lower chest.
B) rib cage.
C) shoulder.
D) upper chest.
Q3) What is the leading cause of death in patients with spinal cord injury with tetraplegia?
A) Pressure sores
B) Cardiovascular insult
C) Pneumonia
D) Infection
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Chapter 24: Exercise Testing and Training: Primary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Although dyspnea is a common limiter to exercise and cardiac failure,the other factors that contribute to exercise limitation could include all but which of the following?
A) Hemodynamic impairments
B) Ventilator control impairments
C) Lung function impairments
D) Metabolic impairments
Q2) At rest,individuals with more severe heart failure have more restrictive lung pathology and impaired gas exchange.During exercise,all of the following occur EXCEPT: A) greater submaximal ventilation.
B) increased dead space.
C) decreased thoracic expansion.
D) impaired gas exchange.
Q3) Peak functional capacity depends on muscle strength and endurance in individuals with chronic heart failure depends on which of the following?
A) Breathing control
B) Weigh control
C) Muscle endurance
D) Muscle performance
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Chapter 25: Exercise Testing and Training: Secondary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) All of the following are effected by poliomyelitis EXCEPT:
A) functional capacity.
B) work capacity.
C) exercise tolerance.
D) cardiovascular risk.
Q2) Compared with the general population,what two things are more common in persons with Down syndrome?
A) Cardiac defects and sleep apnea
B) Cardiac defects and diabetes
C) Pulmonary dysfunction and sleep apnea
D) Pulmonary dysfunction and anemia
Q3) Crohn disease is characterized by disturbed homeostasis in which body system?
A) Neurologic
B) Pulmonary
C) Cardiovascular
D) Intestinal
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Muscle Training
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Q1) Inspiratory muscles are mainly involved in:
A) repetitive contractions with high-intensity training strategies.
B) repetitive contractions with low-intensity training strategies.
C) repetitive contractions with high intensity and endurance.
D) repetitive contractions with low intensity and endurance.
Q2) Abnormal respiratory muscle function plays an important role in people with chronic heart failure (CHF)in:
A) extended exercise sessions.
B) extended periods of rest.
C) premature exercise termination.
D) exertional dyspnea.
Q3) Diaphragm fatigue can occur during:
A) intermittent low-intensity exercise.
B) intermittent high-intensity exercise.
C) sustained high-intensity exercise.
D) sustained low-intensity exercise.
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28

Chapter 27: Complementary Therapies As
Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Interventions
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Q1) Complementary therapies are often viewed as:
A) holistic therapies
B) mind/body therapies
C) energy-based therapies
D) all of the above
Q2) Complementary and alternative medical (CAM)therapies alter the mechanics of the:
A) musculoskeletal pump of the thorax
B) cardiopulmonary system
C) nervous system
D) spinal cord
Q3) Bioelectromagnetics include:
A) traditional Chinese medicine
B) movement awareness techniques
C) thermal applications of nonionizing radiation
D) mind/body intervention
Q4) Manual therapies involve the use of hands on the body/mind surface to:
A) stimulate mechanical force
B) stimulate bioelectromagnetic force
C) stimulate energetic force
D) optimize conditions for metabolism
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Chapter 28: Patient Education
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Q1) Determining the effectiveness of patient education efforts involves evaluating not only what the patient learned but also:
A) how smart the patient is.
B) how the teacher taught.
C) the age of the patient being treated.
D) how well the treatment was documented.
Q2) The overall objective of patient education is to develop a:
A) reasonable plan for patient education.
B) durable cognitive improvement that results in a positive change in an individual's or group's health behavior.
C) strong health care contract.
D) make patient education unique when compared with other types of teaching.
Q3) When a clinician uses the learning needs assessment survey,it allows for:
A) mistakes to be easily caught.
B) facilitation of optimal learning in a given patient or group.
C) less of a chance for the patient to reinjure themselves.
D) a quicker rehabilitation time.
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Chapter 29: Individuals With Acute Medical Conditions
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Q1) You are following a 5-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis.She presents with constant mucociliary clearance issues and productive coughing.You decide to implement a home program for postural drainage and percussion but realize that the caregiver has rheumatoid arthritis in her hands and will not be able to provide the necessary treatment.Which of the following options should be used to assist this patient with her secretion clearance at home?
A) Flutter device
B) High-frequency chest wall oscillation
C) Active cycle of breathing
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following strategies will help a patient during an asthma attack?
A) Attempt to have the patient increase his or her ventilatory rate.
B) Attempt use of a CO rebreathing bag.
C) Increase the patient's activity.
D) Provide environmental stimulation.
Q3) Emphysema is characterized by:
A) productive cough.
B) bronchial breath sounds in peripheral lobes.
C) decreased lung elastic recoil.
D) absence of bullae.
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Chapter 30: Individuals With Acute Surgical Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would promote postoperative complications after thoracic or cardiovascular surgery?
A) Deep breathing
B) Ambulation
C) Reduced arousal
D) Huffing
Q2) Elective surgery is:
A) not performed in the presence of an infection.
B) not hazardous for a patient with previous lung disease.
C) not influenced by the presence of premorbid cardiovascular disease.
D) not performed in the presence of anesthesia.
Q3) You are consulted on a patient after resection of the right lung for treatment of lung cancer.The patient has had no postoperative precautions,but you wish to implement treatment plans that will sustain alveolar inflation and functional residual capacity.According to the textbook,_______________________ is/are the most appropriate course of action to achieve these goals.
A) placing the patient in a recumbent position
B) maximal inspiratory maneuvers alone
C) mobilization and position changes
D) forced coughing
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Chapter 31: Individuals With Chronic Primary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following diagnoses typically fall under the umbrella of chronic airflow limitation EXCEPT:
A) asthma.
B) bronchiectasis.
C) chronic bronchitis.
D) emphysema.
Q2) You are treating a patient 3 days after myocardial infarction.The patient suddenly complains of being dizzy,short of breath,and nauseous.Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his symptoms?
A) Decreased blood pressure from pain medication
B) Increased anxiety from recent myocardial infarction
C) Tachycardia from recent myocardial infarction
D) Decreased cardiac output from changes in heart mechanics
Q3) Severe cystic fibrosis is characterized by all of the above EXCEPT:
A) tenacious secretions.
B) right-sided heart failure.
C) pulmonary hypertension.
D) autoimmune destruction of cells.
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Chapter 32: Individuals With Chronic Secondary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are treating a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS).Your patient presents with poor airway management and increased secretions.Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate treatment intervention to consider?
A) Body positioning and postural drainage
B) Maximal aerobic exercise in a warm environment
C) Regimented intensity and duration of strengthening exercises
D) Incentive spirometry
Q2) The following aerobic exercise would be MOST appropriate for the patient with systemic lupus erythematous (SLE).
A) Running
B) Step aerobics
C) Biking
D) Plyometrics
Q3) Loss of calcium is associated with:
A) increased exercise.
B) alcohol consumption.
C) smoking.
D) pain.
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Chapter 33: Comprehensive Management of Individuals in the Intensive Care Unit
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the best way to wean an obese patient from the use of a mechanical ventilator?
A) Wean in a semirecumbent position.
B) Wean in a supine position.
C) Wean in a 90-degree upright position.
D) Wean in a prone position.
Q2) How should the therapist adjust treatment as a patient shifts from active care to palliative care?
A) Continue active treatments as originally planned
B) Shift to comfort and symptom management.
C) Discontinue treatment.
D) Educate the patient and family regarding end of life.
Q3) What would be the most appropriate way to address a pressure sore developing on the sacrum of a patient in the ICU to prevent further deterioration?
A) Provide a special mattress for the patient.
B) Begin a regular positioning program to relieve pressure on sacrum.
C) Begin routine skin examinations to monitor the sacrum.
D) Smooth the patient's hospital gown when he or she returns to bed.
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Chapter 34: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Primary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following would you expect to see for a patient with end-stage respiratory failure?
A) Decrease in airway resistance
B) Carbon monoxide production
C) Work of breathing
D) Alveolar hyperventilation
Q2) Which of the following is the primary goal of physical therapy to optimize oxygen transport in a patient with COPD?
A) Improve oxygen tension.
B) Reduce oxygen saturation.
C) Increase carbon dioxide levels.
D) Reduce PaO .
Q3) Which of the following interventions would have the greatest effect on oxygen transport for a patient in ICU?
A) Active movement of large muscle groups
B) Active assisted movements
C) Passive motion
D) Sitting in a chair at the bedside
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Chapter 35: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Secondary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be an appropriate intervention technique for a patient with multiple fractures and spinal involvement?
A) ROM exercises for the head and neck
B) Aggressive ROM exercises for the shoulders
C) Log-rolling maneuvers
D) Body positioning to upright sitting
Q2) Which of the following is not a goal of treatment for a patient with burns?
A) Improving arterial saturation
B) Prevent infection
C) Maintain fluid balance
D) All of the above
Q3) You have just finished positioning your obese patient upright in a chair at bedside when you notice the patient slumping.What action should you take?
A) None. The slumping caused by weak postural muscles.
B) Put the patient back to bed because of increased fatigue.
C) Correct the patient position and recheck it frequently.
D) Proceed to standing and walking.
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Chapter 36: Intensive Care Management of Medical and Surgical Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renal failure greatly compromises the chances of a patient's survival.Which is not a mechanism of how renal failure develops?
A) Hypertension
B) Gastrointestinal bleeding
C) Sepsis associated with shock
D) Drug-induced nephrotoxicity
Q2) What mineral losses are most commonly associated with severe alkalemia?
A) Sodium and potassium
B) Sodium and chloride
C) Potassium and chloride
D) Potassium and calcium
Q3) Which of the following methods would not reduce the risk of infection with use of a mechanical ventilator?
A) Drain condensation from the hose toward the ventilator.
B) Use a mask and gloves when connecting the patient to the ventilator.
C) Do not directly handle ventilator attachments that communicate with air flow channels.
D) Avoid draining condensation from the hose toward the patient.
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Chapter 37: Infants and Children With Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Concerns
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Q1) You are treating a 3-year-old child with cystic fibrosis.In addition to the treatment choices of postural drainage,percussion,and vibration,what other intervention might be appropriate for this population?
A) Autogenic drainage
B) Huffing as part of forced expiration techniques
C) Use of forced expiratory volume in 1 second
D) Corticosteroids
Q2) Which intervention would be the most appropriate in treating a patient with muscular dystrophy who experiences nocturnal hypoventilation?
A) Vibration of right lower lobe segments
B) Postural drainage before sleep
C) Continuous positive airway pressure
D) Teaching deep breathing, coughing
Q3) How is the diaphragm of a newborn different than that of an adult?
A) The diaphragm of a newborn has fewer type II muscle fibers.
B) The diaphragm of a newborn has fewer type I muscle fibers.
C) The diaphragm of a newborn has more type I muscle fibers.
D) The diaphragm of a newborn has more type III muscle fibers.
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Chapter 38: The Aging Patient
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Q1) Although the improvements in increasing VO max in elderly people are not clear,which of one the following is consistent?
A) Improvement in thoracic mobility leading to better O saturation with lung expansion
B) Greater extraction of oxygen caused by wider arteriovenous oxygen content
C) Decreases in O demands in the peripheral muscles
D) An increase in maximum heart rate
Q2) Elastic recoil of the lungs is dependent on which of the following factors as most people age?
A) The amount of type II collagen present
B) The amount of elastin present
C) The structure of the connective tissue
D) The strength of the respiratory muscles
Q3) Which of the following is not a suspected mechanism of VO max reduction?
A) Decrease in maximum heart rate
B) Decrease in cardiac output
C) Decrease in blood pressure
D) Decrease in stroke volume
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Chapter 39: Multisystem Clinical Implications of Impaired
Breathing Mechanics and Postural Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of types I and II paradoxical breathing?
A) Strong diaphragmatic or upper respiratory muscles contractions
B) Intercostal muscle insufficiency
C) Poor pelvic floor elevation
D) Weakness of the abdominal or diaphragm
Q2) If a patient is to work on strengthening muscles to help with expansion of the anterior abdominal wall,how should the therapist position the patient?
A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Side-lying
D) Sitting
Q3) A child with pronounced muscle imbalance from lying in the recumbent position does not have which of the following?
A) Triangular-shaped thorax or chest wall
B) Ability to meet ventilation needs
C) Anteriorly flared lower ribs
D) Posteriorly flared ribs
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Chapter 40: The Transplant Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is important to know about heart rate transplant patients when sitting up these patient for the first time?
A) An overcompensation of the orthostatic hypertension response
B) No orthostatic hypotension response
C) Slower changes in heat rate and stroke volume
D) Faster changes in heart rate and stroke volume
Q2) When considering a single-lung transplant patient,which upper extremity motions should not be limited after surgery?
A) Overhead reaching
B) Abduction of the arms
C) External rotation of the upper extremity
D) All of the above
Q3) One of the major limitations of organ transplantation comes from which of the following?
A) The risk of disease that is inherent in all tissue
B) The increasing demand with limited supply
C) Lack of organization
D) All of the above
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42

Chapter 41: The Patient in the Community
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Q1) Physical therapy services are beneficial during a episode of cardiopulmonary disease at what stage of the recovery?
A) During the acute stages of a disease process
B) During the recovery stages of a disease process
C) When the patient has return to independent functioning
D) Physical therapy can be beneficial at all stages
Q2) To increase functional gains made during therapy,the rehabilitation team should perform which of the following?
A) Encourage the patient during therapy to work as hard as possible.
B) Help the patient complete tasks even if patient effort is minimal.
C) Incorporate therapy goals into all aspects of care.
D) Set goals that just out of reach to help the patient strive.
Q3) Documentation is used to fulfill which of the following physical therapy needs?
A) Third-party reimbursement, functional gains, and progress toward goals
B) Functional gains, safety with transfers, and nutritional guidelines set for the patient
C) Medication lists that are beneficial for the patient, progress toward goals, and third-party reimbursement
D) Orders for O , progression of goals, and functional limitations
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43
Chapter 42: Body Mechanics: Positioning and Moving Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action will facilitate the breathing of a patient in supine?
A) Adding a pillow beneath the patient's head
B) Adding a pillow beneath the patient's low back
C) Adding towel rolls beneath the patient's shoulders
D) Removing pillows from beneath the patient's head
Q2) When standing,where is the body's approximate center of gravity?
A) Near 35% of the body's total height from the ground
B) Near 55% of the body's total height from the ground
C) Near the heart
D) Near the diaphragm
Q3) To what level should a patient's bed be adjusted to facilitate a lift by a practitioner?
A) The lifter's mid-thigh level
B) The lifter's hip level
C) The lifter's thoracic level
D) The lifter's elbow level
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44

Chapter 43: Respiratory Care Practice Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a visual or audio feedback device that encourages slow,deep inspiration?
A) Nonrebreathing mask
B) E cylinder
C) CPAP
D) Incentive spirometry
Q2) Which cost-intensive oxygen delivery method has been shown to improve exercise tolerance in patients with asthma and COPD?
A) CPAP
B) Liquid oxygen
C) Partial rebreathing mask
D) Heliox
Q3) Which term describes the speed at which a ventilator breath is delivered?
A) Frequency
B) Flow rate
C) Spontaneous breath
D) Trigger
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which complication of tracheostomy can occur immediately because of laceration of the mediastinal pleura?
A) Air embolism
B) Pneumothorax
C) Subcutaneous emphysema
D) Aspiration
Q2) Which complication from tracheal suctioning can be minimized by performing preoxygenation?
A) Infection
B) Bronchospasm
C) Hypoxemia
D) All of the above
Q3) Which is needed to reinsert a dislodged outer cannula?
A) Tracheal hook
B) Trousseau dilator
C) Satisfactory tissue retraction
D) All of the above
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Chapter 45: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Drug Actions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many patients are estimated to use metered-dose inhalers correctly?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Q2) Which adrenergic drug causes the release of norepinephrine and has potent central nervous system activity?
A) Phenylephrine
B) Metaraminol
C) Ephedrine
D) Amphetamine
Q3) Which class of drugs are being increasingly used as alternatives to low-dose inhaled steroids in patients with mild persistent asthma?
A) Antileukotrienes
B) Anticholinergics
C) Anticholinesterase drugs
D) Cholinergic drugs
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