Abnormal Psychology Question Bank
Course Introduction
Abnormal Psychology explores the scientific study of mental disorders and atypical behaviors, examining their causes, symptoms, classification, and treatment. This course investigates a range of psychological conditions, including anxiety disorders, mood disorders, psychotic disorders, personality disorders, and neurodevelopmental disorders. Students will analyze contemporary theories and research related to the development and diagnosis of abnormal behavior, while considering cultural and ethical perspectives. The course also discusses various psychological, biological, and social approaches to prevention and intervention, providing a comprehensive understanding of mental health challenges across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Psychology 3rd Edition by Joanna Pozzulo
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14 Chapters
599 Verified Questions
599 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1755
Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34971
Sample Questions
Q1) What would be considered the most ethical behaviour for a psychologist who is hired as an expert witness?
A) provide testimony consistent with the party that hired you
B) ensure that both the defence and the prosecution have an expert witness
C) provide testimony relevant to the case as you understand it
D) discuss your testimony with both the defence team and the prosecution team
E) provide only a written report rather than testify in person
Answer: C
Q2) According to Eysenck,which of the following would be at risk for criminal behaviour?
A) someone with good conditionability
B) someone with low levels of extraversion and neuroticism
C) someone with high levels of extraversion and neuroticism
D) someone who is easy to socialize
E) someone with low self-control
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Police Psychology
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
Answer: a.The job analysis stage: the police agency must define the knowledge,skills,and abilities (KSAs)that characterize a "good" police officer
b.The construction and validation stage: The police agency must develop instruments to measure the degree to which applicants possess these KSAs (i.e.,construction)and determine the extent to which the applicants' scores on these instruments correspond to actual police performance (i.e.,validation).
Q2) State the four main objectives of the resolution conference.
Answer: -Compensate the victim
-Penalize the youth
-Provide support to the youth's family
-Establish a monitoring scheme to ensure the youth complies with the program
Q3) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
Answer: a.Organizational stressors (e.g.,excessive paperwork)
b.Occupational stressors (e.g.,exposure to human suffering)
c.Criminal justice stressors (e.g.,ineffectiveness of the courts)
d.Public stressors (e.g.,media distortions regarding certain cases)
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Chapter 3: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ? While interrogating Sam Suspect,Officer Sipowitz states,"Look,they should never leave liquor in a store window to tempt honest guys like you and me." Officer Sipowitz's statement is an example of which category of interrogation tactic?
A) minimization
B) maximization
C) a scare tactic
D) a baiting question
E) good cop-bad cop
Answer: A
Q2) In order to be admitted as evidence in Canadian courts,confessions must be ________________ and the confessor must be _______________.
A) given voluntarily/at least 21 years old
B) written down/competent
C) provided when a lawyer is present/supported by corroborative evidence
D) given voluntarily/competent
E) provided when a lawyer is present/at least 21 years old
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Deception
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your text identifies several cues of malingered psychosis.Identify three cues associated with hallucinations and three cues associated with delusions.
Q2) The Comparison Question Test has been criticized for:
A) being susceptible to countermeasures
B) having a high false-false rate
C) using subjective methods of scoring
D) assuming that innocent suspects will show larger responses to the comparison questions as compared to the relevant
E) all of the above
Q3) What has been identified as a major problem particular to the Comparison Question Test (CQT)?
A) high false-negative rate
B) high false-positive rate
C) the use of extra-polygraph cues by the examiner
D) falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent
E) difficult to tell, because no North American studies have been conducted on the CQT
Q4) According to your text,what are the two key components of malingering?
List four reasons why an individual might be motivated to malinger.
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Chapter 5: Eyewitness Testimony
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34975
Sample Questions
Q1) What has not been identified as a limitation of the standard police interview?
A) asking brief, direct questions
B) mixing visual and auditory questions
C) asking questions in a random order
D) asking very broad questions
E) frequent interruptions
Q2) Which of the following identification procedures takes place in a naturalistic environment?
A) a showup
B) a simultaneous lineup
C) a sequential lineup
D) a walk-by
E) an elimination lineup
Q3) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Q4) On the basis of the research you have read in the textbook,list five recommendations that you would make to police forces regarding how they should conduct police lineups.
Q5) Define the misinformation effect within the context of eyewitness research.In addition,fully describe the three most common explanations for this effect.
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Chapter 6: Child Victims and Witnesses
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34976
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following currently applies to the use of corporal punishment in Canada?
A) Parents are permitted to strike their children on the head or face between the ages of 3 and 12.
B) Parents may use physical force with a child between the ages of 3 and 12, but may not use an object to hit the child.
C) Parents are permitted to spank a child, under the age of 2 or older than age 12.
D) Under no circumstances is a teacher allowed to use physical force with a student. E) none of the above
Q2) Under the new Canada Evidence Act,a child is defined as anyone under:
A) 18 years old
B) 16 years old
C) 14 years old
D) 12 years old
E) 10 years old
Q3) A number of changes were made to improve courtroom accommodations for child witnesses in Canada.List four of these changes.
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8
Chapter 7: Juries: Fact Finders
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34977
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the functions of a jury?
A) to use the wisdom of 12 to reach a verdict
B) to promote democracy
C) to protect against outdated laws
D) to increase knowledge about the justice system
E) to act as the conscience of the community
Q2) List one advantage and one disadvantage of using simulation studies to investigate jury decision making.Briefly outline a simulation study to study the effects of victim characteristics in a sexual assault case on juror decision making.Make sure you clearly identify your independent variables (and/or person characteristics)and dependent variables.
Q3) What is the term used to describe a jury that ignores the law when reaching a verdict?
A) jury nullification
B) jury resistance
C) jury tampering
D) jury invalidation
E) jury conscience
Q4) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name two of the three changes to legislation resulting from Brian's Law (Bill 68).
Q2) According to your text,two of the greatest predictors of future violence in offenders are:
A) schizophrenia and prior violence
B) prior violence and substance abuse
C) substance abuse and schizophrenia
D) major affective disorder and prior violence
E) schizophrenia and major affective disorder
Q3) According to Bill C-10,a court can stay the proceedings of a defendant who is unlikely to become fit if:
A) the accused is unlikely ever to become fit
B) the accused poses no threat to the public
C) staying the proceedings results in the proper administration of justice
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) What are three explanations proposed by Bland et al.(1990)for the high rates of mental illness in offender populations in Canada?
Q5) What are the four main objectives of mental health courts?
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Chapter 9: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34979
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common manner of examining public attitudes toward sentencing and parole is through:
A) simulation studies
B) focus groups
C) public opinion surveys
D) field studies
E) none of the above
Q2) A convicted offender sentenced to three years in prison is likely to be placed in:
A) A federal penitentiary
B) a maximum security penitentiary
C) a territorial prison
D) a provincial prison
E) none of the above
Q3) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity?
List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
Q4) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
Q5) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
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Chapter 10: Risk Assessment
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34980
Sample Questions
Q1) Structured professional judgment risk assessment is associated with the following characteristic:
A) specific cut-offs to determine risk level
B) both static and dynamic risk factors
C) only dynamic risk factors
D) statistically derived risk factors
E) only static risk factors
Q2) Consisting of ten items,the ____________ is an actuarial scale developed for the prediction of sexual recidivism.
A) STATIC-99
B) VRAG
C) SARA
D) PCL-R
E) VRS
Q3) ____________ is a risk factor for recidivism uniquely found in women.
A) Substance abuse
B) Antisocial attitudes
C) Antisocial associates
D) Criminal history
E) History of suicide attempts
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Chapter 11: Psychopaths
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34981
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an example of how the construct of psychopathy has influenced court decisions?
A) support a transfer from youth to adult court
B) contribute to dangerous offender designation
C) determine parole eligibility
D) assess mental state at time of offense
E) prove incompetence or unfitness to stand trial
Q2) In a study measuring psychopathy in a sample of community members ____ of these individuals scored zero on the PCL-SV.
A) 10%
B) 19%
C) 44%
D) 71%
E) 100%
Q3) Psychopaths differ from other offenders in what way?
A) They begin their criminal careers younger.
B) They persist longer.
C) Their use of violence lacks an emotional aspect.
D) They commit a greater variety of violent offenses.
E) all of the above
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Chapter 12: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is not a sentencing option under the Youth Criminal Justice Act?
A) reprimand
B) intensive support and supervision order
C) attendance order
D) deferred custody and supervision order
E) All of the above are sentencing options.
Q2) Strategies that attempt to reduce the frequency of violence are known as:
A) primary intervention strategies
B) class-one intervention strategies
C) secondary intervention strategies
D) class-two intervention strategies
E) tertiary intervention strategies
Q3) Which of the following statements is not a criticism of the Young Offenders Act?
A) Youths were sometimes denied rights such as right to counsel and right to appeal.
B) Violent offences carried relatively "light" sentences.
C) Disagreements existed concerning raising the minimum age from 7 to 12 years.
D) Discrepancies existed with factors leading to youth transfer to adult court.
E) All of the above are criticisms of the Young Offenders Act.
Q4) Define "resilient" and identify four ways that protective factors are effective.
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Chapter 13: Intimate Partner Violence
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34983
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of male batterer is most likely to exhibit jealousy?
A) the family-only batterer
B) the dysphoric/borderline batterer
C) the generally violent/antisocial batterer
D) the psychopathic batterer
E) the antisocial batterer
Q2) In the short term (i.e.,six months or less),which of the following perpetrators of domestic assault is least likely to recidivate?
A) an unemployed male who is arrested
B) an employed male who is arrested
C) a male who is given a separation order
D) a male who is subjected to mediation by police
E) There are no significant differences in recidivism rates of these men.
Q3) Identify and explain the two most common forms of intervention for male batterers.According to the meta-analysis conducted by Babcock,Green,and Robie (2004),which is the most effective in terms of recidivism?
Q4) Kropp,Hart,and Lyon (2002)have formulated a typology that classifies stalkers into four categories based on their relationships with their victims.Name and describe the key characteristics of all four categories.
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Chapter 14: Sexual Offenders
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34984
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding rape myths?
A) Rape myths are beliefs people have about rape that are based on empirical evidence.
B) Asian students are the least likely to accept rape myths.
C) Men are more accepting of rape myths than women are.
D) One common rape myth is that sex offences are often committed by people the victim knows.
E) none of the above
Q2) Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide.
Q3) According to Groth's rapist typology,which type of rapist has the intention to assert dominance and control over the victim?
A) anger
B) vindictive
C) power
D) sadistic
E) opportunistic
Q4) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.
Q5) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
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