Abnormal Psychology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Abnormal Psychology explores the nature, causes, and treatment of psychological disorders. This course examines patterns of behavior, thought, and emotion considered outside the norm, looking closely at how mental illnesses are classified, diagnosed, and understood within various theoretical frameworks. Students will study major psychological disorders, including anxiety, mood, psychotic, and personality disorders, as well as contemporary approaches to assessment and intervention. Emphasis is placed on ethical issues, cultural context, and current research trends in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Psychology 4th Edition by Joanna
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30 Chapters
927 Verified Questions
927 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2037
Chapter 1: A: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40501
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the case of R.v.Mohan (1994)so important to forensic psychologists?
A)It stressed the duty to protect a third party.
B)It dealt with the admissibility of expert evidence.
C)It established guidelines for reporting child abuse.
D)It highlighted the importance of client confidentiality.
E)It dealt with the issue of racial segregation.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is the correct pairing of psychologist to their work?
A)Munsterberg - On the Witness Stand
B)Varendonck - La Suggestibilite
C)Von Schrenck-Notzing - Measurements of Accuracy of Recollection
D)Cattell - retroactive memory falsification
E)Wigmore - Kriminal Psychologie
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 1: B: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40502
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the four specific Daubert criteria defined by the U.S.Supreme Court that determine when scientific evidence is considered reliable?
Answer: 1.The research has been peer reviewed.
2.The research is tes (i.e.,falsifiable through experimentation).
3.The research has a recognized rate of error.
4.The research adheres to professional standards.
Q2) What is the "general acceptance test"? What is the main criticism associated with this test?
Answer: -The general acceptance test is a standard for accepting expert testimony.It states that expert testimony will be admissible in court if the basis of the testimony is generally accepted within the scientific community in which it belongs.
-This test formed the basis for admissibility decisions for many years in the United States; however,the major criticism associated with it comes from the vagueness of terms such as "general acceptance" and "the particular field in which it belongs" and whether judges are able to appropriately determine the scope of these terms.
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4
Chapter 2: A: Police Psychology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40503
Sample Questions
Q1) Jerome is an African Canadian male living in downtown Sudbury.He gets pulled over by the police in a traffic stop even though he has not violated the law and was doing the speed limit.Jerome's experience reflects the presence of _____________ in policing.
A)discretion
B)racial profiling
C)simulation exercises
D)selection procedures
E)ticketing quotas
Answer: B
Q2) In the context of police selection,what is meant by KSA?
A)KSA is a physical ability test taken by all potential officers.
B)KSA refers to sets of characteristics that define a "good" police officer.
C)KSA is a police selection agency.
D)KSA refers to characteristics that are undesirable in a potential police officer.
E)KSA refers to an instrument that is used to assess psychopathology.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: B: Police Psychology
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40504
Sample Questions
Q1) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary,as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).
Q2) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance.What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.
Q3) Define "police discretion" and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.
Q4) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
Q5) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.
Q6) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
Q7) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Hall's (2008)study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?
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Chapter 3: A: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40505
Sample Questions
Q1) The Paul Ingram case was used in your text as an example of what type of confession?
A)Coerced-internalized false confession
B)Voluntary false confession
C)Disputed confession
D)Coerced-compliant false confession
E)Retracted confession
Q2) Detective Johnson is trying to predict an offender's background characteristics based on comparing that offender's crimes with similar crimes committed by other,known offenders.Det.Johnson is engaging in what type of profiling?
A)Deductive criminal profiling
B)Demographic profiling
C)Geographic profiling
D)Inductive criminal profiling
E)Investigative model profiling
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Chapter 3: B: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40506
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the interrogation model that is most often taught to police officers in North America? Briefly describe the model's three stages.
Q2) Distinguish between deductive criminal profiling and inductive criminal profiling.Identify a problem associated with each method.
Q3) Define criminal profiling in general terms and provide four main goals of criminal profiling.
Q4) What does the acronym for the PEACE model of interrogation stand for? Briefly describe the primary goal of this model,and provide one example of how Canadian police officers are not adhering o the principles advocated by the PEACE model.
Q5) List the two primary goals of a police interrogation.In addition,describe the three types of false confessions that can result from North American-style police interrogation techniques,making it very clear how they differ from one another.
Q6) Distinguish between a retracted confession and a disputed confession.
Q7) State four general criticisms of criminal profiling.
Q8) Define what is meant by minimization and maximization techniques and provide one example of each technique.
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Chapter 4: A: Deception
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40507
Sample Questions
Q1) Methods of detecting deception in Ancient China required suspects to do which of the following tasks?
A)Putting their hand on a hot iron
B)Walking across hot coals
C)Putting their arm in a cauldron of boiling water
D)Chewing dry rice powder
E)Chewing a piece of bread
Q2) You have been falsely accused of stealing a laptop computer from a professor's office.The police have requested that you take a polygraph test to prove your innocence.In light of your knowledge of the types of errors most likely to be made by different types of polygraph exams,you agree to do so only if the examiner uses the:
A)comparison question test
B)relevant/irrelevant test
C)zone of comparison format of scoring
D)statement validity procedure
E)concealed information test
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9
Chapter 4: B: Deception
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40508
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the Concealed Information Test (CIT),including its purpose and general form.Also provide several criticisms or limitations of the CIT and why it isn't used as much as the CQT.
Q2) Give two explanations for poor performance in deception detection.
Q3) Rogers (1990)describes three explanatory models of malingering.Name and define these three models.Which model is most highly supported?
Q4) What are the eight strategies that a person may employ when malingering identified by the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)?
Q5) Describe the four phases of a Comparison Question Test (CQT).Make sure you identify the purpose of each phase.
Q6) Your text identifies several cues of malingered psychosis.Identify three cues associated with hallucinations and three cues associated with delusions.
Q7) According to your text,what are the two key components of malingering? List four reasons why an individual might be motivated to malinger.
Q8) Describe how event-related brain potentials (ERPs)have been used to detect deception.
Q9) Provide four criticisms of the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
Page 10
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Chapter 5: A: Eyewitness Testimony
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40509
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered a system variable in eyewitness research?
A)whether the witness is intoxicated at the time of the offence
B)the age of the witness
C)the type of weapon used by the culprit
D)the interview procedure used by the police officer
E)the time at which the crime was committed
Q2) Which of the following explanations for the cross-race effect is most supported by empirical research?
A)the prejudice hypothesis
B)the cue-utilization hypothesis
C)the unusualness hypothesis
D)the interracial contact hypothesis
E)the physiognomic homogeneity hypothesis
Q3) What is the most common research method for studying eyewitness issues?
A)field study
B)archival research
C)laboratory simulation study
D)recall study
E)recognition study
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Chapter 5: B: Eyewitness Testimony
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40510
Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between a simultaneous and a sequential lineup.
Q2) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Q3) Define the misinformation effect within the context of eyewitness research.In addition,fully describe the three most common explanations for this effect
Q4) In general terms,how does the enhanced cognitive interview differ from the original cognitive interview? Name and define three of the five techniques specific to the enhanced cognitive interview.
Q5) Distinguish between a system variable and an estimator variable as related to eyewitness research.Provide one example of each.
Q6) Describe the three major types of biases that have been found to increase false positives in lineup identifications.
Q7) What is the cross-race effect? Describe the three common explanations as to why the cross-race effect occurs.
Q8) Distinguish between the cue-utilization hypothesis and the unusualness hypothesis as explanations for the weapon focus effect.
Q9) List the five reasons why photo lineups are more common than live lineups.
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Chapter 6: A: Child Victims and Witnesses
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40511
Sample Questions
Q1) The theory that explains children's suggestibility by exploring the social characteristics of the interview process itself is called:
A)cognitive influence
B)social domination
C)social compliance
D)social suggestibility
E)adult compliance
Q2) In the study conducted by Pozzulo and Lindsay (1998),it was found that,in contrast to a simultaneous lineup,a sequential lineup tended to __________ the gap for __________ between children and adults.
A)decrease/false positives
B)decrease/false negatives
C)increase/false positives
D)increase/false negatives
E)not affect/false positives
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Chapter 6: B: Child Victims and Witnesses
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40512
Sample Questions
Q1) What is Criterion-Based Content Analysis (CBCA)? Specify the assumption that underlies the CBCA and identify two potential problems with this method.
Q2) List four risk factors associated with physical abuse and four risk factors associated with sexual abuse.
Q3) A number of changes were made to improve courtroom accommodations for child witnesses in Canada.List four of these changes.
Q4) Name and briefly describe the two directions that have been taken to understand children's greater propensity toward suggestibility when recalling events (Bruck & Ceci,1999).
Q5) Distinguish between the incidence and the prevalence of child maltreatment.Provide an example of each.
Q6) Describe the four categories of child maltreatment defined by the Child Maltreatment Section (CMS)of Health Canada.
Q7) What is the narrative elaboration interview procedure? Describe how this procedure works and what the research on this procedure suggests in terms of its usefulness in interviewing children?
Q8) Name and briefly explain the first five steps of the Step-Wise Interview.
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Chapter 7: A: Juries: Fact Finders
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40513
Sample Questions
Q1) In most Canadian trials,the defence and Crown are each allowed ___ peremptory challenges.
A)6
B)10
C)12
D)16
E)20
Q2) Which one of the following jurors would likely be most persuasive based on their characteristics?
A)Tara,a short,highly agreeable,and extroverted female.
B)Marcus,a tall,extroverted male with high levels of moral reasoning
C)Todd,an introverted male who is very conscientious and shows high moral reasoning.
D)Felicity,an extroverted female who scores high on openness to experience.
E)Josh,an agreeable,conscientious,extrovert.
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Chapter 7: B: Juries: Fact Finders
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40514
Sample Questions
Q1) List four proposed reforms for judges' instructions aimed at facilitating juror understanding.
Q2) Besides the method of placing a ban on pretrial publicity,name and explain two other methods that courts can employ to increase the likelihood of jury impartiality.
Q3) In the context of jury decision making,distinguish between the terms polarization,leniency bias,and black sheep effect.
Q4) In the context of jury decision making,identify two defendant characteristics that are most likely to result in guilty verdicts,and briefly explain each.
Q5) List four functions of a jury.
Q6) List one advantage and one disadvantage of using simulation studies to investigate jury decision making.Briefly outline a simulation study to study the effects of victim characteristics in a sexual assault case on juror decision making.Make sure you clearly identify your independent variables (and/or person characteristics)and dependent variables.
Q7) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
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Page 16
Chapter 8: A: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40515
Sample Questions
Q1) The Canadian court case associated with defining the two types of automatism is:
A)R.v.Stone
B)R.v.Parks
C)R.v.Swain
D)R.v.McNaughton
E)none of the above
Q2) The issue of a defendant's fitness may be raised:
A)at the beginning of the trial
B)when entering a plea
C)when a defendant chooses not to be represented by counsel
D)during sentencing
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the main objectives of mental health courts?
A)To ensure treatment for a defendant's mental disorders
B)To facilitate evaluation of a defendant's fitness to stand trial
C)To ensure that mentally disordered offenders are given a balance of treatment and punishment
D)To divert accused who have been charged with minor offences
E)To decrease the cycle of repeat offending in mentally disordered offenders
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Page 17
Chapter 8: B: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40516
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the four main objectives of mental health courts?
Q2) You have been hired by a Canadian lawyer to assess a defendant for competency to stand trial.As a first step,you have decided to conduct a competency screener.Describe the screener that you will use and justify your choice.
Q3) Distinguish between noninsane automatism and insane automatism.Discuss what dispositions are associated with each,and what circumstances have been recognized by Canadian courts in cases of noninsane automatism.
Q4) Peter is on trial for sexual assault.He claims he was in a blackout state due to consumption of two bottles of whisky.Based on the information in your text on intoxication and automatism,what type of disposition would Peter most likely get from a judge and why?
Q5) Name two of the three changes to legislation resulting from Brian's Law (Bill 68).
Q6) What is the name of the current insanity defence in Canada? According to the Canadian Criminal Code,what are the criteria for insanity? Assuming you are the Crown prosecutor,identify two situations in which you may raise the issue of insanity.
Q7) What changes to how defendants found NCRMD are dealt with were proposed in Bill C-54 early in 2013?
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Chapter 9: A: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40517
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding sentencing disparity in Canada?
A)So far,no methods have been proposed to reduce sentencing disparity.
B)Sentencing disparity ultimately exists because judges are allowed a great deal of discretion when making sentencing decisions.
C)Laboratory-based studies do not show evidence of sentencing disparity.
D)Official statistics cannot be used to study sentencing disparity in Canada.
E)All of the above statements are true.
Q2) Mason was convicted of assault with a weapon,and has served a portion of his time in jail.He is being granted statutory release,meaning that he has served ___________ of his sentence.
A)one-quarter
B)one-third
C)half
D)two-thirds
E)three-quarters
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Chapter 9: B: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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9 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40518
Sample Questions
Q1) Provide at least six of the factors that are available to be considered when the Parole Board of Canada assesses risk and parole options.
Q2) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
Q3) Many purposes of sentencing exist,including specific and general deterrence.State four additional purposes of sentencing.
Q4) What is the Aboriginal overrepresentation problem in Canadian corrections? What factors contribute to this overrepresentation,and what measures have been taken in Canada to reduce this problem?
Q5) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
Q6) Discuss the difference in success rates and parole failures across offenders released on day and full parole relative to those granted statutory release.
Q7) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity? List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
Q8) Identify and describe the five main sentencing options utilized in Canada.
Q9) Identify and describe the four major types of parole in Canada.
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Chapter 10: A: Risk Assessment
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40519
Sample Questions
Q1) In Zamble and Quinsey's coping-relapse model,under which category or level would traits such as psychopathy and emotional reactivity belong?
A)cognitive and emotional appraisal
B)individual influences
C)environmental trigger
D)available response mechanisms
E)criminal behaviour
Q2) Approximately ________ of female offenders report experiencing severe physical abuse as a child or adolescent.
A)10%
B)40%
C)50%
D)70%
E)95%
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Page 21
Chapter 10: B: Risk Assessment
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is actuarial risk assessment? Provide two advantages and two disadvantages associated with this method.What new method of risk assessment was developed in an attempt to address certain limitations associated with the actuarial approach?
Q2) What is desistance and why is age related to declines in criminal offending? What interpersonal moderators also have been proposed to aid in the transition between criminal offending and desistance?
Q3) Within the context of violence prediction,distinguish between a static risk factor,a dynamic risk factor,and a protective factor.Provide an example of each.
Q4) What are the three types of judgment errors or biases that clinicians make when assessing risk?
Q5) Risk assessment is associated with both correct and incorrect prediction outcomes.Construct a 2 × 2 illustrating four possible prediction outcomes in risk assessment for violence.Identify who suffers the consequences of each decision error.
Q6) Name and define the two components of the risk assessment process.
Q7) Describe the coping-relapse model of criminal recidivism proposed by Zamble and Quinsey (1997),including the four levels of the model that can lead to criminal behaviour.
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Page 22
Chapter 11: A: Psychopaths
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40521
Sample Questions
Q1) A recent study on sex differences in psychopathic traits by Neumann,Schmitt,Carter,Embley,and Hare (2012)found:
A)that lifestyle traits (i.e.,risk-taking)are more prevalent than antisocial traits (i.e.,violence)in general
B)that females score higher on lifestyle traits and men score higher on antisocial traits
C)that males score higher on lifestyle traits and females score higher on antisocial traits
D)that antisocial traits (i.e.,violence)are more prevalent than lifestyle traits (i.e.,risk-taking)in general
E)that men and women do not score differently across psychopathic trait categories and are both equally likely to be psychopathic.
Q2) Psychopaths have been called:
A)exceptional predators
B)interpersonal predators
C)intraspecies predators
D)predatory species
E)special predatory
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Chapter 11: B: Psychopaths
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40522
Sample Questions
Q1) Define psychopathy,Antisocial Personality Disorder,and sociopathy and give three examples of differences between these disorders.
Q2) Describe the cognitive and affective models of psychopathy in terms of the two predominant theories about the development of psychopathy.
Q3) Discuss several of the reservations that have been raised concerning applying the label of psychopath to children and adults,and what research has found regarding these concerns.
Q4) Explain how psychopaths differ from nonpsychopaths and more specifically how psychopaths' use of violence differs from nonpychopathic offenders.
Q5) List the five recommendations identified by Quayle (2008)to use when interviewing a psychopathic suspect.
Q6) Explain why most researchers believe psychopaths cannot be treated.Describe one well-known study that lends support for this notion.
Q7) Name and describe different study designs used involving twins and siblings when trying to isolate the effect of genes or environment on psychopathic traits.
Q8) Identify the ten myths associated with psychopathy.
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Chapter 12: A: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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55 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40523
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding multisystemic therapy (MST)with young offenders?
A)The youth's case manager is accessible 24 hours a day,7 days a week.
B)Treatment outcome studies show that MST is more effective than the usual services available in Ontario.
C)MST proposes that delinquency is multi-determined and that treatment should occur in institutions.
D)MST focuses solely on the youth's relationship with his/her primary caregiver.
E)all of the above
Q2) The Youth Criminal Justice Act introduced a new form of custodial sentence called:
A)Intensive Rehabilitative Custody and Supervision Order
B)Youth Forensic Community Treatment Programs
C)Extrajudicial Sentence Program
D)Reintegrative Secure and Community Custody Order
E)Graduated Sentencing Program
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25
Chapter 12: B: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40524
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the Offender Risk Assessment and Management System,including the two scales that are used within this system to assess risk with young offenders.
Q2) Name the three childhood psychiatric disorders that occur with frequency in young offenders.Provide two characteristics of each.
Q3) Describe primary,secondary,and tertiary intervention strategies.Describe an example of each strategy.
Q4) Three childhood psychiatric diagnoses occur with some frequency in young offenders.Identify the three disorders,describe each,and discuss the relationship between these disorders (i.e.,is diagnosis with one type likely to result in the diagnosis with another?).
Q5) What is the relationship between youth gang involvement and delinquency? Discuss using research to back up your points.
Q6) Define "resilient" and identify four ways that protective factors are effective.
Q7) Provide three criticisms of the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA).
Q8) Describe the difference between internalizing problems and externalizing problems.Provide examples of each and identify which is more difficult to treat.
Q9) State three main objectives of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
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Chapter 13: A: Intimate Partner Violence
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40525
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of male batterer is least likely to report negative attitudes supportive of violence?
A)the family-only batterer
B)the dysphoric/borderline batterer
C)the generally violent/antisocial batterer
D)the psychopathic batterer
E)the antisocial batterer
Q2) According to the meta-analysis study of the Conflict Tactics Scale by Archer (2002):
A)men engage in higher rates of severe physical violence than women
B)in university student samples,males and females commit equal amounts of violence
C)victimized males are more likely to underreport abuse than victimized females
D)respondents report fewer violent acts than their partners
E)all of the above
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Chapter 13: B: Intimate Partner Violence
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40526
Sample Questions
Q1) Name and briefly describe the three-phase cycle of abuse proposed by Lenore Walker (1979).Discuss what happens at each phase.
Q2) Identify and explain the two most common forms of intervention for male batterers.According to the meta-analysis conducted by Babcock,Green,and Robie (2004),which is the most effective in terms of recidivism?
Q3) Name and briefly describe the three components included in Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory of intimate violence.
Q4) Name and briefly describe the levels that influence intimate violence in the nested ecological model proposed by Dutton (1995).Provide one example for each level.
Q5) The Conflict Tactics Scale (CTS; Straus,1979)and the updated CTS2 (Straus et al.,1996),a scale used to measure domestic assault,has been criticized on many grounds.List the four criticisms specified in your text.
Q6) Kropp,Hart,and Lyon (2002)have formulated a typology that classifies stalkers into four categories based on their relationships with their victims.Name and describe the key characteristics of all four categories.
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Chapter 14: A: Sexual Offenders
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40527
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is one of the features of regressed child molesters?
A)Their sexual interest in children begins in adulthood.
B)Their offences are planned.
C)Male children are their primary targets.
D)They are emotionally immature.
E)They often feel no remorse over their behaviour.
Q2) _____________ refers to a group of symptoms or behaviours that are frequent after-effects of having been raped.
A)Post-traumatic stress disorder
B)Acute psychosis
C)Chronic reactivity
D)Rape trauma syndrome
E)Victimization syndrome
Q3) Which of the following is/are common consequence(s)of rape?
A)sexual problems
B)anxiety
C)depression
D)self-blame
E)all of the above
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Page 29
Chapter 14: B: Sexual Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the primary method used to assess deviant sexual interests,as well as two approaches used to treat deviant sexual interests.
Q2) List the four types of female sexual offenders identified by Atkinson (1996).Describe each in terms of their offending behaviour and their backgrounds.
Q3) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.
Q4) Describe the two main components of relapse prevention programs aimed at sexual offenders.In addition,distinguish between the terms lapse,relapse,and abstinence violation effect in the context of relapse prevention programs.
Q5) Identify and discuss the five main myths associated with sexual assault discussed in your text,including facts that challenge these false beliefs.
Q6) Groth (1979)proposed a threefold rapist typology.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's goals,the amount of force used,and the primary motivations.
Q7) According to Finkelhor's (1984)theory of child molesting,what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur?
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Page 30
Chapter 15: A: Homicidal Offenders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40529
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the treatment target areas incorporated into programs offered to violent offenders?
A)Employment and economic planning
B)Anger management
C)Social skills
D)Emotion management
E)Self-regulation
Q2) _________________ is a term which describes the act of a child being killed by their own parents.
A)Uxoricide
B)Mariticide
C)Filicide
D)Femicide
E)Reactive aggression
Q3) According to social learning theorists,aggressive behaviour is:
A)the product of a disturbed personality
B)the product of negative childhood experiences
C)the product of learning
D)the product of childhood physical abuse
E)the product of evolution
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Chapter 15: B: Homicidal Offenders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40530
Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide.
Q2) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
Q3) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers,with one being a hedonistic serial murderer.What motivates a hedonistic serial murderer? List the three subtypes of the hedonistic serial murderer and distinguish between them.
Q4) What are the four main types of homicide recognized by Canadian criminal law? Discuss the features of each including the definitions and penalties.
Q5) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM),including the inputs,the internal states they influence,and behavioural outcomes.
Q6) List four of the six key differences that were identified by Hickey (2006)between female and male serial murderers.
Q7) Identify the two types of familicide murderers described by Wilson,Daly,and Daniele (1995),and discuss the features of both.
Q8) Identify the three categories of juvenile homicide offenders outlined by Cornell,Benedek,and Benedek (1987)and describe the circumstances of their offending.Which type is the most common among youth killers?
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