Acute Care Nursing Practice Exam - 1705 Verified Questions

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Acute Care Nursing Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Acute Care Nursing focuses on the advanced knowledge and clinical skills required to care for patients experiencing severe, often life-threatening health conditions. This course emphasizes rapid patient assessment, critical thinking, and timely intervention within fast-paced environments such as emergency departments, intensive care units, and specialized acute care settings. Students will explore the complexities of acute illnesses, trauma, and exacerbations of chronic diseases, with attention to evidence-based practices, interprofessional collaboration, and the ethical considerations in acute care delivery. Practical components include simulation labs and case studies designed to strengthen clinical judgment, prioritize patient needs, and improve patient outcomes in acute care situations.

Recommended Textbook

Introduction to Medical Surgical Nursing 5th Edition by Linton

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56 Chapters

1705 Verified Questions

1705 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: The Health Care System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assessing a 65-year-old patient who is scheduled for outpatient surgery for the removal of cataracts in 10 days will stress the need to:

A) Have adequate insurance

B) Provide adequate postoperative care at home

C) Acquire specialized glasses

D) Preserve and protect his vision

Answer: B

Q2) When the patient inquires about eligibility for home health care,the nurse states that the criteria for skilled home health care are: (Select all that apply.)

A) Annual income less than $20,000

B) Need for physical or speech therapy

C) Nonavailability of transportation

D) Must be homebound

E) Need for wound dressing changes

Answer: B,D,E

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Chapter 2: Patient Care Settings

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Sample Questions

Q1) To teach a family member the skill of injecting insulin effectively,the home health nurse will do which of these? (Prioritize these nursing interventions for this situation.)

A) Offer instruction at an appropriate pace.

B) Write down the steps of the procedure.

C) Assess the level of knowledge of the family member.

D) Inquire about the preferred learning style.

E) Evaluate the family member's performance.

Answer: C,B,D,A,E

Q2) The nurse explains that the law that provides for a partially paralyzed fork-lift operator to be retrained by vocational rehabilitation services for less demanding office work is the:

A) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1920

B) Social Security Act of 1935

C) Rehabilitation Act of 1973

D) Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 3: Legal and Ethical Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) One obstetric nurse remarks,"I don't see how these young single women can keep on having babies without being married.Everyone knows a child needs a father." This nurse is exhibiting:

A) Ethnocentrism

B) Moral uncertainty

C) Values clarification

D) Professional concern

Answer: A

Q2) The LPN/LVN acquiring a signature on a surgical informed consent document must ensure that the:

A) Patient is not sedated.

B) Physician is present.

C) Family member is a witness.

D) Signature is in ink.

Answer: A

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5

Chapter 4: The Leadership Role of the Licensed Practical Nurse

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Sample Questions

Q1) To establish an effective team,the team leader must be able to: (Select all that apply.)

A) Establish a clear purpose, and clarify its significance.

B) Be firm to maintain focus on one idea, not sidetracked by the ideas of others.

C) Listen to all input in an active manner.

D) Demonstrate concern for stress of the team members.

E) Be honest concerning own opinions and attitudes.

Q2) A 35-year-old patient,newly admitted to the facility,rings the call bell.However,by the time the nurse arrives,he is found unconscious and barely breathing.The charge nurse calls for a "code blue" and directs the staff on what to do without discussion-one staff member calls the physician,and some to go to other rooms to comfort patients.This is an example of the leadership style of:

A) Autocratic

B) Democratic

C) Laissez-faire

D) Participative

Q3) Planning,organizing,directing,and controlling are major functions of

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Chapter 5: The Nurse-Patient Relationship

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is aware that a therapeutic relationship differs from a social relationship in that a therapeutic relationship: (Select all that apply.)

A) Has no limits.

B) Is always acceptable to the patient.

C) Is goal directed.

D) Is nonjudgmental.

E) Focuses only on the patient.

Q2) An LPN/LVN student is assigned to a patient who makes homosexual remarks and asks the student to meet after discharge.The student's best response would be:

A) "I am required to report inappropriate sexual behavior to my instructor."

B) "I am uncomfortable dealing with homosexuals. Let's just forget this conversation and get on with your care as quickly as possible."

C) "I am here as your nurse to meet your treatment needs. Such provocative conversation is not acceptable to me as part of your care."

D) "Your chosen lifestyle makes me uncomfortable. I will be back with your medication."

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Chapter 6: Cultural Aspects of Nursing Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) When many cultures and subcultures exist within the same society,as they do in the large cities of the United States,these groups are referred to as:

A) Cultural diversity

B) Cultural ethnicity

C) Mixed society

D) Cultural immigration

Q2) After a Jewish woman has given birth and returns to her room,the husband arrives with a camera.The culturally sensitive nurse would say:

A) "Here is a chair near the door so you can be comfortable while you visit."

B) "I'll give you all some privacy because I know you want to give your wife a big hug."

C) "Let me get some instructions for you to follow in her home care after she is discharged this afternoon."

D) "Sit on the bed and put your arm around your wife, and I will take your photograph."

Q3) The Asian theory of hot and cold as a source of illness is based on the imbalance of the four ____________________.

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Chapter 7: The Nurse and the Family

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that children assume roles in family interaction based on:

A) Obligation

B) Instinct

C) Observation

D) Rewards

Q2) The nurse is designing a home care plan for a child with a congenital disease and is assessing the family values regarding home care.The nurse will use as her best source:

A) Current literature on congenital deformities

B) General knowledge of the culture

C) Patient's family

D) Written survey

Q3) The patient who is recovering from a mastectomy relates that she no longer feels like a woman.The best response by the nurse would be:

A) "I am sure you will feel differently once you have your prosthetic bra."

B) "Have you told your husband how you feel?"

C) "I will bring you a catalog that carries built-in prosthetic bras."

D) "Would you like me to arrange a visit from 'Reach for Recovery?'"

Q4) The nurse includes the family in patient care to maintain the family's

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Chapter 8: Health and Illness

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse points out that the current view of health:

A) Promotes the highest quality of life possible, both mentally and socially.

B) Includes mental, physical, social, and emotional adaptation to the environment.

C) Includes the basic physiologic needs and self-actualization.

D) Relies on alternative therapies for the treatment and cure of diseases.

Q2) The patient is being discharged from same-day surgery after a tonsillectomy.The nurse is aware that the patient will be in the phase of general adaptation syndrome,in which the body begins to heal after injury.This is called the:

A) Alarm stage

B) Resistance stage

C) Exhaustion stage

D) Initial stage

Q3) The nurse points out that a physiologic response to stress involves the total body and is referred to as which syndrome?

A) General adaptation

B) Local adaptation

C) Negative feedback

D) Total adaptation

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Chapter 9: Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) The standard peripheral parenteral nutrition intravenous (IV)therapy usually infuses:

A) 50% glucose

B) 5% glucose

C) 0.9% sodium chloride

D) Sterile water

Q2) The nurse explains that the characteristics of vitamins: (Select all that apply.)

A) Are necessary in large doses.

B) Have the ability to be manufactured by the body.

C) Regulate metabolic functions in the cells.

D) Exist in multiple forms and are called vitamers.

E) Are classified as macronutrients.

Q3) The major portion of fat is digested in the:

A) Mouth

B) Stomach

C) Small intestine

D) Large intestine

Q4) The nurse calculates the needed kilocalories (kcal)for a 150-pound moderately active person to be ____________________.

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Chapter 10: Developmental Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Many young adults today have extended their adolescence and are living with their parents because of: (Select all that apply.)

A) Postgraduate educational goals.

B) Military obligations.

C) Job losses.

D) Chronic illnesses.

E) Divorces.

Q2) Middle adulthood is defined as the period from:

A) 45 to 65 years

B) 20 to 35 years

C) 65 to 75 years

D) 30 to 50 years

Q3) The term sandwich generation is used to describe:

A) Young adults who tend to eat on the run

B) Middle-aged adults caring for both children and parents

C) Single-parent households

D) Older adults who are in transition from independent to assisted living

Q4) The nurse assesses that the 22-year-old woman who is totally committed to her career and who does not date or socialize is experiencing the Eriksonian crises of

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Chapter 11: The Older Patient

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Sample Questions

Q1) When gathering data concerning the musculoskeletal system,the most significant assessment would be:

A) Slow gait

B) Degree of motion of all joints

C) Enlarged joints

D) Crepitus in joints

Q2) In planning activities to improve short-term memory for an older adult patient experiencing memory deficits,the nurse would:

A) Maintain the same daily schedule.

B) Rehearse memory training.

C) Provide a varied and stimulating daily schedule.

D) Conduct deep-breathing exercises.

Q3) A new 72-year-old resident of a long-term care facility naps frequently during the day,stating that he is tired.The nurse should:

A) Obtain an order from the primary caregiver for a sedative.

B) Ask the patient if he is sleeping well at night.

C) Plan activities to keep the patient awake during the day.

D) Tell the patient that he cannot take any more naps.

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Chapter 12: The Nursing Process and Critical Thinking

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Sample Questions

Q1) The five steps of the nursing process,in the correct order,are:

A) Data collection, nursing diagnosis, planning, intervention, and evaluation.

B) Assessment, planning, documentation, intervention, and evaluation.

C) Data collection, diagnosis, assessment, planning, and evaluation.

D) History, physical, diagnosis, intervention, and evaluation.

Q2) When percussing the patient's abdomen,the nurse anticipates a note that is:

A) Flat

B) Dull

C) Tympanic

D) Resonant

Q3) When a patient plan of care has been written,it:

A) Is continually reviewed and evaluated.

B) Must be reviewed by the primary caregiver.

C) Remains in effect until the patient is discharged.

D) Can only be changed by the initiating nurse.

Q4) In PIE documentation,a type of POMR,the acronym PIE stands for ____________________,____________________ and

Q5) The nurse who exhibits an open minded,professionally curious,mature and self confident approach to care would be considered a ________________

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Chapter 13: Inflammation, Infection, and Immunity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse reminds the patient who is to undergo hyperbaric oxygen therapy that the clothing worn into the chamber must be made of ____________________.

Q2) The school nurse cautions a group of parents about children playing barefoot on dirt that may lead them to be exposed to infections caused by:

A) Helminthes

B) Protozoa

C) Rickettsiae

D) Mycoplasmas

Q3) The nurse caring for an patient who is immunosuppressed is diligent about protecting the patient from infection.When visitors come in,in addition to having them put on isolation attire,the nurse prohibits them from bringing a:

A) Battery-operated DVD player

B) Book

C) Potted plant

D) Box of candy

Q4) The nurse assesses a high eosinophil count in a pediatric patient.The nurse recognizes that this elevation is an indicator of ____________________.

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15

Chapter 14: Fluids and Electrolytes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would anticipate in a patient with respiratory acidosis that the blood pH reading would be lower than ____________________.

Q2) A small child is hospitalized with severe metabolic acidosis after ingesting a whole bottle of baby aspirin approximately 8 hours earlier.The emphasis of the nursing care for this patient is reassuring the patient and:

A) Providing IV treatments as ordered but without sodium bicarbonate.

B) Frequently assessing the mental and neurologic status.

C) Taking daily weights and vital signs.

D) Inducing vomiting.

Q3) The patient's intravenous (IV)injection has been infusing at a very high rate,and now the patient appears to be in fluid volume overload,as indicated by:

A) Hypotension

B) Tachycardia

C) Pulmonary edema

D) Kidney failure

Q4) The nurse assesses that the patient with congestive heart failure who is being treated with a diuretic has lost 4.4 pounds in 1 day.This weight loss is equivalent to the loss of ____________________ of fluid.

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Chapter 15: Pain Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient still complains of pain after the administration of the ordered analgesic.The nurse changes the nursing care plan because the:

A) Patient's pain threshold has risen.

B) Patient's pain threshold has lowered.

C) Patient has become addicted.

D) Patient is seeking attention.

Q2) Every time the right arm is raised,the patient reports to the nurse that pain is triggered in the right shoulder.The nurse charts this description as an example of a(n):

A) Referred pain

B) Aggravating factor

C) Alleviating factor

D) Past experience with the pain

Q3) ____________________ and ____________________ are natural opioid-like substances that block pain perception.

Q4) The nurse explains that afferent pathways are activated by pain receptors called

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17

Chapter 16: First Aid, Emergency Care, and Disaster Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse who is assisting victims of an automobile collision has already placed a towel secured with a belt on a bleeding leg wound.When the towel becomes saturated the nurse should:

A) Do nothing.

B) Remove the towel and use the belt as a tourniquet.

C) Remove the towel and place the victim's jacket over wound and secure.

D) Reinforce the towel with the victim's jacket.

Q2) On the initial assessment of a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning,the emergency department nurse would anticipate that:

A) BP will be low.

B) Oxygen saturation will be low.

C) Mucous membranes will be blue.

D) Respirations will be less than 10 per minute.

Q3) The nurse in the emergency department knows that tissue damage has probably occurred in the person with hypothermia when a rectal temperature of ____________________ is assessed.

Q4) When the nurse notes paradoxical respiration in a patient in the emergency department who fell off some scaffolding,the nurse applies ____________________ to the ribs.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Surgical Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has just returned to the surgical unit after varicose vein stripping and ligation.To evaluate pain relief,the best technique for the nurse is to:

A) Check the patient's record for the last dose of pain medication administered.

B) Ask the patient to rate the severity of the pain on a scale of 1 to 10.

C) Ask the family if they think that the patient is having pain.

D) Tell the patient to ask for pain medicine when it is needed.

Q2) The circulating nurse is responsible for: (Select all that apply.)

A) Assisting the surgeon with the procedure

B) Setting up the surgical room

C) Scrubbing in to handle instruments

D) Maintaining patient safety

E) Documenting nursing care

Q3) During the preoperative assessment,the nurse must ask the patient for information about:

A) Current address and telephone number

B) Food preferences

C) Allergies, medications, and past medical conditions

D) Bathing and sleep patterns

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Chapter 18: Intravenous Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Using an IV infusion system that delivers 60 drops/ml,the nurse hangs a 1000-ml bag of 5% dextrose in water (D<sub>5</sub>W),which the physician has ordered to infuse at 80 ml/hr.It is now 10 AM.The nurse anticipates that the IV will need to be changed at:

A) 6 PM

B) 8 PM

C) 8:30 PM

D) 10:30 PM

Q2) The nurse explains that a major advantage of IV therapy is that drugs administered via the IV route:

A) Can better be maintained at a therapeutic blood level

B) Is less expensive than oral route

C) Is safer than administering by oral or intramuscular (IM) route

D) Has a lower incidence of allergy than other routes

Q3) An older adult patient is assessed by the nurse as showing signs of fluid volume excess,which are:

A) Redness, warmth, and drainage of fluid at the IV site

B) Redness, warmth, and tenderness at the IV site

C) Complaints of shortness of breath and pounding pulse

D) Puffiness of face, dyspnea, and pain at the IV site

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Shock

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that the intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)assists the patient who is in cardiogenic shock to increase cardiac output by:

A) Providing generalized vasoconstriction.

B) Inflating during the diastole phase.

C) Constricting the vena cava.

D) Adding hypertonic fluid to the circulating volume.

Q2) The nurse is administering heparin,subcutaneous twice daily,for a patient in cardiogenic shock.The expected action of this drug is as a(n):

A) Inotropic to improve cardiac contractibility

B) Anticoagulant to prevent blood clots

C) Antidysrhythmic to restore normal cardiac contractibility

D) Vasopressor to increase blood pressure

Q3) The nurse explains that when shock forces the body into anaerobic metabolism,organ damage is caused by a product of that metabolism,which is

Q4) The nurse is aware that immobility and insertion of urinary catheters,although therapeutic,also places the patient at risk for _________________________.

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Chapter 20: Falls

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching the patient methods for getting up after a fall.The nurse instructs the patient to pull up to a sitting position on the floor,shuffle the buttocks to a nearby piece of furniture,pull up on the knees in front of the furniture,and then:

A) Stand up.

B) Place hands on the floor for leverage.

C) Pivot so that the furniture is behind the body.

D) Sit back down.

Q2) The home health nurse cautions the family of a frail 82-year-old woman about the intrinsic factors that may be a potential cause of injury.These are: (Select all that apply.)

A) Diminished vision

B) Pet cats

C) Cluttered bedroom

D) Wearing loose house slippers

E) Generalized weakness

Q3) The nurse is aware that of all the reported falls in the United States,only 1% to 5% result in a ____________________.

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Chapter 21: Immobility

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse takes into consideration that such emotions as worry,anxiety and depression can contribute to the common nutritional problem of ______.

Q2) The nursing assistant is bathing a patient who has a stage I pressure ulcer on the right shoulder.The nurse reminds the nursing assistant that the tissue could become more damaged if she:

A) Positions the patient on the left side.

B) Massages the reddened area.

C) Cleans the area with mild soap and water.

D) Positions the patient in a prone position.

Q3) During the shift report,the nurse is told that the patient she will be caring for has a stage II pressure ulcer.During the dressing change,the nurse would expect to see a(n):

A) Ulcer that appears black with possible signs of infection

B) Shallow ulcer that appears blistered, cracked, or abraded

C) Craterlike sore with a distinct outer margin formed as the epidermis thickens and rolls over the edge toward the ulcer base

D) Redness of skin with no ulceration

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Chapter 22: Confusion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Reality orientation is helpful for some patients with confusion.The nurse should use this technique on a patient diagnosed with:

A) Organic brain syndrome

B) Senile dementia

C) Senility

D) Acute confusional state

Q2) The nurse in a long-term care facility is taking patients to the dining room for lunch.She asks the patient who has been diagnosed with delirium if she is ready to go eat lunch.When the patient does not respond,the nurse should:

A) Take the patient by the arm and lead her to the dining room.

B) Assist the patient to bed, and bring her lunch to her.

C) Tell the patient that she can go to the dining room whenever she gets hungry.

D) Ask the patient again if she is ready to go eat lunch.

Q3) The Cognitive Developmental Approach (CDA)to caring for patients with dementia adapts interventions that are designed to:

A) Increase cognitive abilities

B) Adapt environment to patient

C) Offer a wide variety of choices

D) Abolish irrational fears

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Incontinence

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient who has urinary incontinence is at risk for urinary tract infection and urinary calculi.The nurse should teach the patient and family that the best way to prevent these complications is to:

A) Restrict the patient's fluid intake and frequency of incontinence.

B) Be sure the patient's voiding schedule is no more often than every 4 hours.

C) Use an indwelling catheter.

D) Encourage the patient to void at least every 2 hours and to take at least 2000 ml of fluid daily.

Q2) To protect the skin integrity of an incontinent patient,the nurse would include in the plan of care: (Select all that apply.)

A) Immediately remove wet garments and linens.

B) Wash skin with an antiseptic, and towel dry.

C) Inspect for areas of redness and breakdown every morning.

D) Apply cornstarch to the perineum to absorb moisture.

E) Apply protective creams per agency policy.

Q3) The method by which a nurse manually expresses urine from the bladder by pressing gently on the lower abdomen is the___________ method.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Loss,Death,and End-of-Life Care

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Q1) When the family of a dying person do not discuss the issue of death openly and avoid the subject of dying altogether,the nurse recognizes this behavior representative of the _________stage described by Straus and Glaser.

Q2) After the death of a patient,the nurse should position the body:

A) Prone

B) Supine

C) On the side

D) In Fowler position

Q3) The patient's family asks the nurse what to expect when the patient dies.The nurse's best response would be that:

A) His heart will stop, and then later he will quit breathing.

B) His respirations will cease first, and then the heart stops beating within a few minutes.

C) His heartbeat and breathing will just stop suddenly, without warning.

D) He will quit breathing first and then it could be several hours before his heart stops.

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Chapter 25: The Patient with Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is scheduled for a chemotherapy treatment in approximately 30 minutes.Breakfast trays have arrived and are being served on the unit.The nurse's best intervention would be to:

A) Encourage the patient to eat all his breakfast to keep up his strength to fight the cancer. Remind the patient that breakfast is about one third of his daily intake.

B) Listen attentively to any concerns that the patient expresses regarding the treatment. Offer to hold his tray until after the treatment.

C) Offer to call the family to come and be present after the treatment. Encourage the patient to drink at least all of the orange juice and coffee.

D) Suggest that the patient request a dose of strong analgesic instead of eating, because this treatment is very painful.

Q2) The nurse clarifies that radiation has an immediate effect on cells,which is cell death by:

A) Separating the cell from normal cells

B) Damaging the cell membrane

C) Altering the DNA of the cell

D) Reducing the nutrition of the cell

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Chapter 26: The Patient with an Ostomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient who has undergone a colostomy is instructed to measure the width of the stomas for the first 6 weeks postoperatively before applying each new pouch because:

A) The stoma will shrink during this time.

B) A poor-fitting pouch will cause infection of the stoma.

C) The paste will not adhere.

D) Prolapse will result.

Q2) The nurse instructs the patient to be diligent in cleaning fecal matter from around the stoma because the fecal matter can cause: (Select all that apply.)

A) Fungal infection

B) Bacterial infection

C) Yeast infection

D) Deterioration of the stoma

E) Odor

Q3) When the patient complains of urine crystals forming on the urostomy stoma,the home health nurse recommends dissolving them with a pad saturated with

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Chapter 27: Neurologic Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient with meningitis who has a positive Brudzinski sign will:

A) Flex the hips when the neck is flexed by the nurse.

B) Will not be able to extend the flexed leg fully because of hamstring pain.

C) Resist efforts of the nurse to flex his or her neck.

D) Flex the big toe upward and fan out the other toes.

Q2) The nurse conducting a Romberg test will ask the patient to: (Arrange in the correct sequence.)

A) Touch his or her nose with the index finger with the eyes open.

B) Stand with eyes closed.

C) Touch his or her nose with the index finger with the eyes closed.

D) Touch his or her fingertip to nurse's fingertip.

E) Pat the knees with the palms and then the back of the hands rapidly.

Q3) The nurse caring for a 90-year-old patient with a closed head injury would immediately report:

A) Blood pressure change from 147/72 to 176/70 mm Hg

B) Respiration rate increase from 14 to 18 breaths/min

C) Slow pupillary reaction bilaterally

D) Temperature decrease from 100.2° to 97.6° F

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29

Chapter 28: Cerebrovascular Accident

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9205

Sample Questions

Q1) The assessments that indicate a fluid volume excess in a patient in the acute phase of a CVA is:

A) Decreased BP

B) Weak pulse

C) Adventitious breath sounds

D) High urine-specific gravity

Q2) The nurse assesses patients with CVAs who are candidates for treatment with tPA.They include a: (Select all that apply.)

A) 62-year-old construction worker who had a subdural hematoma 6 months earlier

B) 58-year-old executive with a bleeding ulcer

C) 44-year-old individual who had a seizure at the onset of a stroke

D) 40-year-old individual who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) and has an INR of 2.5

E) 19-year-old young adult with leukemia with a platelet count of 200,000

Q3) The nurse recognizes that the acute phase of a CVA has ended when:

A) 48 hours has passed from its onset.

B) Patient begins to respond verbally.

C) BP drops.

D) Vital signs and neurologic signs stabilize.

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Spinal Cord Injury

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9206

Sample Questions

Q1) When recording the findings of muscle strength,the nurse records a "2" for the right arm.This means that the muscles of the arm show:

A) Weak contraction

B) Muscle movement when supported

C) Active muscle movement without support

D) Full, active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises against resistance

Q2) The Brown-Séquard syndrome results in which neurologic deficit?

A) Bilateral loss of pain sensation below the level of injury

B) Bilateral loss of temperature and motor function below the level of injury

C) Motor and sensory loss in the upper extremities only

D) Ipsilateral loss of motor function and contralateral loss of pain sensation and temperature

Q3) On admission to the emergency department,the patient with a C5 compression fracture can move only his head and has flaccid paralysis of all extremities.The distraught family asks if the paralysis is permanent.The nurse's best response would be:

A) "Yes. In all likelihood, the paralysis is probably permanent."

B) "No. Significant recovery of function should occur in a few days."

C) "It is too early to tell. When the spinal shock subsides, we will know more."

D) "You should talk to your physician about things of that nature."

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Page 31

Chapter 30: Acute Respiratory Disorders

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9207

Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of these interventions would be inappropriate in performing a tracheal suction?

A) Administer oxygen before the procedure.

B) Leave the thumb off the suction control on insertion.

C) Maintain suction pressure between 80 and 100 mm Hg.

D) Limit suction pass to 15 seconds.

Q2) If the nurse can hear coarse crackles in the lower right lobe,then the nurse would assess that the bronchus is:

A) Partially filled with fluid

B) Narrowed by spasm

C) Partially filled with thick mucus

D) Completely obstructed

Q3) A patient comes to the emergency department with a sucking chest wound.Which one of the following types of dressing should the nurse apply to begin the process of lung reinflation?

A) Petroleum dressing covered with an airtight bandage

B) No dressing at all

C) Pillow weighted down with a sandbag

D) Air-occlusive dressing taped on three sides (vented dressing)

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Page 32

Chapter 31: Chronic Respiratory Disorders

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9208

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse recognizes that a rising level of partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)in arterial blood (PaCO<sub>2</sub>)in a patient with COPD means that:

A) More arterial O<sub>2</sub> is available than is needed.

B) The ventilation-perfusion ratio is becoming balanced.

C) Respiratory acidosis has begun.

D) The anticholinergic medications are effective.

Q2) The nurse is aware that the characteristic of emphysema that gives rise to the pink puffer label is the emphysemic patient's:

A) Dyspnea

B) Barrel chest

C) Thin body

D) Normal arterial blood gases (ABGs)

Q3) The nurse cautions a group of individuals with COPD that using O<sub>2</sub> at levels greater than 1 to 3 L/min can cause the loss of their

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Chapter 32: Hematologic Disorders

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9209

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse plans the interventions to prepare a patient for a bone marrow aspiration: (Place the options in the correct sequence.)

A) Assist the patient to lie on his or her abdomen, and drape the hip and lower limbs.

B) Confirm the presence of laboratory personnel to stain the specimen.

C) Apply a pressure dressing, and help the patient lie on his or her back.

D) Obtain a signed permission form.

E) Explain that the procedure will take about 30 minutes.

Q2) At the end of a shift,a nurse documents the effectiveness of parent teaching concerning the transmission of hemophilia.Which of the following statements by the mother would best indicate an accurate parental perception?

A) "Hemophilia is a genetic disorder and I am a carrier, although I do not have the disease."

B) "My son developed hemophilia because I had measles while I was pregnant."

C) "Since my husband isn't affected by the disease, our daughter will not be a carrier."

D) "I know it is not necessary to have my two daughters tested for the disease."

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Chapter 33: Immunologic Disorders

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In preparing discharge plans for a patient with SLE,the nurse must include:

A) Need to consume 2 L of fluid daily

B) Close monitoring of daily blood glucose level

C) Use of daily sunscreens with a sun protection factor (SPF) higher than 15

D) Careful concern for certain food allergies

Q2) The nurse explains that early in life,lymphocytes migrate from the marrow of the bones to the ________________,in which they mature into T cells.

Q3) The symptom that the nurse would recognize as being pertinent to a possible diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)is:

A) Butterfly rash of the face

B) Protruding abdomen

C) Thinning hair

D) Bloody diarrhea

Q4) The nurse explains that the type of bone marrow transplant that uses the patient's own bone marrow is:

A) Allergenic

B) Allogeneic

C) Peripheral blood stem cell

D) Autologous

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Chapter 34: Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired

Immunodeficiency Syndrome

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Sample Questions

Q1) Before the initiation of any anti-HIV drug protocol,the patient is assessed for the willingness to:

A) Give up sexual activity for several months.

B) Follow the strict dietary guidelines.

C) Comply with drug protocol.

D) Involve the partner in a support program.

Q2) The nurse explains that the enzyme reverse transcriptase transcribes:

A) DNA to mimic CD4 cells

B) T4-helper cells to RNA

C) HIV RNA to HIV DNA

D) T4 cells to HIV virons

Q3) The nurse clarifies that a patient with HIV does not necessarily have AIDS until:

A) Two or more opportunistic infections are diagnosed.

B) Kaposi sarcoma appears.

C) CD4 cell level drops to 200.

D) Tested positive for enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

Q4) The nurse explains to a pregnant patient with AIDS that her baby will be treated with antiretroviral drugs for ____________________ weeks after birth.

Page 36

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Chapter 35: Cardiac Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse should include in the patient's discharge instruction after an acute MI:

A) Cautions about use of morphine

B) Detailed symptoms that indicate impending MI

C) Written instructions on diet and follow-up appointments

D) High-energy exercise program directions

Q2) The nurse urges the 50-year-old overweight executive who had an MI 3 months earlier to take up some conditioning exercises for 30 minutes a day to: (Select all that apply.)

A) Lose weight.

B) Improve function of the left ventricle.

C) Decrease arterial stiffening.

D) Decrease cholesterol levels

E) Improve cardiac dysrhythmia.

Q3) When the patient asks what a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)is and what it is expected to do,the nurse explains that the TEE:

A) Measures conductivity.

B) Records the force of contraction.

C) Evaluates the efficiency of the valves.

D) Checks the volume of the preload.

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Page 37

Chapter 36: Vascular Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The obese postsurgical patient complains of sudden discomfort in her leg.The nurse assesses the leg and finds it cold and pale with no pedal or popliteal pulse.These are signs of:

A) Venous thrombosis

B) Arterial occlusion

C) Vascular spasm

D) Paresthesia

Q2) The nurse would include in the instruction related to a stress test on a treadmill that the test is a noninvasive procedure that:

A) Is monitored continuously by blood pressure and an electrocardiogram (ECG).

B) Will last about 1 hour.

C) Is meant to stimulate claudication and dyspnea.

D) Will require a period of bedrest afterward.

Q3) The nurse cautions the patient with PVD that his continued smoking causes detrimental vasoconstriction for up to ____ after only one cigarette.

A) 10 minutes

B) 20 minutes

C) 30 minutes

D) 1 hour

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Page 38

Chapter 37: Hypertension

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The cause of secondary hypertension can be a variety of conditions that include: (Select all that apply.)

A) Renal disease

B) Coarctation of the aorta

C) Colon cancer

D) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

E) Rheumatoid arthritis

Q2) An obese 38-year-old African-American patient with diabetes is being evaluated for the use of propranolol (Inderal)in controlling his hypertension.The nurse points out that a contraindication for that drug's use in this patient would be his:

A) Race

B) Age

C) Diabetes

D) Weight

Q3) Malignant hypertension is most commonly observed in:

A) White postmenopausal women

B) Obese Asians

C) Young African-American adults

D) Older Latino men

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Page 39

Chapter 38: Digestive Tract Disorders

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9215

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse identifies a risk factor in an older man that places him at risk for developing diverticulosis.This risk factor is:

A) Eating a low-fiber diet

B) Chronic diarrhea

C) History of using nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

D) Family history of colon cancer

Q2) The patient inquires if this newer type of gastric analysis is going to require passage through a nasogastric tube.The nurse replies:

A) "Yes, but just for the instillation of the dye."

B) "No. You take a dye orally, which will be excreted in the urine in approximately 2 hours."

C) "Yes. You will take the dye orally, and then several gastric withdrawals through the tube will show the dye."

D) "Yes. Only one withdrawal will be made through the tube, which will be treated with dye and read in approximately 2 hours."

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Chapter 39: Disorders of the Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreas

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Sample Questions

Q1) The instruction that should be given to the patient with portal hypertension to reduce the threat of hemorrhage is to:

A) Eat bland foods.

B) Avoid straining to have a bowel movement.

C) Increase fluid intake.

D) Use an electric razor to shave.

Q2) The nurse explains that pruritus in the patient with hepatitis is related to:

A) Decreased fat intake

B) Poor appetite and therefore poor protein intake

C) Accumulation of bile salts under the skin

D) Altered urinary output of bile

Q3) In planning the care for the patient with pancreatitis,the nurse assigns the highest priority to:

A) Patient claims satisfaction with pain control.

B) Patient states an understanding of medications needed on discharge.

C) Patient's activity level tolerance shows an increase.

D) Patient can maintain a normal bowel pattern.

Q4) The nurse explains to the patient that when the blood sugar level drops,the liver is capable of converting the stored glycogen to glucose by the process of

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Chapter 40: Urologic Disorders

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9217

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse caring for a patient with acute glomerulonephritis is aware that the inflammation of the capillary loops in the glomeruli leads to:

A) Moderate-to-high blood pressure

B) Low blood volume with polyuria

C) Irritability and hyperactivity

D) Low levels of BUN and creatinine

Q2) The patient who has cystitis has been told to drink at least 30 ml for each kilogram of body weight.Her weight is 154 pounds.The nurse instructs the patient to drink:

A) 1500 ml/day

B) 2100 ml/day

C) 2700 ml/day

D) 3100 ml/day

Q3) As the nurse assesses the patient with renal impairment,a facial characteristic that is a sign of fluid retention is:

A) Broken blood vessels around the nose

B) Periorbital edema

C) Rash on cheeks and neck

D) Facial twitching

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Chapter 41: Connective Tissue Disorders

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33 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse points out that the best physiologic reason for a patient with osteoporosis to maintain a regular exercise regimen is because exercise:

A) Involves the patient in her or his own care.

B) Increases cardiac output.

C) Promotes better mental health.

D) Promotes bone formation and improves strength.

Q2) The nurse explains to a patient with rheumatoid arthritis that the drug,leflunomide (Arava)is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD),which will:

A) Retard the progress of the disease.

B) Builds new bone.

C) Decreases inflammation.

D) Increases flexibility.

Q3) The nurse explains to a 51-year-old professional tennis instructor who is diagnosed with osteoarthritis that the disease is best understood as the:

A) Presence of antibodies in the synovial fluid

B) Dislocation of the patella over the tibia

C) Degeneration of articular cartilage

D) Body's autoimmune response

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43

Chapter 42: Fractures

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Sample Questions

Q1) A fracture that occurs because of osteoporosis is classified as a _____________ fracture.

Q2) The patient who has osteomyelitis after multiple fractures inquires what the physician meant when he said that surgery would follow the antibiotic therapy.The nurse's most helpful reply is to explain that surgery will be performed to:

A) Remove dead bone.

B) Close the open draining wound.

C) Close the area with casting material.

D) Amputate.

Q3) The nurse clarifies that in a greenstick fracture,the:

A) Line of the fracture goes across the bone in right angles to the longitudinal axis.

B) Periosteum is not torn away from the bone.

C) Fracture is incomplete, and one side is bent.

D) Fracture occurred in one of the long bones of the body.

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Chapter 43: Amputations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse modifies a teaching plan for an older adult who has had an above-the-knee amputation by: (Select all that apply.)

A) Offering smaller units of information at a time.

B) Increasing time for learning.

C) Placing less emphasis on chronic health problems.

D) Clarifying the reality of phantom pain.

E) Including frequent repetition.

Q2) The patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD)and diabetes asks what he can do to help prevent an amputation.The nurse is quick to respond:

A) "There is not really anything you can do to help."

B) "Stopping smoking would help prevent vasoconstriction."

C) "You will not need to check your blood glucose levels."

D) "It is important to eat big meals so your body can heal."

Q3) Late signs of hemorrhage in the postoperative period after an amputation include:

A) Restlessness and increased respirations

B) Cyanosis and hypotension

C) Confusion and seizures

D) Headache and hypertension

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45

Chapter 44: Pituitary and Adrenal Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assesses a disturbance in body image when a woman with Addison disease says:

A) "Will I look like a zebra for the rest of my life?"

B) "I have found makeup to cover my rash."

C) "With this red face, I sure can't wear pink anymore."

D) "At last! I look like I have a suntan."

Q2) The patient inquires about the purpose of the laboratory test to measure the serum level of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).The nurse responds that the laboratory test will determine if the:

A) Pituitary gland is sending the correct message to the adrenal glands.

B) Thyroid gland is not stimulating the production of ACTH.

C) Adrenal glands are not responding to produce cortisol.

D) Androgen metabolites are low or borderline.

Q3) The patient states that he is confused because the physician told him that his DI is nephrogenic.The nurse explains that nephrogenic DI differs from neurogenic DI in that nephrogenic DI:

A) Will eventually resolve without medication.

B) Requires the nasal spray lypressin.

C) Does not respond to ADH.

D) Will require dialysis.

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Chapter 45: Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would anticipate that the patient with hyperparathyroidism would exhibit a history of:

A) Fatigue, hyperactive reflexes, muscle cramps, and twitching

B) Poor muscle tone, bone pain, urinary calculi, and fractures

C) Hunger, thirst, and urinary retention

D) Tachycardia, air hunger, and nervousness

Q2) The patient with a hyperthyroid complains of fatigue but still cannot get to sleep.The nurse suggests:

A) Taking "cat naps" during the day.

B) Adhering to a bedtime ritual.

C) Drinking a cup of cocoa before bedtime.

D) Performing mild prebedtime exercises.

Q3) The patient being treated for hyperparathyroidism is to receive calcitonin (Calcimar).Before administering this drug,the patient should be:

A) Assessed for hydration status

B) Evaluated for cardiac dysrhythmia

C) Tested for sensitivity

D) X-rayed for the presence of urinary calculi

Q4) Congenital hypothyroidism,if left untreated,will result in _________________.

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Chapter 46: Diabetes Mellitus and Hypoglycemia

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse reminds the patient with type I diabetes to rotate the insulin injection sites to prevent

Q2) In drawing up a patient's diabetes teaching plan,the nurse needs to include the following:

A) Develop an exercise plan, because regular exercise helps control blood glucose levels.

B) Monitor blood sugar levels only if not feeling well to ensure that the fingertips are not pricked too much.

C) If nervousness, palpitations, or hunger are experienced, take a small dose (1 to 2 U) of regular insulin and call the physician.

D) Use over-the-counter measures for any foot blisters, calluses, or wounds before seeking medical help.

Q3) The teaching plan for a 22-year-old woman taking rosiglitazone (Avandia)would include a caution relative to:

A) Decreased effectiveness of her birth control pills

B) Excessive exposure to the sun

C) Sudden drop in blood pressure with dizziness

D) Possible severe diarrhea

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Chapter 47: Female Reproductive Disorders

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9224

Sample Questions

Q1) After a hysterectomy,the nurse assessing for abnormal bleeding would:

A) Record the number of perineal pads used.

B) Assess vital signs every 8 hours.

C) Place the patient's bed in a high Fowler position.

D) Apply an abdominal binder.

Q2) The nurse is aware that the medication used to stimulate or mimic actions of natural pituitary gonadotropins in the treatment of infertility is:

A) Estrogen only (diethylstilbestrol)

B) Danazol (Danocrine)

C) Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)

D) Raloxifene (Evista)

Q3) After a culdoscopy,the nurse should instruct the patient to:

A) Clean the incision site daily with hydrogen peroxide.

B) Avoid vaginal intercourse.

C) Return to the clinic for suture removal in 7 days.

D) Use tampons.

Q4) Because small nonnodal metastases may be present,______________ is recommended after a lumpectomy.

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Page 49

Chapter 48: Male Reproductive Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse informs the 50-year-old patient who has been prescribed nilutamide (Nilandron),a testosterone blocker,that while on this drug he should expect:

A) His urine will have a fishy odor.

B) Liver functions will need to be monitored.

C) Skin rash will appear on his face.

D) Episodes of hypotension will occur.

Q2) The nurse explains to a young man being treated for infertility that the semen analysis will:

A) Determine the history of sexually transmitted infections.

B) Evaluate the potential for genetic problems.

C) Determine whether any urethral obstructions are present.

D) Microscopically assess the sperm for number and motility.

Q3) The instruction that will increase the comfort of a patient who is recovering from prostatitis is to suggest that the patient:

A) Avoid bathing for 2 days.

B) Exercise.

C) Take stool softeners.

D) Limit fluid intake.

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Chapter 49: Sexually Transmitted Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) The gynecologist caring for a pregnant patient who has gonorrhea prescribed cefixime (Suprax)instead of the more common tetracycline hydrochloride (Achromycin).The nurse is aware that the rationale for this decision is that:

A) Gonorrhea is less likely to be resistant to Suprax.

B) Achromycin requires a longer treatment protocol than Suprax.

C) Suprax is a more potent drug that Achromycin.

D) Achromycin is contraindicated in a patient who is pregnant.

Q2) The nurse,completing a history of illnesses for a young woman who suspects she may have a sexually transmitted infection (STI),will ask specifically about whether the patient has experienced:

A) Lethargy and fatigue

B) Genital discharge

C) Abdominal cramps

D) Heavy menses

Q3) The nurse cautions the patient taking Flagyl for Trichomonas that she should:

A) Double the dose if any doses are missed.

B) Report dark urine.

C) Take the drug on an empty stomach.

D) Abstain from alcohol while taking the drug.

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Page 51

Chapter 50: Skin Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) An appropriate implementation for a patient with severe psoriasis who has a nursing diagnosis of "Disturbed body image,related to skin lesions" would be:

A) Touching the patient often

B) Reassuring the patient of a quick remission

C) Reminding the patient to bathe often

D) Prompt administration of medications as needed

Q2) The implementation that the nurse may perform for a patient with pruritus without a physician's order is to:

A) Apply topical corticosteroids to affected areas.

B) Administer an antihistamine.

C) Apply lubricant to unbroken skin.

D) Bathe the patient in an oatmeal bath.

Q3) The nurse collecting tissue for a Tzanck smear will: (Select the appropriate interventions and place the steps in sequence.)

A) Open the lesion with a hypodermic needle.

B) Place the specimen in a culture tube, and take to the laboratory.

C) Saturate the sterile swab with exudates.

D) Wash the lesion.

E) Place a pressure dressing on the lesion.

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Page 52

Chapter 51: Eye and Vision Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient in the emergency department complains of severe pain in his eye and is seeing halos around lights and feeling nauseous.The nurse recognizes these symptoms as probable:

A) Open-angle glaucoma

B) Angle-closure glaucoma

C) Cataracts

D) Retinal detachment

Q2) Implementations that are appropriate in the care plan for a visually impaired person include:

A) Leaving the bed in the highest position.

B) Keeping the door closed.

C) Announcing your presence when you enter and leave the room.

D) Leaving the radio on all the time to help the patient know the time of day.

Q3) A nursing diagnosis for a visually impaired patient might include all of the following except:

A) Impaired sensory perception

B) Risk for delayed development

C) Self-care deficit

D) Ineffective coping

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Page 53

Chapter 52: Ear and Hearing Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The young woman being admitted to the clinic service states that all the members of her family have been hard of hearing.She says her hearing loss became more pronounced when she was pregnant.You suspect that this patient has a type of hearing loss called:

A) Otosclerosis

B) Ototoxicity

C) Otalgia.

D) Otitis media

Q2) A significant instruction to a patient being discharged after ear surgery is to:

A) Use stool softeners with caution.

B) Assume your usual activities.

C) Avoid blowing your nose.

D) Shampoo your hair with baby shampoo.

Q3) Behaviors that would alert the nurse to a possible hearing deficit would be when the patient: (Select all that apply.)

A) Watches the speaker's mouth.

B) Gives inappropriate answers to questions.

C) Pulls at the ears.

D) Fails to respond when spoken to.

E) Turns the good ear to the speaker.

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Chapter 53: Nose, Sinus, and Throat Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most significant topic in a teaching plan for a patient with frequent episodes of laryngitis should include:

A) Observing voice rest.

B) Reducing smoking.

C) Eating warm foods.

D) Maintaining a consistent environmental temperature.

Q2) The nurse taking a specimen from a throat culture would: (Choose the appropriate actions and place them in the correct sequence.)

A) Depress the tongue with a tongue blade.

B) Place the applicator in a culture tube.

C) Ask the patient to cough deeply.

D) Ask the patient to tilt the head back.

E) Swab the back of the throat and tonsils.

Q3) The nurse assesses that suctioning is necessary for a patient with a tracheostomy when the patient:

A) Becomes restless and has increases in vital signs.

B) Has decreased peak airway pressure.

C) Shows diaphoresis.

D) Is coughing frothy mucus.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 55

Chapter 54: Psychologic Responses to Illness

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9231

Sample Questions

Q1) The stage in which introspection is a major characteristic is:

A) Middle-aged adult

B) Middle childhood

C) Early adulthood

D) Older-age adult

Q2) When the patient is asked whether he wants his pain medication,he says to you,"I don't know,whatever you think is best." The nurse recognizes that this is a maladaptive coping mechanism called:

A) Powerlessness

B) Helplessness

C) Denial

D) Depression

Q3) The nurse questions the patient as to how he has coped with previous stressful situations,because the nurse is aware that coping strategies are influenced by: (Select all that apply.)

A) Age

B) Financial status

C) Role expectations

D) Personal values

E) Cultural expectations

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 56

Chapter 55: Psychiatric Disorders

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9232

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient admitted with a conversion disorder after an automobile accident insists he is paralyzed,although no physical cause for his paraplegia can be found.When the patient asks the nurse to push him to his room,the nurse's best response would be:

A) "There is nothing wrong with your arms. Roll yourself to your room."

B) "I will help you to walk to your room. I know you can walk."

C) "Let me lift the foot rests so you can move your chair with your feet."

D) "OK. I am going that way myself."

Q2) To listen therapeutically to the patient,the nurse should try to:

A) Concentrate on the patient and not think of responses to the patient while he or she is speaking.

B) Determine the cause of the patient's problem while the patient is speaking.

C) Ask the patient why he thinks he feels the way he does.

D) Tell the patient that you have had similar experiences.

Q3) When the nurse asks questions like,"What day is today?" or "What time is it now?" the nurse is testing the patient's ____________________.

Q4) When the patient asks the nurse to touch him,the nurse asks why he needs this.The patient replies,"I just need to know that I am real." The nurse assesses that response as a primary sign of ____________________.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 57

Chapter 56: Substance-Related Disorders

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9233

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse in the admissions unit is informed that a patient is being brought in who has been using "ice." The nurse is aware that this patient may be:

A) Extremely dehydrated

B) In a coma

C) Dangerously hypertensive

D) Violent

Q2) Marijuana is a hallucinogenic drug that can be used for positive effects in the treatment of:

A) Diet control in the morbidly obese

B) Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting

C) Air hunger in patients with end-stage emphysema

D) Early diabetic-induced cataracts

Q3) The nurse explains that because the drug disulfiram (Antabuse)is deemed inappropriate,the patient has been put on the most reliable substitute,____________________,which causes similar but less severe side effects in the alcoholic who continues to drink.

Q4) The nurse explains that a test that can detect substance abuse for up to 1 year after only 2 or 3 days of use is performed on ____________________.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 58

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