Abnormal Psychology Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Abnormal Psychology explores the scientific study of psychological disorders, including their origins, symptoms, classification, and treatment. The course covers key concepts such as the definition of abnormality, approaches to diagnosis, and major theoretical perspectives including biological, psychological, and sociocultural models. Students will examine specific disorders, such as anxiety, mood, psychotic, and personality disorders, and consider the impact of stigma, cultural factors, and current research trends on mental health. Through case studies and critical analysis, students will develop an understanding of the complexities involved in identifying and treating abnormal behavior.
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Criminal Behavior A Psychological Approach 10th Edition by Curtis R. Bartol
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Criminal Behavior
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Q1) Social control theorists contend that crime occurs when:
A) an individual's ties to the conventional order are weak.
B) an individual's ties to normative standards are nonexistent.
C) an individual behaves indiscriminately.
D) both a and b.
E) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is least consistent with the developmental approach in the study of crime?
A) Searching for factors that place a child at risk of engaging in serious delinquency
B) Identifying the age of onset of antisocial behavior
C) Searching for protective factors in a child's life
D) Obtaining a child's IQ score as he or she enters adolescence
E) Examining a child's pre-school experiences.
Answer: D
Q3) Criminology is the psychological study of crime.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Developmental Risk Factors
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Q1) Research has shown that children who are both physically aggressive and _____ have a high probability of becoming serious delinquents.
A) living in poverty
B) emotionally aggressive
C) socially rejected by peers
D) struggling in school
E) living in a single parent home
Answer: C
Q2) Snyder and Patterson's (1987) enmeshed parenting style is similar to Baumrind's:
A) laissez -faire style.
B) lax style.
C) authoritarian style.
D) neglecting style.
E) authoritative style.
Answer: C
Q3) The cause of ADHD is unknown.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Biological Factors
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Q1) Research has suggested that which brain chemical may play a significant role in aggression and violence?
A) Serotonin
B) Epinephrine
C) Dopamine
D) Insulin
E) Cortisol
Answer: A
Q2) The research on environmental risk factors during infancy indicates that:
A) lead exposure may be linked to antisocial behavior.
B) trans fats are closely associated with delinquent behavior.
C) junk foods often lead to persistent and violent criminal behavior.
D) an organic diet can greatly reduce likelihood of antisocial behavior.
E) high sugar intake before age two is linked to criminal behavior.
Answer: A
Q3) The amygdala is located in the frontal lobe of the human brain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Learning and Situational
Factors
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Q1) Which term refers to the idea that all complex behavior can be broken down into simple stimulus-response behavior?
A) Nature-nurture interface
B) Deindividuation
C) Mutual interaction
D) Extinction
E) Reductionism
Q2) According to the text, in order to fully understand criminal behavior, it is important to regard all individuals as passive participants in their environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In his recent theory, Bandura states that before people can engage in behavior that violates their moral principles they must:
A) learn the techniques of that behavior.
B) believe that the reward outweighs the punishment.
C) reject their moral principles.
D) accept a higher authority.
E) disengage from their moral principles.
Q4) What is "frustration-induced criminality?" Provide an illustration.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Human Aggression and Violence
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Q1) During early stages of frustration or general arousal, cognitive processes appear to have little influence beyond the immediate appraisal that the situation is aversive. This description outlines a stage of what model of aggression and violence?
A) Cognitive expectancy theory
B) The neo-frustration-aggression model
C) The cognitive neoassociation model
D) The weapons effect model
E) The cognitive scripts model
Q2) If you were a TV producer and wanted an argument to support your position of the value of violence on television, you would probably rely on which of the following theoretical positions?
A) Psychoanalytic or psychodynamic.
B) Social learning.
C) Frustration-aggression.
D) Behaviorism.
E) Modeling.
Q3) Territoriality is a central concept in Konrad Lorenz's theory of aggression.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Juvenile Delinquency
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Q1) Define (1) legal delinquency, (2) social delinquency, and (3) psychological delinquency.
Q2) Which statement is most accurate about juvenile crime?
A) Juvenile crime has generally decreased since the mid 1990s.
B) The juvenile crime rate has been steadily increasing since 1990.
C) Compared to adults, juveniles are responsible for disproportionately higher number of violent crimes.
D) Juveniles are more likely to be perpetrators rather than victims of violent crime.
E) The majority of juvenile offenders are arrested and convicted.
Q3) Describe the characteristics of Multisystemic therapy. Summarize the research findings about the program's success.
Q4) Female delinquency has steadily decreased since 1995.
A)True B)False
Q5) There is good evidence that most serious, persistent delinquency and crime patterns usually begin early and worsen with age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Criminal Psychopathy
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Q1) Compare and contrast the terms sociopath and psychopath.
Q2) Research indicates that the recidivism rate associated with psychopaths is very high.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The core behavioral dimension that reflects the interpersonal and emotional components, such as callousness and manipulation of others, is referred to as psychopathic factor I.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define each of the following as proposed by Hare: Primary psychopath; secondary psychopath; dyssocial psychopath; criminal psychopath.
Q5) The Psychopathy Checklist was specifically designed to identify:
A) secondary psychopaths.
B) potential psychopaths during childhood.
C) only those psychopaths without criminal tendencies.
D) only those psychopaths who engage in violent or sadistic acts.
E) psychopaths in male prison populations.
Q6) List and describe briefly the four hypothesized dimensions of psychopathy.
Page 9
Q7) What behavioral differences have been found between male and female psychopaths?
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Chapter 8: Crime and Mental Disorders
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Q1) The right and wrong test refers to which one of the following insanity defenses?
A) Magna Carta
B) The M'Naghten Rule
C) ALI/Brawner Rule
D) Insanity Defense Reform Act
E) The Durham Rule
Q2) In Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California (1974), the Supreme Court of California held that a psychotherapist has an obligation to use reasonable care to protect potential victims of a patient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What form of amnesia is the most widely used justification for an insanity defense or mitigation of criminal responsibility in the U.S. courts today?
A) Chronic organic amnesia
B) Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder
C) Wernicke's amnesia
D) Limited amnesia
E) Anxiolytic-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder
Q4) Briefly describe four legal standards for of insanity and their requirements.
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Chapter 9: Homicide, Assault, and Family Violence
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Q1) Males are more likely than female to perpetrate which act of family violence?
A) Munchausen Syndrome by proxy
B) Neonaticide
C) Elderly abuse
D) Filicide
E) Shaken baby syndrome
Q2) The weapon most commonly used in homicides in the U.S. is a knife.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Spousal and child abuse appears to occur primarily in economically disadvantaged families.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most frequently reported violent crime in the U.S. is:
A) homicide.
B) arson.
C) aggravated assault.
D) manslaughter.
E) rape.
Q5) List some of the factors that make the family so difficult to study.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Multiple Murder, School, and Workplace Violence
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Q1) In which type of crime scene is there evidence that the offender used planning and premeditation?
A) Reconstructive crime scene
B) Spontaneous crime scene
C) Mixed crime scene
D) Organized crime scene
E) Disorganized crime scene
Q2) The primary difference between staging and undoing is:
A) the relationship between offender and victim.
B) the reason behind the action.
C) the level of aggression involved in the crime.
D) the amount of clothing left on the victim
E) the placement of the victim's body.
Q3) The primary difference between what qualifies as serial murders and what qualifies as mass murders is:
A) premeditation.
B) the selection of victims.
C) a cooling-off period.
D) the number of victims.
E) the weapons used.
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Chapter 11: Psychology of Terrorism
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Q1) When a person lacks motivation to act after exposure to unpleasant events over which he feels he has not control, he is probably experiencing:
A) learned helplessness.
B) learned aversion.
C) proactive depression.
D) nuchal rigidity.
E) Erickson's industry versus inferiority stage of moral development.
Q2) The tendency of a group to develop beliefs and make decisions that are more extreme than the initial inclination of its members is called:
A) risky shift.
B) group persuasion.
C) extreme terrorism.
D) group think.
E) group hyperbole.
Q3) The developmental histories of most terrorists are fraught with mental instability and antisocial behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe Bandura's six disengagement practices.
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Chapter 12: Sexual Assault
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Q1) _____ is the term used by the FBI in the gathering of crime reporting and arrest statistics for Part I crimes.
A) Sexual offense
B) Sexual assault
C) Criminal sexual conduct
D) Unlawful intercourse
E) Forcible rape
Q2) The Groth rape typology is similar to the original MTC typology, except that Groth:
A) emphasizes the motives for the rape.
B) has more categories of rape behavior than the MTC.
C) has better behavioral descriptions of the categories.
D) emphasizes victim reactions.
E) includes homosexual rape.
Q3) Discuss the reasons some criminologists are concerned that sex offender registries may be unwise public policy. What is your opinion of sex offender registries?
Q4) Most rapists are between 35-45 years old.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Sexual Assault of Children and Youth and Other
Sexual Offenses
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Q1) Research on the victims of pedophilia indicates that:
A) sexual abuse produces long-term psychological problems in many children.
B) most victims recover quickly without any long-lasting effects.
C) boys recover quickly without psychological effects, but girls show long-lasting effects.
D) "mild" abuse does not generate any long-lasting effects.
E) victims who are groomed beforehand recover quicker, both physically and psychologically.
Q2) Briefly describe the Groth classification model of child molesters.
Q3) When a person gains sexual arousal from observing unsuspecting people who are nude, or in the act of undressing, or engaging in sexual activity, it is referred to as:
A) nyctophilia.
B) partialism.
C) voyeurism.
D) parorexia.
E) pornography.
Q4) Compare and contrast effective treatment for juvenile sex offenders and adult sex offenders.
Q5) Discuss the difficulties in obtaining data on pedophilia.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Property and Public Order Crime
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Q1) What is the essential difference between occupational crime and corporate crime?
A) Occupational crime involves large sums of money; whereas corporate crime involves smaller amounts of money.
B) In occupational crime, the individual benefits; whereas in corporate crime, the corporation benefits from the crime.
C) Corporate crime is illegal, occupational crime is legal.
D) The perpetrator of corporate crime almost always is wealthy, which is not so in occupational crime.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Available research on shoplifting indicates that it is:
A) almost exclusively a female offense.
B) neurotically motivated.
C) performed principally by teenagers.
D) largely due to spontaneous impulses rather than careful planning.
E) performed by those in need.
Q3) White-collar crime can be explained by neutralization techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast motor vehicle theft and carjacking.
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Chapter 15: Violent Economic Crime and Crimes of
Initimidation
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Q1) Compare and contrast cyberstalking and cyberbullying. How do both of these crimes differ from bullying and stalking?
Q2) The primary motive for juvenile arsons appears to be: A) parental revenge. B) crime concealment. C) financial gain. D) vandalism.
E) fame.
Q3) Describe the six primary motives for arson. What additional category was suggested by Douglas et al.?
Q4) Choose any three crimes covered in this Chapter and discuss what research tells us about the offenders.
Q5) Most bank robberies are carried out by a single offender. A)True B)False
Q6) Describe the differences between instrumental and expressive hostage taking.
Q7) Who was George Metesky? What was he responsible for? What does he have in common with Theodore Kaczynski?
Q8) Define pyromania. Does research support pyromania? Explain. Page 17
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Substance Abuse, Alcohol, and Crime
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Q1) The psychoactive properties of marijuana are found principally in the:
A) resin of the plant.
B) stem of the plant.
C) stasis of the plant.
D) flowers of the plant.
E) roots of the plant.
Q2) Discuss the issues involved in addressing illegal drug use as a health problem. What are the implications for prisons and jails?
Q3) Which statement most accurately reflects the relationship between crack and violent behavior?
A) Crack, by itself does not seem to cause violent behavior in nonviolent people.
B) The production, distribution and selling of crack is associated with violence.
C) The use of even small doses of crack promotes violent behavior.
D) Long term use of crack promotes violent behavior, especially in regularly nonviolent individuals.
E) a and b.
Q4) Discuss the relationship between alcohol and crime.
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