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Accounting Data Analytics introduces students to the integration of data analytics techniques within the accounting profession. This course covers fundamental concepts in data acquisition, cleaning, analysis, and visualization, equipping students to handle large datasets using modern accounting software and tools such as Excel, Tableau, and Python. Students will learn to apply data-driven approaches to solve real-world accounting problems, detect fraud, improve audit processes, and support decision-making. Emphasis is placed on leveraging analytics for financial statement analysis, internal controls evaluation, and risk assessment, preparing students for the evolving demands of accounting careers in a digital era.
Recommended Textbook
Accounting Information Systems 13th Edition by Marshall B. Romney
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obtaining financing from outside investors is part of which cycle?
A) the revenue cycle
B) the financing cycle
C) the production cycle
D) the payroll cycle
Answer: B
Q2) Information that is free from error or bias and accurately represents the events or activities of the organization is
A) relevant.
B) reliable.
C) verifiable.
D) timely.
Answer: B
Q3) Define an accounting information system.
Answer: An AIS is a system that collects,records,stores,and processes data to produce information for decision makers.
Q4) An accounting information system requires at least one computer.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Q1) When displayed on a monitor,data output is referred to as
A) reports.
B) hard copy.
C) soft copy.
D) financials.
Answer: C
Q2) A delivery of inventory from a vendor,with whom a credit line is already established,would be initially recorded in which type of accounting record and as part of what transaction cycle?
A) purchases journal; expenditure cycle
B) general journal; expenditure cycle
C) general ledger; expenditure cycle
D) cash disbursements journal; production cycle
Answer: A
Q3) ERP stands for
A) enterprise resource planning.
B) enterprise resource program.
C) enterprise reporting program.
D) none of the above
Answer: A

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Q1) Which is a true statement regarding the use of the manual processing symbol in a flowchart?
A) If a document is moved from one column to another, show the document only in the last column.
B) Each manual processing symbol should have an input and an output.
C) Do not connect two documents when moving from one column to another.
D) Use a manual processing symbol to indicate a document being filed.
Answer: B
Q2) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a connection to another part of the flowchart on the same page?
A) #4
B) #13
C) #14
D) #15
Answer: C
Q3) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires auditors to create flowcharts to document business processes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Ama Afolayan is chair of the National Owl Society,which maintains a database of all rare owls within the United States.One table will store the name,birth date,and other characteristics of all of the owls that have been registered.Each owl is uniquely identified by a registration number.A second table will contain data that link each owl to its male and female parents by means of their registration numbers.The entities described by the second table are
A) owls.
B) parental relationships.
C) registration numbers.
D) names.
Q2) Which of the following is false regarding a well-structured relational database?
A) A foreign key cannot be null.
B) A primary key cannot be null.
C) Every column in a row must be single valued.
D) All nonkey attributes in a table must describe a characteristic of the object identified by the primary key.
Q3) Describe a data dictionary.
Q4) Discuss the ways in which a well-designed DBMS will facilitate the three basic functions of creating,changing,and querying data.
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Q1) A 16 year old hacker was able to access the systems of U.S.Missile Command and accidently launched a small nuclear missile,which fortunately,failed to detonate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the actions recommended by the Treadway Commission to reduce the possibility of fraudulent financial reporting?
Q3) Identify the opportunity below that could enable an employee to commit fraud.
A) An employee's spouse loses her job.
B) An employee has a close association with suppliers or customers.
C) An employee suddenly acquires lots of credit cards.
D) An employee is upset that he was passed over for a promotion.
Q4) Which characteristic of the fraud triangle often stems from a lack of internal controls within an organization?
A) pressure
B) opportunity
C) rationalization
D) concealment
Q5) Describe two kinds of fraud.
Q6) What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of fraud perpetrators?
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Q1) On the weekends,Thuy Nguyen climbs into her Toyota Camry and drives around the city of Las Vegas looking for unprotected wireless networks to exploit.Thuy is most likely engaging in
A) snarfing.
B) Wi-pilfering.
C) war driving.
D) data slurping.
Q2) Recall that students used Facebook and VKontakte to identify Russian money laundering mules.What fraud case did these students help foil?
A) Zeus
B) Trident Breach
C) Nigerian Banking
D) InfraGard
Q3) Which of the following is not a human trait social engineers take advantage of to entice people to reveal information they should keep confidential?
A) compassion
B) sloth
C) sex Appeal
D) authority
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Q1) Which of the following is not a basic principle of the COSO ERM framework?
A) Companies are formed to create value for society.
B) Management must decide how much uncertainty it will accept to create value.
C) Uncertainty results in risk.
D) Uncertainty results in opportunity.
Q2) Why did COSO develop the Enterprise Risk Management framework?
A) to improve the audit process
B) to improve the risk management process
C) to improve the financial reporting process
D) to improve the manufacturing process
Q3) A(n)________ measures company progress by comparing actual performance to planned performance.
A) boundary system
B) diagnostic control system
C) interactive control system
D) internal control system
Q4) The COSO ERM contains all five of the same COSO-Integrated Framework components.
A)True
B)False

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Q5) Describe the differences between general and specific authorization.
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Q1) ________ is/are an example of a preventive control.
A) Emergency response teams
B) Encryption
C) Log analysis
D) Intrusion detection
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a corrective control?
A) physical access controls
B) encryption
C) intrusion detection
D) incident response teams
Q3) Perimeter defense is an example of which of the following preventive controls that are necessary to provide adequate security?
A) training
B) controlling physical access
C) controlling remote access
D) host and application hardening
Q4) Identify six physical access controls.
Q5) Describe the function of a computer incident response team (CIRT)and the steps that a CIRT should perform following a security incident.
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Q1) These are used to create digital signatures.
A) asymmetric encryption and hashing
B) hashing and packet filtering
C) packet filtering and encryption
D) symmetric encryption and hashing
Q2) In developing policies related to personal information about customers,Folding Squid Technologies adhered to the Trust Services framework.The standard applicable to these policies is
A) security.
B) confidentiality.
C) privacy.
D) availability.
Q3) Hjordis Marika took a call from a client."Hjordis,I need to interact online in real time with our affiliate in India,and I want to make sure that our communications aren't intercepted.What do you suggest?" Hjordis responded,"The best solution is to implement
A) a virtual private network."
B) multifactor authentication."
C) a private cloud environment."
D) an asymmetric encryption system with digital signatures."
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Q1) Identify the statement below which is true.
A) Cloud computing is a control technique for system availability.
B) Cloud computing eliminates the need for backup of applications and data.
C) Cloud computing eliminates the need for companies to own their own software and servers.
D) Cloud computing refers to the practice of storing application files and backup data on satellites "in the clouds."
Q2) This determines the correctness of the logical relationship between two data items.
A) range check
B) reasonableness test
C) sign check
D) size check
Q3) Which of the following data entry controls would not be useful if you are recording the checkout of library books by members?
A) sequence check
B) prompting
C) validity check
D) concurrent update control
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Q1) Explain why the auditor's role in program development and acquisition should be limited.
Q2) A system that employs various types of advanced technology has more ________ risk than traditional batch processing.
A) control
B) detection
C) inherent
D) investing
Q3) An auditor manually calculates accumulated depreciation on a delivery van and compares her calculation with the accounting records.The auditor is performing
A) vouching.
B) confirmation.
C) reperformance.
D) analytical review.
Q4) Which type of work listed below is not typical of internal auditors?
A) operational and management audits
B) information system audits
C) financial statement audit
D) financial audit of accounting records
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Q1) In a revenue cycle with proper controls,the ________ who reports to the ________,is not involved in any cash handling activities.
A) accounts receivable clerk; treasurer
B) accounts receivable clerk; controller
C) cashier; controller
D) cashier; treasurer
Q2) When a customer pays off the balance on an invoice,the payment is credited to the ________ file.
A) customer master
B) sales transaction
C) cash receipts master
D) All of the above are correct.
Q3) The ________ normally triggers the customer payment recording process.
A) sales invoice
B) deposit slip
C) remittance advice
D) customer monthly statement
Q4) Explain how validity checks,completeness tests and reasonableness tests can be implemented to ensure accuracy of customer orders.
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Q1) The receiving clerk at Wattana Technologies examines incoming shipments and reconciles their contents with the relevant purchase orders.A receiving report is then sent to accounts receivable and the vendor's invoice is approved for payment.Which of the following would correct control weaknesses related to these activities?
A) Accounts payable should reconcile the purchase order and the receiving report.
B) The invoice should be approved for payment by the shipping clerk after the purchase order and receiving report are reconciled.
C) Invoices, purchase orders, and receiving reports should be reconciled by the receiving clerk.
D) Controls are adequate under the current system.
Q2) Under what conditions is MRP more suitable than JIT and vice versa?
Q3) The first major business activity in the expenditure cycle is
A) ordering inventory, supplies, or services.
B) a customer sale.
C) shipping goods to customers.
D) receiving goods from vendors.
Q4) Explain what is meant by the expenditure cycle as a "mirror image" of the revenue cycle.
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Q1) The threat of loss of data exposes the company to A) the loss of assets.
B) ineffective decision making.
C) inefficient manufacturing.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) A master production schedule is used to develop detailed
A) timetables of daily production and determine raw material needs.
B) reports on daily production and material usage.
C) daily reports on direct labor needs.
D) inventory charts.
Q3) The expenses associated with the use of clean rooms in the production of computer hard drives are ________ costs.
A) prevention
B) inspection
C) internal failure
D) external failure
Q4) ERP systems make it easier for an organization to implement an activity based costing approach.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following documents would be likely to yield the greatest cost saving by converting from paper to electronic?
A) payroll register
B) earnings statement
C) deduction register
D) time card
Q2) Direct deposit of employee paychecks is one way an organization can improve efficiency and reduce payroll-processing costs.Which statement regarding direct deposit is false?
A) The cashier does not authorize the transfer of funds from the organization's checking account to a payroll checking account.
B) The cashier does not have to sign employee paychecks.
C) Employees who are part of a direct deposit program receive a copy of their paycheck indicating the amount deposited.
D) Employees who are part of a direct deposit program receive an earnings statement on payday rather than a paper check.
Q3) Describe the basic activities in an HRM/payroll cycle.
Q4) Why are accurate cumulative earnings records important?
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Q1) Not all journal entries affect cash flow.Adjusting entries that reflect events that have already occurred,but have no effect on cash,are classified as A) accruals.
B) deferrals.
C) revaluations.
D) corrections.
Q2) Periodic account reconciliations are a control that can be used to reduce the risk of employees creating unauthorized adjusting entries.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The operating budget
A) compares estimated cash flows from operations with planned expenditures.
B) shows cash inflows and outflows for each capital project.
C) depicts planned revenues and expenditures for each organizational unit.
D) is used to plan for the purchase and retirement of property, plant, and equipment.
Q4) What is responsibility accounting?
Q5) How is an audit trail used in the general ledger and reporting system?
Q6) Discuss the value and role of budgets as managerial reports.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about REA modeling and REA diagrams is false?
A) REA is an acronym for Resources, Entities, and Agents.
B) REA data modeling does not include traditional accounting elements such as ledgers, chart of accounts, debits and credits.
C) REA data modeling could be referred to as an events-based model.
D) REA diagrams must include at least two activities, which together represent a give-get economic exchange.
Q2) Assume that you are looking at a REA diagram that depicts only one event.Which of the following must be on the REA diagram?
A) an external agent
B) an internal agent
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Q3) Identify the statement below that is false with respect to cardinalities.
A) Cardinalities describe the nature of the relationship between two entities.
B) No universal standard exists for representing information about cardinalities in REA diagrams.
C) The minimum cardinality can be zero or one.
D) The maximum cardinality can be zero, one, or many.
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Q1) In a relational database,which of the following attributes would typically be represented by a foreign key in the table that stores data about a Receive Inventory entity?
A) Purchase order number
B) Payment terms
C) Product code
D) Date
Q2) In a relational database,which of the following attributes would typically be included in the table that stores data about the Vendor entity?
A) Invoice number
B) Outstanding balance
C) Product code
D) Inventory
Q3) The primary key for M:N relationship tables
A) is a single attribute.
B) always consists of two attributes.
C) is the primary key of the most important entity linked to that relationship.
D) does not exist. Many-to-many relationship tables only use foreign keys.
Q4) Explain the five rules for drawing integrated REA diagrams.
Q5) Explain a completeness check.
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Q1) Supplier number is least likely to be a foreign key in
A) Order Inventory.
B) Disburse Cash.
C) Receive Inventory.
D) Warehouse.
Q2) The temporal difference between Request Inventory and Order Inventory is reflected by the
A) Request Inventory minimum cardinality of 1.
B) Request Inventory maximum of N.
C) Order Inventory maximum of N.
D) Order Inventory minimum of 0.
Q3) Sales order number is most likely to be a primary key in which entity of an expanded revenue cycle REA diagram?
A) Call on Customers
B) Fill Customer Order
C) Ship Order
D) Take Customer Order
Q4) Describe the relationships between Recruiting event and Skills,and between Recruiting event and Job Applicants.
Q5) Why might an REA diagram show relationships between resources and agents?
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Q1) An effective project development team consists of
A) systems analysts.
B) accountants.
C) users.
D) all of the above
Q2) The ________ is the basic building block of information systems planning.
A) master plan
B) project development plan
C) systems analysis plan
D) implementation plan
Q3) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of the four different methods for gathering data during a systems survey.
Q4) External parties may need to participate in an organization's systems development and analysis process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the individuals who make up the project development team and describe the team's purpose.
Q6) Describe the physical design stage of the systems development life cycle.
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Q1) Which approach systems acquisition is generally costly and labor-intensive?
A) canned software
B) custom software
C) modified software
D) turnkey software
Q2) Which or the following does not typically cause outsourcing failures?
A) lukewarm company buy-in
B) blind imitation of competitors
C) ill-defined outsourcing agreements
D) downsizing
Q3) Discuss how an organization can develop custom software.
Q4) Describe prototyping and identify when prototyping is appropriate.Identify the steps involved in prototyping.Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of prototyping.
Q5) When canned software is used for systems acquisition,the conceptual design phase of the SDLC
A) becomes a make-or-buy decision.
B) is combined with the physical design phase.
C) is eliminated.
D) is unchanged.
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Q1) Flowcharts,record layouts,and decision tables are all often part of
A) determining user needs.
B) documenting the program.
C) testing the program.
D) training program users.
Q2) Describe structured programming.
Q3) Acceptance tests involve
A) managers observing the operation of the system by "walking through" the IT department.
B) processing hypothetical data that are designed to identify errors in the system.
C) processing copies of real transactions in order to determine whether or not the system meets requirements.
D) a thorough review of the procedures and program logic of the system.
Q4) Describe at least four considerations during controls design.
Q5) A(n)________ system test uses copies of real transaction and file records.
A) acceptance test
B) debugging test
C) test data processing
D) walk-through
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