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Abnormal Psychology is the scientific study of atypical patterns of thoughts, emotions, and behaviors, with a focus on understanding psychological disorders and the criteria used to define abnormality. This course explores diagnostic categories, theoretical perspectives on the origins of mental illness, and a range of psychological disorders including anxiety, mood, psychotic, and personality disorders. Students will also examine assessment techniques, treatment approaches, and the ethical, cultural, and social issues that affect the classification and perceived stigma of mental health conditions. Through case studies and empirical research, learners gain insight into the complexity of human behavior and the importance of effective intervention and support.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 3rd Edition by Deborah C. Beidel
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15 Chapters
1809 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ego psychology, as opposed to psychoanalytic theory, focuses on conscious motivations and healthy functioning.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) New technologies in neuroscience have advanced our understanding of psychological disorders. Discuss the concept of "biological scarring" as it relates to PTSD.
Answer: Biological scarring is a term applied to brain changes that appear to result from years of living with disorders such as PTSD. The brain changes in response to the disorder.
Q3) The biopsychosocial model assumes a diathesis-stress perspective. Explain this statement and provide an example to illustrate your understanding.
Answer: The biopsychosocial model assumes that multiple factors interact to influence behavior. The diathesis-stress perspective assumes that psychological disorders may have a biological basis. Having a predisposition toward a disorder is not sufficient to produce the disorder. However, this vulnerability, in combination with stressful environmental circumstances, may lead to psychological disorders.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When considering a curvilinear relationship between two variables, it is important to recognize that
A) the strength of the relationship is underestimated by the correlation coefficient.
B) there is no relationship on which to base generalizations.
C) by virtue of fitting a straight line, a perfect prediction is possible.
D) one must be tentative in making causal statements.
Answer: A
Q2) The term "complex trait" implies that
A) two genes alone interact to form complex behavioral patterns seen in psychological disorders.
B) genes mutate under the influence of environmental factors resulting in complex behavioral patterns.
C) the environment is more influential in the development of complex behaviors such as those seen in mental illness.
D) given mental disorders or behavioral traits are influenced by many genes in interaction with environmental factors.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rachael is asked to record her cigarette cravings as they occur each day over the course of a week. She writes down how often she feels the urge to smoke, how long the cravings last, and her behavior and thoughts about each episode. Within a behavioral paradigm, this activity recording would be known as
A) behavioral analysis.
B) self-monitoring.
C) functional monitoring.
D) antecedent analysis.
Answer: B
Q2) A major purpose of a diagnosis is to
A) aid communication among researchers and clinicians.
B) help patients understand the root cause of their problems.
C) assist the referral source in making a differential diagnosis.
D) communicate the psychologist's theoretical orientation to treatment.
Answer: A
Q3) Differential diagnoses refer to multiple labels given to the same person by a clinician.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Every evening, Ramin must knock on his front door three times before going to bed. He discovered that this was an effective way to ward off robbers. His knocking on the door is an example of
A) a compulsion.
B) an obsession.
C) an intrusive thought.
D) a cognitive impairment.
Q2) One feature of obsessions that creates anxiety for an individual is their A) extreme specificity.
B) intrusive nature.
C) startle value.
D) rapid onset.
Q3) Audra has a lot of trouble looking at herself in the mirror to put on her make-up. She thinks her nose is too big and that it makes her look like a witch. Which of the following would be a likely diagnosis?
A) body dysmorphic disorder
B) trichotillomania
C) excoriation
D) delusional disorder
Q4) Explain how mind, body, and behavior are all involved in a panic attack.
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Sample Questions
Q1) How might a dysfunctional mind-set contribute to illness anxiety disorder?
Q2) In 1859, ________ wrote a paper describing psychiatric patients whose disorders appeared to lack medical causes for their distress.
A) Pierre Briquet
B) Philippe Pinel
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Josef Breuer
Q3) Factitious disorder imposed on another is characterized by one person's intentionally inducing illness symptoms in another.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following has contributed to the questionable scientific status of the category dissociative identity disorder?
A) Low prevalence rates of the disorder
B) The violent nature of persons with the disorder
C) Its restriction to the American culture
D) The lack of empirical quantitative investigations
Q5) Describe the five types of dissociative experiences outlined in your text.
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Q1) The difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorders is the presence of ________ in the latter instead of a full-blown manic episode.
A) hypomania
B) alexithymia
C) cyclothymia
D) dysthymia
Q2) According to your authors, dysthymia can best be conceptualized as A) a chronic state of depression.
B) a fluctuating pattern of high and low moods.
C) an intermittent period of deep depression.
D) a disorder caused by genetic factors.
Q3) Approximately _______ of children who attempt or complete suicide suffer from psychological disorders.
A) 90%
B) 50%
C) 15%
D) 25%
Q4) Review the ways in which family history, psychiatric illness, and biological factors are predictive of suicide.
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Q1) Both shoplifting and impulsive spending are psychological features associated with bulimia nervosa.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Overall, research indicates that the most effective approach in the treatment of anorexia nervosa is
A) use of a multidisciplinary team.
B) nutritional counseling.
C) family systems counseling.
D) behavior modification.
Q3) The case of twins Michaela and Samantha Kendall presented in your text demonstrates that a hostile environment may be a sole determinant of an eating disorder in some cases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Females are ____ more likely to develop anorexia nervosa than are males.
A) 3 times
B) 5 times
C) 6 times
D) 9 times
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Q1) Men who cross-dress whether they become aroused or not suffer from transvestic disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sexual orientation develops as a result of family dynamics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Katelyn has been diagnosed as having a sexual dysfunction. Her psychologist has suggested an intervention that involves sexually erotic cues and graduated stimulation to the genital area. What is the name of this technique?
A) Sensate focus
B) Pleasure touching
C) Directed masturbation
D) Nondemand pleasuring
Q4) An absence or impairment of some aspect of sexual response is called
A) organismic disorder.
B) gender dysphoria.
C) male hypoactive sexual desire disorder.
D) sexual dysfunction.
Q5) Discuss the sex differences in human sexual response as outlined in the text.
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Q1) Consuming an energy drink in order to feel less tired and lethargic is an example of negative reinforcement.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many adolescents in the U.S. smoke?
A) 1.2 million
B) 3 million
C) 17 million
D) 44 million
Q3) Discuss some of the potential health consequences for people who consume caffeine.
Q4) Alcohol abuse and dependence are
A) more likely to have negative health consequences for men than women.
B) more common among men than women.
C) less common among whites than Hispanic populations.
D) typically rare among Native American persons.
Q5) Prolonged caffeine use may contribute to reproductive problems and osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Schizoaffective disorder is a controversial diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Any delay in receiving treatment for schizophrenia increases the risk for severe impairment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Deficits in executive functioning are one example of a(n) _____ impairment often seen in schizophrenia.
A) cognitive
B) positive
C) affective
D) negative
Q4) A consistent neuroanatomical research finding among studies investigating brain structures in schizophrenics is that these patients have enlarged brain ventricles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe and provide examples of positive symptoms found in the speech of schizophrenic persons.
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Q1) Research has suggested that the heritability of personality disorders ranges from approximately
A) 15 to 20%.
B) 20 to 40%.
C) 40 to 50%.
D) 50 to 60%.
Q2) Cluster A personality disorders, psychosis, and schizophrenia share many of the same features.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Schizotypal personality disorder and schizophrenia share some characteristics, but one characteristic they do not have in common is
A) delusions of grandeur.
B) magical thinking.
C) ideas of reference.
D) oddities of behavior, such as poor hygiene.
Q4) The treatment of choice for personality disorders is psychotherapy.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A classroom behavioral management program that targets school-relevant goals is called a(n)
A) Daily Report Card.
B) Interim Report Card.
C) Progress Report Card.
D) Behavior Report Card.
Q2) Which medication is often prescribed to children with oppositional defiant disorder to help reduce the symptoms of aggression?
A) Typical antipsychotics
B) Antidepressants
C) Atypical antipsychotics
D) Anxiolytics
Q3) Treatment for learning disorders typically takes place in the home.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Symptoms of ADHD include inattentiveness, hyperactivity, and impulsivity.
A)True
B)False

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Q5) Discuss the long-term outcomes for autism spectrum disorder.
Q6) Discuss the role that gender plays in the diagnosis of intellectual disability.
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Q1) The incidence of late-life depression is _____ correlated with the incidence of major neurocognitive disorders.
A) negatively
B) not
C) minimally
D) positively
Q2) Older adults who suffer from anxiety
A) often experience symptoms of depression first.
B) typically attribute their symptoms solely to medical conditions or medication reactions.
C) use more psychological terms to describe their symptoms compared with younger adults.
D) focus more on their physical symptoms than their psychological distress.
Q3) In most older adults with schizophrenia, the disorder begins
A) in adolescence.
B) in young adulthood.
C) in middle age.
D) after the age of 65.
Q4) Explain the possible reasons why women may develop late-onset schizophrenia at a much later age than men.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The belief that the mind and body function as separate systems is known as
A) mind-body dualism.
B) behavioral medicine.
C) biomedicine.
D) medical psychology.
Q2) Although exercise can help people cope with stress, most who give up on exercise report that they do so because they
A) are too unhealthy for physical activity.
B) have no access to a gym or other facility.
C) are too stressed out and lack enough time.
D) perceive no benefit from exercise.
Q3) Which scale is used to assess day-to-day events that counteract the negative effects of stress?
A) Uplifts
B) Hassles
C) Social Readjustment Rating Scale
D) Likert
Q4) A flat tire on the way to work is an example of a daily hassle.
A)True
B)False

Page 17
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Q1) The United States Supreme Court has ruled that people may be involuntarily medicated to restore competency to stand trial only if
A) the drug is used in conjunction with intensive therapy.
B) there are no serious side effects to the drug used.
C) the medication is short-acting.
D) important governmental issues are at stake.
Q2) The deinstitutionalization movement has successfully reintegrated most people with psychological disorders into the community.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "Competence to stand trial" refers to a person's
A) ability to remain in touch with reality throughout the trial.
B) ability to assist in his or her own defense.
C) willingness to assist in his or her own defense.
D) willing acceptance of legal help.
Q4) Explain the difference between being found not guilty by reason of insanity and guilty but mentally ill.
Q5) Explain the difference between civil and criminal commitment.
Q6) Describe the security and privacy components of HIPAA.
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