Acute and Chronic Illness Management Final
Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth examination of the principles and practices involved in the management of acute and chronic illnesses across the lifespan. Students will explore the pathophysiology, assessment, and evidence-based interventions for a variety of health conditions, emphasizing patient-centered care and interdisciplinary collaboration. The curriculum covers the roles of healthcare professionals in diagnosis, treatment planning, education, and long-term management strategies, as well as the psychosocial, cultural, and ethical considerations relevant to acute and chronic disease processes. Through case studies and practical scenarios, students will develop the critical thinking and clinical skills necessary to effectively manage patients in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Medical Surgical Nursing 5th Edition by Linton
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1705 Verified Questions
1705 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Balanced Budget Act of 1997 was the cause of closures of many proprietary home health care agencies because the Act:
A) Specified that all care be given by registered nurses (RNs).
B) Listed specific diagnoses that could qualify a patient for home health care.
C) Limited the amount of money that could be spent on a patient.
D) Increased the criteria for patient eligibility for home care.
Answer: C
Q2) The person who is considered the forerunner of modern public health nursing in the United States is:
A) Vincent DePaul
B) William Rathbone
C) Florence Nightingale
D) Lillian Wald
Answer: D
Q3) A voluntary health care agency is one that:
A) Is supported by tax dollars.
B) Is governed by boards made up of community members.
C) Receives no fee for its services.
D) Uses volunteers as health care providers.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Patient Care Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home health care nurse explains that although she performs all the following actions,the only one that is reimbursable under Medicare payment rules is to:
A) Observe a wife clean and change the dressing.
B) Take a frail couple for a walk to provide exercise.
C) Watch a patient measure out all medications.
D) Teach a patient to give herself insulin.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse explains that the law that provides for a partially paralyzed fork-lift operator to be retrained by vocational rehabilitation services for less demanding office work is the:
A) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1920
B) Social Security Act of 1935
C) Rehabilitation Act of 1973
D) Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Legal and Ethical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that values clarification supports nursing practice by: (Select all that apply.)
A) Guiding decision making
B) Giving insight to patients
C) Enhancing peer relationships
D) Helping understand him or herself
E) Gaining the confidence of supervisors
Answer: A,B,D
Q2) The LPN/LVN explains to a patient that the hospital has an Institutional Ethics Committee whose main function is to:
A) Preside over policy implementation
B) Revoke the license of someone who violates the law
C) Solve personnel disputes
D) Ensure that hiring adheres to ethnic equality
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Leadership Role of the Licensed Practical
Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leadership is different from management.Which one of the following definitions best describes this difference?
A) The leadership function comes after the manager decides on it.
B) Management refers to providing the means to inspire people.
C) A leader selects the role, and a manager is appointed.
D) A manager selects goals and the means to achieve them.
Q2) A case conference is called to plan for a patient who has caused stress in the staff with constant calls and trivial requests.The nurse leader expresses personal views,leads the discussion about approaches to the problem,and then makes the decision for care based on the discussion.This leadership style is an example of:
A) Autocratic
B) Democratic
C) Laissez-faire
D) Participative
Q3) Planning,organizing,directing,and controlling are major functions of
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6
Chapter 5: The Nurse-Patient Relationship
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the nurse discusses the discharge plan with a recovering patient,the most effective communication technique is to:
A) Assess nonverbal clues.
B) Allow communication to focus on whatever topic the patient desires.
C) Insist on postrecovery activities as stated in the care plan.
D) Reduce eye contact to convey nondirective attitudes.
Q2) The nurse is preparing an anxious patient for major surgery and remarks,"Everyone feels some anxiety,but you will be asleep during the whole thing." This is an example of which communication style?
A) Empathy
B) Summarizing
C) False reassurance
D) Premature advice
Q3) When the dying patient says,"There is no God.There is no afterlife.When it's over,it's over." The most therapeutic response would be:
A) "You must feel very lonely."
B) "Of course there is a God, and He loves you very much."
C) "Why do you think there is no God?"
D) "You are absolutely right. I think that, too."
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cultural Aspects of Nursing Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the request of the family,the instructor makes an assignment change for a black male student who had been assigned to take care of a postpartum Muslim woman.The culturally competent nurse is aware that the request by the family was made because:
A) Muslim culture does not allow black practitioners to care for women.
B) Muslim culture prefers that women health care providers care for Muslim women.
C) The husband will be present, and he will object.
D) After childbirth, all care must be performed by women.
Q2) When many cultures and subcultures exist within the same society,as they do in the large cities of the United States,these groups are referred to as:
A) Cultural diversity
B) Cultural ethnicity
C) Mixed society
D) Cultural immigration
Q3) The process in which children mature and take on the values of their families and their society is called ____________________.
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Chapter 7: The Nurse and the Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse congratulates the patient for successfully coping with a family crisis.The state of having used coping strategies effectively is classified as
Q2) The nurse includes the family in patient care to maintain the family's ____________________.
Q3) The family is an important unit in society primarily because it:
A) Offers unconditional love and acceptance.
B) Provides emotional support and security.
C) Is essential to life and society.
D) Promotes cultural values and attitudes.
Q4) The nurse makes a patient referral to community resource,knowing that such a resource can: (Select all that apply.)
A) Provide helpful literature.
B) Offer ongoing and consistent assistance.
C) Reassure the family members that they are not alone.
D) Offer a variety of free services.
E) Organize a support group.
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9
Chapter 8: Health and Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an individual seeks help from family,friends,or a community resource during a time of stress,the nurse assesses that this is an example of which response?
A) Internal
B) External
C) Physiologic
D) Psychologic
Q2) The patient is being discharged from same-day surgery after a tonsillectomy.The nurse is aware that the patient will be in the phase of general adaptation syndrome,in which the body begins to heal after injury.This is called the:
A) Alarm stage
B) Resistance stage
C) Exhaustion stage
D) Initial stage
Q3) The nurse explains that the health-illness continuum is based on:
A) Prevention of acute illness
B) Individual response to health or illness
C) Promotion of health and wellness
D) Variation in degree of health or illness
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Chapter 9: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) After food is masticated and swallowed,it is mixed with gastric secretions in the stomach to form a:
A) Bolus
B) Chyme
C) Protein
D) Lipid
Q2) The nurse reinforces the information that a well-balanced diet should be a minimum of ____% protein:
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
Q3) Normal fasting blood glucose level is:
A) 20 to 50 mg/100 ml
B) 70 to 100 mg/100 ml
C) 200 to 250 mg/100 ml
D) 30 to 60 mg/100 ml
Q4) The nurse calculates the needed kilocalories (kcal)for a 150-pound moderately active person to be ____________________.
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Chapter 10: Developmental Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse counsels the 25-year-old mother and business woman to focus health promotion concerns on: (Select all that apply.)
A) Adhering to an exercise program
B) Having a Pap smear performed every 3 years
C) Making annual appointments for a mammogram
D) Performing a self-breast examination (SBE) monthly
E) Scheduling an annual physical examination
Q2) The nurse counsels an 18-year-old that because she has been sexually active since the age of 15,she should get a:
A) Mammogram
B) Digital rectal examination
C) Papanicolaou (Pap) smear
D) Pregnancy test
Q3) The nurse is aware that ethnic- and gender-related difference in life expectancies exist,such as:
A) Black men live longer than white men.
B) White women live longer than black women.
C) Black men live longer than black women.
D) White men live longer than white women.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Older Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse in a long-term care facility takes extra precaution in the approach to nursing care because the older adult is more prone to respiratory infection because of:
A) Decreased ciliary action
B) Decreased physical activity
C) Inadequate hydration
D) Poor personal hygiene
Q2) The term old age or aged can best be defined as:
A) Person's state of mind
B) Person older than 65 years of age
C) Process of growing older
D) Person of advanced age
Q3) The nurse includes in her approach to nursing care that older adult patients with mild cognitive impairment (MCI)are more likely to develop:
A) Dementia, non-Alzheimer type
B) Alzheimer dementia
C) Parkinson disease
D) Psychotic disorders
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Chapter 12: The Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence-based practice supports effective nursing care through: (Select all that apply.)
A) Research on nursing care topics
B) Directives from the Boards of Nursing
C) Summation of studies
D) Recommendations for nursing care
E) Funding research
Q2) In PIE documentation,a type of POMR,the acronym PIE stands for ____________________,____________________ and
Q3) When a patient plan of care has been written,it:
A) Is continually reviewed and evaluated.
B) Must be reviewed by the primary caregiver.
C) Remains in effect until the patient is discharged.
D) Can only be changed by the initiating nurse.
Q4) Critical thinking is an integral part of the nursing process because it:
A) Promotes flexibility and individualized care.
B) Incorporates decision making.
C) Includes the patient in part of the nursing process.
D) Provides guidelines of care.
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Chapter 13: Inflammation, Infection, and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse cautions a group of parents about children playing barefoot on dirt that may lead them to be exposed to infections caused by:
A) Helminthes
B) Protozoa
C) Rickettsiae
D) Mycoplasmas
Q2) A patient who is receiving daily steroids for the control of a condition calls the nurse to ask advice about whether a small child who has been exposed to influenza should come and visit because she has not had any symptoms.An appropriate response by the office nurse would be:
A) "Yes, let the child visit. There is no reason not to visit, because this child is not sick."
B) "No, the child should not visit. Infectious diseases are often most communicable in the short period before the child actually becomes ill."
C) "It would be up to the patient. Plan not to get overtired with a small child running and bouncing around."
D) "Take the child who is not sick to her own physician, and ask this question first."
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15
Chapter 14: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would instruct the patient with a K? level of 6.2 to avoid: (Select all that apply.)
A) Lima beans
B) Bananas
C) Carrots
D) Tomatoes
E) Celery
Q2) The nurse assists a patient with dyspnea to sit in a high Fowler position.This position allows gravity to help move oxygen from the pulmonary capillaries into the blood by a process known as:
A) Active transport
B) Diffusion
C) Filtration
D) Osmosis
Q3) The nurse assesses deep-rapid respirations in a patient with metabolic acidosis to be an indicator of the homeostatic system at work to reduce the ____________________ level.
Q4) The nurse would anticipate in a patient with respiratory acidosis that the blood pH reading would be lower than ____________________.
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Chapter 15: Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) To perform a nursing assessment correctly,the nurse must remember that pain perception involves several central nervous system (CNS)processes such as:
A) Afferent pathways carry messages to the spinal cord.
B) Efferent pathways stimulate the spinal cord to recognize the location of pain.
C) Nociceptors in the brain stimulate the spinal cord.
D) Pain receptors in muscle, skin, and subcutaneous tissue stimulate efferent pathways.
Q2) A patient who had a myocardial infarction 2 days earlier has been eating well,is ambulating with assistance,and is receiving antibiotics and morphine by intravenous (IV)drip.The patient complains of constipation this morning.The nurse assesses the probable cause of the constipation as:
A) Inadequate fluid intake
B) Lack of exercise
C) Administration of antibiotics
D) Administration of an analgesic medication
Q3) The nurse explains that afferent pathways are activated by pain receptors called ____________________.
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Chapter 16: First Aid, Emergency Care, and Disaster Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) While ambulating,a patient gasps and drops to the floor unconscious with no pulse or respiration.The nurse is aware that without resuscitation the brain cells will begin to die in:
A) 1 minute
B) 2 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 4 minutes
Q2) One-person CPR principles,as taught and practiced by professional nurses,require that the initial intervention for an unconscious patient who is not breathing is to:
A) Lift the jaw to clear the airway.
B) Call for assistance.
C) Start chest compressions.
D) Remove patient clothing to visualize the chest.
Q3) On the initial assessment of a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning,the emergency department nurse would anticipate that:
A) BP will be low.
B) Oxygen saturation will be low.
C) Mucous membranes will be blue.
D) Respirations will be less than 10 per minute.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Surgical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has just undergone a colon resection complains to the nurse that he felt something pop under his dressing while trying to get out of bed.The nurse removes the dressing and finds that dehiscence of the wound has occurred.The nurse's first action should be to:
A) Replace the dressing; dehiscence is normal.
B) Call the physician.
C) Pull the wound edges together, and replace the dressing.
D) Cover the wound with sterile dressings saturated with normal saline.
Q2) The nurse is caring for the postoperative patient who has had spinal anesthesia.The nurse would place highest priority on reporting which of these assessments?
A) Complaints of a headache
B) Pulse rate of 78 beats per minute
C) Voided 300 ml
D) Blood pressure of 126/78 mm Hg
Q3) The technique the nurse should use to change a postoperative dressing is:
A) Enteric isolation
B) Aseptic technique
C) Clean technique
D) Respiratory isolation
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using an IV infusion system that delivers 60 drops/ml,the nurse hangs a 1000-ml bag of 5% dextrose in water (D<sub>5</sub>W),which the physician has ordered to infuse at 80 ml/hr.It is now 10 AM.The nurse anticipates that the IV will need to be changed at:
A) 6 PM
B) 8 PM
C) 8:30 PM
D) 10:30 PM
Q2) The nurse explains that caloric sources in IVs come from:
A) Electrolytes
B) Dextrose
C) Vitamins
D) Water
Q3) When removing a central catheter,the nurse should instruct the patient to:
A) Lean forward and cough.
B) Take a deep breath and bear down.
C) Breathe deeply through the mouth.
D) Lie on the right side.
Q4) The nurse explains to the patient that the peripheral IV tubing administration set and dressing should be changed every __________ hours.
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Chapter 19: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assessing a patient in the progressive stage of shock would expect to find:
A) Bounding pulse, decreased respirations, and decreased blood pressure
B) Bounding pulse, shallow respirations, and significantly increased blood pressure
C) Thready pulse and deep respirations with decreased blood pressure
D) Thready pulse and irregular respirations with increased blood pressure
Q2) The nurse explains that the use of medical antishock trousers (MAST)garment compress the legs and abdomen to:
A) Help restore cellular perfusion.
B) Decrease internal hemorrhage.
C) Cool the patient to create less metabolic demand.
D) Apply pressure during the systole phase and relax pressure during the diastole phase.
Q3) The nurse explains that when shock forces the body into anaerobic metabolism,organ damage is caused by a product of that metabolism,which is
Q4) The nurse explains that the minimal acceptable hourly urine output for the patient in shock who weighs 220 pounds is ____________________.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Falls
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse in a long-term care facility determines the need to place a vest restraint on a patient.The patient does not want the vest restraint applied.The nurse should:
A) Apply the restraint anyway.
B) Call the physician, and obtain an order for the restraint.
C) Medicate the patient with a sedative, and then apply the restraint.
D) Compromise with the patient and use wrist restraints.
Q2) In preparation for discharge home,the nurse caring for a patient with ataxia would recommend that the family:
A) Remove all scatter rugs from the home.
B) Rearrange the bedroom furniture.
C) Arrange for someone to stay with the patient 24 hours a day.
D) Purchase oversized shoes so that they are easy to get on.
Q3) The nurse is admitting a new patient to the nursing unit.When conducting the admission procedure,assessing the patient's risk for falling is important by asking:
A) "How many times have you fallen before?"
B) "How many hours do you sleep at night?"
C) "What are your eating habits?"
D) "Do you smoke?"
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Chapter 21: Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the treatment for a stage III pressure ulcer as satisfactory when the bed of the ulcer is pink,indicating the presence of _________________________,which is an indicator of tissue perfusion.
Q2) A nurse caring for a patient who has been prescribed bedrest for 1 week notices a reddened area on the patient's left hip.The skin is intact but,when the nurse presses on the area,the redness does not fade.The nurse recognizes this pressure ulcer as:
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q3) The nurse is instructing a patient relative to the characteristics of a stage I pressure ulcer,which are: (Select all that apply.)
A) The area is regular and well-defined.
B) Tissue hardening is present.
C) Swelling has occurred at the site.
D) The condition is reversible.
E) Nonblanching erythema is observed.
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Chapter 22: Confusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse in a long-term care facility is taking patients to the dining room for lunch.She asks the patient who has been diagnosed with delirium if she is ready to go eat lunch.When the patient does not respond,the nurse should:
A) Take the patient by the arm and lead her to the dining room.
B) Assist the patient to bed, and bring her lunch to her.
C) Tell the patient that she can go to the dining room whenever she gets hungry.
D) Ask the patient again if she is ready to go eat lunch.
Q2) The nurse caring for the patient with dementia notices that the patient stays awake most of the night.The nurse's most appropriate action would be to:
A) Give a prescribed sleeping medication.
B) Tell the patient that it is nighttime, and that she must go to sleep.
C) Check the patient's record to see whether she is sleeping during the day.
D) Put the patient to bed, and put the side rails up.
Q3) The nurse will focus nursing care support for a patient with mild cognitive impairment (MCI)on:
A) Reorienting the patient to the physical environment.
B) Developing strategies to improve memory.
C) Assisting with dressing and eating.
D) Establishing toileting schedules.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Incontinence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is cleaning the patient with fecal incontinence when he says,"This is so embarrassing,and it makes me really angry." The nurse's best response would be:
A) "Don't worry about it, it's my job to clean you up."
B) "If you would have called me sooner, this wouldn't have happened."
C) "Do you feel angry and embarrassed?"
D) "Would you rather let your family clean you up?"
Q2) The nurse informs the patient that the uroflowmetry diagnostic tool measures:
A) Voiding duration
B) Specific gravity of urine
C) Effectiveness of the detrusor muscle
D) General bladder tone
Q3) The nurse instructs a patient that diarrhea can be caused by the inclusion in the diet of such foods as:
A) Cheese
B) Cabbage
C) Rice
D) Yogurt
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25
Chapter 24: Loss,Death,and End-of-Life Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's family asks the nurse what to expect when the patient dies.The nurse's best response would be that:
A) His heart will stop, and then later he will quit breathing.
B) His respirations will cease first, and then the heart stops beating within a few minutes.
C) His heartbeat and breathing will just stop suddenly, without warning.
D) He will quit breathing first and then it could be several hours before his heart stops.
Q2) The nurse is preparing a patient's body after death and discovers the patient's dentures were not in his mouth before death.The nurse should:
A) Insert them gently into the mouth.
B) Give them to the family.
C) Throw them away.
D) Send them to waste management to be disposed of properly.
Q3) The nurse explains that the study and discussion of end-of-life issues have been brought to public awareness because of an increase in death and terminal illnesses of young people with ____________________.
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Chapter 25: The Patient with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that drugs such as cannabinoids,Benadryl,and Vistaril are frequently ordered for patients with cancer who are taking chemotherapy to help:
A) Promote amnesia to dampen the fear.
B) Maintain fluid retention to prevent dehydration.
C) Control nausea, vomiting, and taste disorders caused by the therapy.
D) Control bouts of diarrhea or uncomfortable constipation.
Q2) The home health nurse is compiling a patient profile on a 23-year-old obese woman who smokes one-half pack of cigarettes a day and indulges in 1 beer a week.She works as a cook in a long-term care facility.She has two children and eats a diet high in fats.She exercises 30 minutes a day.Both parents are dead of heart disease.The number of risks for cancer in this profile that the nurse should assess are:
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 6
Q3) Radiation is now measured in GRAY rather than RADS.One GRAY is equal to ________ RADS.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: The Patient with an Ostomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) To assist a colostomy patient in selecting an appropriate diet to reduce excess gas or diarrhea,the nurse would encourage the patient to choose:
A) Roast beef, mashed potatoes, peeled stewed tomatoes
B) Broiled pork chop, boiled potato, corn on the cob
C) Broiled trout, mashed potatoes, spinach
D) Barbeque pork on a white bun, coleslaw, French fries
Q2) The 1-day postoperative ileostomy patient is concerned about the fact that no drainage has occurred from the ileostomy.The nurse reminds the patient that: (Select all that apply.)
A) The drainage does not start until approximately 24 to 48 hours after surgery.
B) The first drainage will have blood in it.
C) Mucus will be obvious in the early drainage.
D) The first drainage is expelled with a great deal of force.
E) A large amount of flatus will accompany the first drainage.
Q3) When the patient complains of urine crystals forming on the urostomy stoma,the home health nurse recommends dissolving them with a pad saturated with
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Chapter 27: Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a pacemaker might be ineligible for:
A) Computed tomography (CT)
B) Electromyography (EMG)
C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D) Electroencephalography (EEG)
Q2) An older adult patient who is experiencing extreme stress related to an admission to the hospital would be expected to demonstrate:
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Decreased blood pressure (BP)
C) Irregular respiration
D) Dilation of the pupils
Q3) The nurse should assess the patient scheduled for an angiogram for:
A) Dizziness
B) Allergy to shrimp
C) Increased BP
D) Irregular heartbeat
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Chapter 28: Cerebrovascular Accident
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9205
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that a lacunar stroke differs from an ischemic CVA in that a lacunar CVA: (Select all that apply.)
A) Causes a great deal of pain.
B) Alters the personality.
C) Affects small arteries.
D) Nearly always results in blindness.
E) Produces a large amount of neurologic damage.
Q2) The nurse explains that a patient who has been determined to have had a complete stroke as a result of a ruptured vessel in the left hemisphere would be classified as:
A) Ischemic, embolic
B) Hemorrhagic, subarachnoid
C) Hemorrhagic, intracerebral
D) Ischemic, thrombotic
Q3) The nurse checks the oxygen in the circulating volume for adequate concentration to support the brain's need of ________% of the oxygen supply of the body.
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Chapter 29: Spinal Cord Injury
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9206
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assures a despondent young female patient with a SCI who is at risk for sexual dysfunction that although her lesion is at C5,she can still have: (Select all that apply.)
A) Vaginal sensation
B) Vaginal orgasm
C) Normal menses
D) Intercourse
E) Children
Q2) The nurse reminds the patient that successful rehabilitation of individuals with SCIs has been enhanced over the last 10 years by the advent of new: (Select all that apply.)
A) Technologically advanced assistive aids
B) Rehabilitation personnel
C) Development of trauma centers
D) Health insurance
E) Rapid transport of victims
Q3) The nurse refers to the ___________ __________ to assess the extent of sensory loss and specific nerve root enervation.
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Chapter 30: Acute Respiratory Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9207
Sample Questions
Q1) To reduce the risk of aspiration in a patient who is receiving continuous enteral feedings running at 70 ml/hr,the nurse should:
A) Check the position of the tube during every shift.
B) Notify the charge nurse or physician about a residual volume of 20 ml.
C) Elevate the patient's head during and for 10 minutes after feeding.
D) Position the patient on the left side after the feeding.
Q2) The nurse will record a positive reading of a tuberculin (TB)skin test when it is assessed:
A) 1 day after injection with a 10-mm area of redness and swelling
B) 2 days after injection with a 5-mm area of redness and swelling
C) 4 days after injection with a 3-mm area of redness and swelling
D) 5 days after injection with a 2-mm area of redness and swelling
Q3) The nurse charts that the patient has had periods of tachypnea during the night.This means that the respiration rate was:
A) Below 12 breaths/min
B) Uneven, with periods of apnea
C) Gradually deepening, then shallow, and then periods of apnea
D) Above 20 breaths/min
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Chapter 31: Chronic Respiratory Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9208
Sample Questions
Q1) The theophylline blood level is 13 mcg/ml.Which intervention is the most appropriate in light of this finding?
A) Administer the next dose of theophylline as ordered.
B) Skip the next dose, and then resume.
C) Call the charge nurse or physician.
D) Take the patient's blood pressure immediately.
Q2) The discharge instruction given by the nurse that would be informative to a patient with TB,who asks how to protect his family members from his disease,is:
A) "Your family will need to take treatments to prevent infection."
B) "You will need to wear a mask at home to protect your family members."
C) "You should always cover your mouth and nose if coughing or sneezing."
D) "You should avoid intimate contact with everyone."
Q3) When a young patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)complains of debilitating night sweats,the home health nurse suggests that he visit the clinic for a:
A) Prescription for antibiotics
B) Tuberculosis (TB) screen
C) Complete blood count (CBC)
D) Treatment with an aerosol inhalant
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33
Chapter 32: Hematologic Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9209
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assessing a patient 20 minutes after a bone marrow biopsy is concerned when the patient says:
A) "There is fresh blood on my dressing."
B) "I am thirsty."
C) "My hip feels bruised where they stuck the needle."
D) "I had a sharp pain in my leg when they pulled the needle out."
Q2) The nurse explains that sickle cell crisis occurs when the sickle-shaped red blood cells:
A) Rupture
B) Produce hemoglobin S
C) Interfere with blood production
D) Obstruct major arteries
Q3) The nurse caring for a patient with crushing injuries from an automobile accident is horrified to find the patient bleeding profusely from the nose,mouth,and rectum,as well as from the injuries.The nurse assesses this emergency situation as:
A) Hemophilia
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C) Leukemia
D) Thrombocytopenia
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Immunologic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9210
Sample Questions
Q1) While healthy bone marrow is growing back after chemotherapy in patients with leukemia,the nursing staff recalls that these patients are at greater risk for:
A) Infection and bleeding
B) Hypertension and headache
C) Oliguria and urinary retention
D) Dyspnea and wheezing
Q2) The nurse explains that early in life,lymphocytes migrate from the marrow of the bones to the ________________,in which they mature into T cells.
Q3) The nursing staff of an oncology unit cautions visitors to be free of infections before visiting patients.The rationale for this precaution is because chemotherapy and decreased bone marrow production can cause:
A) Hemorrhage
B) Neutropenia
C) Edema
D) Hypovolemia
Q4) Cells in the bone marrow that are capable of developing into RBCs,WBCs,or platelets are the ___________ cells.
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Chapter 34: Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9211
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse lists the opportunistic fungal disease that threatens patients with HIV,which include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Aspergillosis
B) Pneumocystis jiroveci
C) Herpes simplex
D) Oral hairy leukoplakia
E) Tuberculosis
Q2) The nurse explains to a pregnant patient with AIDS that her baby will be treated with antiretroviral drugs for ____________________ weeks after birth.
Q3) The nurse explains that the initial stage of an HIV infection usually lasts from:
A) 2 to 4 weeks
B) 4 to 8 weeks
C) 8 to 12 weeks
D) 12 to 16 weeks
Q4) The nurse explains that HIV is introduced to the systemic circulation by the ____________________,which is found in the mucous membranes.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Cardiac Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9212
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse performs an apical-radial pulse evaluation,with the result of 100/88.This pulse deficit assessment is:
A) 12
B) 24
C) 76
D) 88
Q2) The patient with AF is prescribed amiodarone for the dysrhythmia.The nurse should report the adverse reaction of:
A) Ataxia
B) Decreasing pulse rate
C) Decreasing blood pressure
D) Increase in cardiac output
Q3) When a patient returns from a cardiac catheterization,the nurse would expect to:
A) Ambulate the patient in the hall.
B) Check the puncture site.
C) Monitor the gag reflex.
D) Remove the gel from all sites on the skin.
Q4) At rest,the cardiac cells in the myocardium are electrically polarized,with the inside of the cell being more ____________________ than the outside of the cell.
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Chapter 36: Vascular Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9213
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with Raynaud disease has a nursing diagnosis of "Ineffective tissue perfusion,related to vasoconstriction" is being given discharge instructions.The nurse would caution the patient to:
A) Avoid defrosting the freezer.
B) Wear gloves and warm socks when outdoors.
C) Chafe hands frequently to warm them.
D) Wash dishes in warm water.
Q2) The nurse explains that a capillary refill time of less than 3 seconds is a quick assessment for:
A) Hypertension
B) Tissue perfusion
C) Excess fluid volume
D) Increased blood viscosity
Q3) The nurse explains that the lining of a vessel that allows for smooth blood flow and also reduced resistance in the vessel is the ____________________ of the vessel.
Q4) The nurse explains that when the patient history reveals a recent episode of vomiting and diarrhea,the nurse anticipates that this fluid loss will cause ____________________ and increased blood viscosity.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Hypertension
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9214
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient reports drowsiness after initiating atenolol (Tenormin)for the treatment of hypertension,the nurse's best response would be to instruct the patient to:
A) Take the medication at bedtime.
B) Reduce the dose of the medication until the desired effect occurs.
C) Avoid activities that require alertness.
D) Talk to the physician because drowsiness is not an anticipated side effect.
Q2) The nurse explains that the force against which the left ventricle must work to force the blood into the circulation is called ______________________________.
Q3) A patient who has been taking methyldopa (Aldomet)for his hypertension reports to the emergency department with a severe headache,blurred vision,and a blood pressure reading of 200/94 mm Hg.The nurse would suspect:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Ineffective coping with sedation
C) Abrupt cessation of medication
D) Sexual dysfunction
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Chapter 38: Digestive Tract Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9215
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient complains about the placement of the total parenteral nutrition (TPN)line and asks why it cannot be inserted in the arm.The nurse's response is based on the fact that placement in the:
A) Arm would limit patient mobility.
B) Subclavian artery allows for ease in dressing the puncture site.
C) Arm prevents the use of large-bore cannulas.
D) Subclavian artery allows for rapid dilution.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to give a tube feeding using a large syringe.Before infusion,the nurse should:
A) Roll the patient flat.
B) Check for a residual formula, and return the patient to his or her stomach.
C) Place the end of the tube in water, and check for bubbles.
D) Flush the tube.
Q3) Patient teaching to promote self-care for the individual with diverticulosis should include the avoidance of:
A) Peanuts and raspberries
B) Apples and pears
C) Red meat and dairy products
D) Bran and whole grains
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Disorders of the Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreas
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9216
Sample Questions
Q1) Before discharge after a laparoscopic procedure for cholelithiasis,the patient is advised to:
A) Take water-soluble vitamins.
B) Follow a low-fat diet.
C) Expect light-colored stools for several days.
D) Keep dressing over T-tube dry.
Q2) To prevent complications in a patient with hepatitis who has been prescribed bedrest,the nurse would plan to:
A) Raise the knee gatch to prevent the patient from sliding down in bed.
B) Provide undisturbed periods of 6 hours to encourage rest.
C) Restrict fluids.
D) Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing every 2 hours.
Q3) The patient with ascites is scheduled for a LeVeen peritoneal-venous shunt.The patient asks why this needs to be done instead of the paracentesis.The nurse replies:
A) "It helps the kidneys retain needed sodium."
B) "It will decrease the need for analgesics."
C) "This procedure will prevent the loss of protein."
D) "The risk of infection is lessened with this procedure."
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Chapter 40: Urologic Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9217
Sample Questions
Q1) When the 16-year-old patient with acute glomerulonephritis complains of boredom with bedrest and asks when he can become more active,the nurse states that bedrest will continue until:
A) Dialysis starts
B) Antibiotic protocol is completed
C) Potassium levels are normal
D) Blood pressure drops to normal levels
Q2) The patient who has cystitis has been told to drink at least 30 ml for each kilogram of body weight.Her weight is 154 pounds.The nurse instructs the patient to drink:
A) 1500 ml/day
B) 2100 ml/day
C) 2700 ml/day
D) 3100 ml/day
Q3) The nurse is aware that if the kidney is adequately functioning,the osmolality of the urine will be:
A) Equal to the osmolality of the serum
B) Approximately one-half of the serum
C) In a ratio of 10:1 with the serum
D) Equal to the excretion of urea
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Connective Tissue Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9218
Sample Questions
Q1) The anonym CREST represents the five characteristic signs of progressive systemic sclerosis,which are: (Select all that apply.)
A) Calcinosis
B) Rash
C) Esophageal dysfunction
D) Sore joints
E) Telangiectasis
Q2) The nurse explains to a patient with rheumatoid arthritis that the drug,leflunomide (Arava)is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD),which will:
A) Retard the progress of the disease.
B) Builds new bone.
C) Decreases inflammation.
D) Increases flexibility.
Q3) To decrease osteoporosis,the nurse explains that women can benefit from ____________________ for 15 years after the onset of menopause.
Q4) The nurses assesses ischemic spots around the nail beds of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis and recognizes that these are a complication of medical diagnosis,Rheumatoid arthritis,related to______________.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Fractures
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9219
Sample Questions
Q1) A 78-year-old retired teacher with a history of osteoporosis has fallen in her bathroom and sustained a subcapital femoral fracture.She is scheduled for an open-reduction internal fixation (ORIF)procedure in the morning.The type of traction in which the patient will most likely to be placed is:
A) Bryant
B) Buck
C) Pelvic
D) Crutchfield tongs
Q2) The nurse clarifies that in a greenstick fracture,the:
A) Line of the fracture goes across the bone in right angles to the longitudinal axis.
B) Periosteum is not torn away from the bone.
C) Fracture is incomplete, and one side is bent.
D) Fracture occurred in one of the long bones of the body.
Q3) Because the patient has a compound fracture,the nurse should:
A) Limit narcotics for 8 hours after surgery.
B) Monitor the patient's respirations every hour.
C) Assess for pulses distal to the injury.
D) Verify that the patient is not allergic to sulfa.
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Chapter 43: Amputations
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9220
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that a thermographic finding of cool spots in a certain area indicates:
A) Increased blood flow
B) Decreased infection
C) Increased infection
D) Decreased blood flow
Q2) The nurse explains that the routine preoperative diagnostic tests for a patient anticipating a below-the-knee amputation are:
A) Pulse volume recording and white blood cell (WBC) count.
B) Cardiac catheterization and WBC count.
C) Pulse volume recording and x-ray images.
D) Thermography and cardiac catheterization.
Q3) Preoperative exercises for a patient undergoing a lower-extremity amputation include ____________________ training.
A) Upper body
B) Lower body
C) Upper thigh
D) Head and neck
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Chapter 44: Pituitary and Adrenal Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9221
Sample Questions
Q1) The care of a patient who underwent a hypophysectomy,during which the entire pituitary was removed,would include:
A) Maintaining strict intake and output fluids.
B) Keeping the patient flat in bed for the first 24 hours.
C) Withholding analgesics to assess the level of consciousness.
D) Providing mouth care with thorough cleansing of the oral cavity.
Q2) The patient inquires about the purpose of the laboratory test to measure the serum level of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).The nurse responds that the laboratory test will determine if the:
A) Pituitary gland is sending the correct message to the adrenal glands.
B) Thyroid gland is not stimulating the production of ACTH.
C) Adrenal glands are not responding to produce cortisol.
D) Androgen metabolites are low or borderline.
Q3) The nurse clarifies that the drug,octreotide (Sandostatin),is a treatment for acromegaly and will:
A) Reverse the effects of acromegaly.
B) Be given on a daily basis by injection.
C) Increase insulin secretion causing hypoglycemia.
D) Suppress the growth hormone.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9222
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse taking the blood pressure of a patient who had a total thyroidectomy 2 days earlier notes that the patient's hand goes into a carpopedal spasm; the nurse recognizes this movement as an indication of:
A) Hyperkalemia, called the Allen sign
B) Hypernatremia, called the Hogan sign
C) Hypocalcemia, called the Trousseau sign
D) Hypokalemia, called the Chvostek sign
Q2) The patient being treated for hyperparathyroidism is to receive calcitonin (Calcimar).Before administering this drug,the patient should be:
A) Assessed for hydration status
B) Evaluated for cardiac dysrhythmia
C) Tested for sensitivity
D) X-rayed for the presence of urinary calculi
Q3) Food such as soybeans,turnips and rutabagas can have an effect on persons with a thyroid disorder by:
A) Suppressing thyroid hormone
B) Decreasing the hypothermia of the person with hypothyroidism
C) Supplementing the diet of a person with hypothyroidism
D) Counteracting the effect of iodide therapy
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Chapter 46: Diabetes Mellitus and Hypoglycemia
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9223
Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient with type 2 diabetes says,"Why in the world are they looking at my hemoglobin? I thought my problem was with my blood sugar." The nurse responds that the level of hemoglobin A1c:
A) Shows how a high level of glucose can cause a significant drop in the hemoglobin level.
B) Shows what the glucose level has done during the last 3 months.
C) Indicates a true picture of the patient's nutritional state.
D) Reflects the effect of a high level of glucose on the ability to produce red blood cells (RBCs).
Q2) A patient who has been diagnosed with endogenous hypoglycemia most likely has:
A) Taken an overdose of hypoglycemic drugs.
B) Been following a very restricted fasting diet or is malnourished.
C) Excessive secretion of insulin or an increase in glucose metabolism.
D) Exercised unwittingly without replenishing needed fluids and nutrients.
Q3) The nurse reminds the patient with type I diabetes to rotate the insulin injection sites to prevent ___________________________.
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Chapter 47: Female Reproductive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9224
Sample Questions
Q1) A female student,seen in the campus clinic,states that she uses feminine hygiene douches every day and after intercourse.The best response from the nurse would be:
A) "Douching has been used as an effective means of birth control for years."
B) "Commercially prepared douches will neutralize the female vaginal tract."
C) "Douching should only be done when ordered by a physician or nurse practitioner."
D) "Douching protects the vaginal tract from microorganisms."
Q2) The nurse,collecting data on the reproductive system from a female patient,is told that the patient has a vaginal discharge that is cottage cheese-like in appearance.The nurse recognizes this as a common sign of:
A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B) Trichomonas vaginalis infection
C) Atrophic vaginitis
D) Candida albicans infection
Q3) After a hysterectomy,the nurse assessing for abnormal bleeding would:
A) Record the number of perineal pads used.
B) Assess vital signs every 8 hours.
C) Place the patient's bed in a high Fowler position.
D) Apply an abdominal binder.
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Chapter 48: Male Reproductive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9225
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse must be sensitive when performing the initial assessment on a man with a reproductive disorder and should use interview techniques that: (Select all that apply.)
A) Use open-ended questions.
B) Pin the patient down for truthful and specific information.
C) Leave sensitive questions until later in the interview.
D) Share her or his professional opinion.
E) Start most questions with "why."
Q2) The mother of a newborn with cryptorchidism asks if this condition will be permanent.The nurse's best response would be:
A) "Yes, but your child can develop normally with hormone replacement therapy."
B) "No, several medical and surgical remedies can be performed after your baby's first birthday."
C) "Yes, but the undescended testicle is still able to function in a normal manner."
D) "No, the process of sexual maturity will cause it to descend at puberty."
Q3) When a significant elevation in the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)level is noted on the laboratory report,the nurse is aware that this is a marker for ____________________ cancer.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9226
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that an antiviral drug commonly used to relieve symptoms of HSV is:
A) Tetracycline (Achromycin)
B) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
C) Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Q2) The nurse teaching a seminar on STIs points out that systemic (disseminated)gonorrhea may involve the: (Select all that apply.)
A) Heart
B) Eyes
C) Meninges
D) Skin
E) Joints
Q3) The nurse asks a patient to repeat the instructions to evaluate her knowledge about safe sex practices.The statement that indicates understanding is:
A) "Body massage would be considered safe."
B) "Mutual open-mouth kissing is safe."
C) "Vaginal intercourse with a properly used condom is safe."
D) "Anal sex with a condom made of latex is a safe sex practice."
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Skin Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9227
Sample Questions
Q1) When an 80-year-old patient comes to the emergency department with extreme pain and itching in the hip and leg and has herpetic vesicular lesions on the left hip,the nurse inquires about the exposure to:
A) HSV, type a
B) HSV, type b
C) Smallpox
D) Chickenpox
Q2) Displaying her hands,a patient asks,"Do you think my liver is OK? Look at all these liver spots!" The most appropriate response would be:
A) "The spots could mean something is wrong; I will make a note of it."
B) "The spots are normal aging changes and have nothing to do with your liver."
C) "Have you recently been exposed to hepatitis?"
D) "Don't worry about them. They will fade during the winter."
Q3) The sign or symptom that suggests that a patient with impaired skin integrity is developing a systemic infection is a:
A) Lesion on the patient's leg that is swollen and warm to the touch
B) Temperature that has risen to 101° F
C) Blood pressure that has risen from 126/84 to 130/86 mm Hg
D) Request by the patient for medication for severe itching
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Eye and Vision Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9228
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses an 80-year-old patient for age-related changes to the eye,which are: (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased tear production
B) Eyeball sunk deep in orbit
C) Hyperopia
D) Eye lashes diminished
E) Arcus senilis
Q2) When the patient asks what electroretinography is supposed to measure,the nurse responds that:
A) A fluorescein dye is injected intravenously (IV) into a vein in the arm, and the retina is observed as the dye circulates.
B) Electrodes are placed on the scalp, each eye is stimulated, and retinal activity is assessed.
C) A small plunger is used to apply pressure on the sclera while the retinal vessels are evaluated.
D) A contact lens electrode is placed on the eye and exposed to flashes of light to evaluate the retinal response.
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Chapter 52: Ear and Hearing Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9229
Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing diagnosis that would be most appropriate for a patient having ear surgery is:
A) Disturbed body image
B) Risk for injury
C) Acute confusion
D) Ineffective protection
Q2) The young woman being admitted to the clinic service states that all the members of her family have been hard of hearing.She says her hearing loss became more pronounced when she was pregnant.You suspect that this patient has a type of hearing loss called:
A) Otosclerosis
B) Ototoxicity
C) Otalgia.
D) Otitis media
Q3) The 75-year-old patient has normal age-related changes in his ear that include all except:
A) Dry and wrinkled skin on the auricle
B) Otitis externa
C) Dry cerumen
D) Hair in the ear canal
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Chapter 53: Nose, Sinus, and Throat Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9230
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient who had a laryngectomy 3 months earlier returns to the physician's office with the complaint of increasing dyspnea.The nurse recognizes this complaint as an indication of the common postlaryngectomy complication of:
A) Hypertrophied stoma
B) Salivary fistula
C) Carotid blowout
D) Tracheal stenosis
Q2) The nurse taking a specimen from a throat culture would: (Choose the appropriate actions and place them in the correct sequence.)
A) Depress the tongue with a tongue blade.
B) Place the applicator in a culture tube.
C) Ask the patient to cough deeply.
D) Ask the patient to tilt the head back.
E) Swab the back of the throat and tonsils.
Q3) The portion of the internal nose that traps particles and kills bacteria is the:
A) Turbinates
B) Mucous membrane
C) Vestibular formations
D) Cilia
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Psychologic Responses to Illness
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9231
Sample Questions
Q1) The behavior that best exemplifies developmental activities in a 13-year-old teenager is:
A) Going out with a group of friends.
B) Reading an exciting book.
C) Volunteering for the local hospital.
D) Choosing a career.
Q2) The 24-year-old man scheduled for brain surgery in the morning constantly listens to music with his headphones on.The nurse recognizes this as a:
A) Conversion reaction
B) Conscious coping strategy
C) Defense mechanism of undoing
D) Reaction formation
Q3) The nurse is aware that a preschooler's experiences in a kindergarten can help with adapting to:
A) Sexual identity
B) Interpersonal conflicts
C) Independent decision making
D) Self direction
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Chapter 55: Psychiatric Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9232
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the difference between an illusion and a hallucination is that an illusion could be exemplified by: (Select all that apply.)
A) A car backfiring being perceived as gunfire.
B) The television news being perceived as someone talking to them.
C) Hearing God's voice directing you to drive your car off the road.
D) Seeing your dead spouse smile at you from a flower.
E) A spot on the wall being perceived as a spider.
Q2) Your coworker is noted to be very organized.However,you see that he is always making lists and citing the rules of the organization.He wants all his projects to be perfect and gets very upset when things happen that make him miss his deadlines.Your coworker is exhibiting signs of which personality disorder?
A) Avoidant
B) Obsessive-compulsive
C) Histrionic
D) Dependent
Q3) When the nurse asks questions like,"What day is today?" or "What time is it now?" the nurse is testing the patient's ____________________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 56: Substance-Related Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9233
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing diagnosis that is appropriate for a patient with substance abuse is:
A) Anxiety
B) Chronic or situational low self-esteem
C) Risk for delayed development
D) Acute confusion
Q2) The nurse explains that according to the intrapersonal theory,addiction is caused by early childhood rejection.These substance abusers are thought to have common characteristics that include:
A) Open-boundary approach to life that likes to party frequently
B) Attention seeking, need for control, and self-centeredness
C) Shyness and anxiety
D) Stress and eagerness to be a part of the in-group
Q3) During the taking of a medical history,the patient who is addicted to heroin reports he only uses the drug a few times a week.The nurse's best response that would disclose more precise information would be:
A) "OK. You only use heroin two times a week?"
B) "What do you mean when you say 'a few?'"
C) "Are you saying that in a week's time would you use heroin only two times?"
D) "Rate your weekly usage on a scale of 1 to 15."
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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