Abnormal Psychology Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Abnormal Psychology explores the nature, causes, and treatment of mental disorders. The course examines patterns of behavior, emotion, and thought that deviate from cultural norms, focusing on the classification of psychological disorders as outlined in diagnostic manuals such as the DSM-5. Students will learn about theories and research related to the origins and development of disorders, including anxiety, mood, psychotic, personality, and neurodevelopmental disorders. Emphasis is placed on understanding assessment methods, ethical considerations, and contemporary approaches to intervention and prevention, equipping students with a comprehensive understanding of mental health and psychopathology.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
2107 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Dr. Lu's study of eating disorders, she looked at the academic histories of girls with an eating disorder and girls who did not have such problems. In this example, the girls without eating disorders are the ________ group.
A) conforming
B) control
C) criterion
D) treatment
Answer: B
Q2) Why is it difficult to agree on a definition of abnormal behavior?
Answer: There are no sufficient or necessary conditions. Also, what is abnormal at one point in time may no longer be considered abnormal at another time.
Q3) Why is it believed that the NCS-R survey used to estimate the prevalence of mental illness underestimated that prevalence?
A) Most problems are acute.
B) Few people report symptoms of mental illness when completing surveys.
C) The incidence of comorbidity is too high.
D) Measures of several types of disorders were not included.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dorothea Dix ________
A) urged that religious conversion should be a primary means of treatment for the mentally disturbed.
B) was a major impediment to the mental hygiene movement in this country.
C) was a leading force in the emphasis on finding biological cures for mental disorders.
D) is credited with establishing numerous humane mental hospitals in many countries.
Answer: D
Q2) What was the attitude about hospitalization of the mentally ill during the later decades of the twentieth century?
Answer: It is preferable to treat people in the community, and treatment should be deinstitutionalized, although it is not the perfect solution it was once thought to be.
Q3) Prayer, incantations, and noise-making were all techniques for ________
A) altering a person's brain functioning.
B) improving a person's dreams.
C) helping a person become possessed by good spirits.
D) exorcising demons.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freud's view of mental disorders was that they were a result of ________
A) unresolved conflicts between the id, the ego, and the superego.
B) genetic abnormalities that influence people's ability to cope with their environment.
C) problematic tendencies we develop while dealing with our early interpersonal environments.
D) learned maladaptive behaviors that were rewarded with attention.
Answer: A
Q2) If a trait is highly heritable, it would be expected that the concordance rate for
A) dizygotic twins and monozygotic twins would be comparable.
B) dizygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for monozygotic twins.
C) monozygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for dizygotic twins.
D) dizygotic twins would be close to 100 percent.
Answer: C
Q3) __________ tends to be seen in American children, whereas ____________ tends to be seen in Thai children.
Answer: Undercontrolled behavior, overcontrolled behavior
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the goal of psychosocial assessment?
Q2) Which of the following best illustrates high reliability?
A) An interviewer modifies the way she asks questions to fit the style of the client.
B) Two interviewers diagnose the same disorder after talking to the same client.
C) A clinician accurately predicts that a client will become violent when reunited with this family.
D) A clinician uses both medical (e.g., MRI) and psychological (e.g., MMPI-2) information to decide a diagnosis.
Q3) As in assessment, diagnostic interviews can be ________
A) structured or unstructured.
B) projective or objective.
C) difficult or easy.
D) empirical or conceptual.
Q4) Which of the following statements about reliability and validity is true?
A) Reliable tests are usually valid.
B) Valid tests are usually reliable.
C) There is no relationship between reliability and validity.
D) In order for a test to be reliable, it must be valid.
Q5) The term MRI in assessment of the brain means __________.
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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "crisis" refers to ________
A) any time when a stressful situation exceeds one's ability to cope.
B) encountering a number of stressors simultaneously.
C) a period of especially acute stress.
D) any encounter that requires a readjustment of self concept.
Q2) What is the goal of post-disaster debriefing?
Q3) Selye ________
A) recognized that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress.
B) conducted extensive research on the effects of stress on the immune system.
C) failed to acknowledge the role of the environment in adapting to stress.
D) focused on the cognitive component of the stress response.
Q4) Arielle was in a terrible car accident in which several people were killed. A few weeks later, she began to talk about what happened. She told the story to anyone who would listen. This seems to be _________
A) a way to reduce anxiety and desensitize herself to the experience.
B) a maladaptive coping response that will heighten her distress.
C) a sign that she is beginning to develop PTSD.
D) a sign that she is in the shock stage of disaster syndrome.
Q5) Discuss the immune system's response to an attack.
Q6) The biological cost of adapting to stress is called the __________.
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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While in treatment for panic disorder, Leroy is asked to engage in behaviors that activate the sympathetic nervous system. In other words, Leroy is engaging in behaviors that produce the physical sensation of fear. What type of treatment does this appear to be?
A) Exteroceptive exposure
B) Interoceptive exposure
C) Anxiety sensitivity training
D) Cognitive reconditioning
Q2) Which one of the following symptoms is not associated with generalized anxiety in the Yoruba culture of Nigeria?
A) Worry
B) Dreams
C) Bodily complaints
D) Panic attacks
Q3) High levels of anxiety sensitivity ________
A) increase the risk of all types of anxiety disorder.
B) are seen in all who develop agoraphobia.
C) predict the development of spontaneous panic attacks.
D) can be effectively treated with drugs that minimize noradrenergic function.
Q4) How do cognitions help maintain phobias?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Postpartum blues" are _________
A) a serious disorder.
B) common, usually brief, and not a disorder.
C) a subtype of Major Depressive Disorder.
D) serious, brief, and a type of unipolar depression.
Q2) Childhood depression ________
A) has been clearly linked to genetic factors.
B) is more likely in children with a depressed parent.
C) has not been associated with parental depression.
D) can usually be causally related to marital discord.
Q3) The WHO World Mental Health Survey revealed _________
A) the prevalence of mood disorders in countries around the world varies from .8 percent to 9.6 percent.
B) the prevalence of mood disorders is about the same from one country to the next.
C) the prevalence of mood disorders in countries around the world varies from 0 percent to 50 percent.
D) the United States has the lowest prevalence of mood disorders of countries around the world.
Q4) Two types of mood disorders are __________ and bipolar depressive disorders
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss two of the causal factors of somatic symptom disorder.
Q2) An in-depth study by Lewis and colleagues of 12 convicted murderers diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder looked into their backgrounds. The study found strong evidence that each was severely abused, both physically and sexually. Why does the text refer to this study as "flawed."
A) Malingerers were studied separately from the larger group of DID sufferers.
B) Malingerers were excluded from the study.
C) There was no control group of murderers without DID.
D) There was no control group of DID sufferers who were not murderers.
Q3) The DSM-5 recognizes how many types of pathological dissociation?
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 8.
Q4) Somatization disorder and hypochondriasis are similar in DSM-5 in that ________
A) both involve patients thinking they have a physical disease.
B) both involve patients thinking that they can easily cope with their symptoms.
C) both disorders have been subsumed into somatic symptom disorder
D) both involve patients reacting to physical symptoms by becoming more physically active.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the risk of suicide in anorexia and bulimia.
Q2) Callie and Raquel both have problems with binging and purging. They both eat large evening meals and both then purge what they have eaten. Callie engages in this three to four times a week, and Raquel does so once a week on Sundays. What would be the diagnosis for each of these individuals?
A) Callie's diagnosis would be bulimia nervosa; Raquel does not meet DSM criteria.
B) Callie's diagnosis would be anorexia nervosa; Raquel does not meet DSM criteria.
C) Callie's diagnosis would be bulimia nervosa; Raquel's diagnosis would be anorexia nervosa.
D) Callie's diagnosis would be bulimia nervosa; Raquel's diagnosis would be bulimia nervosa.
Q3) In addition to altering the eating patterns of clients with binge eating disorder, therapists using cognitive-behavioral therapy will also ________
A) teach the clients to be greater risk-takers.
B) educate the clients that fat people have certain character flaws.
C) provide factual information about eating and dieting.
D) help the client to emotionally separate from her family.
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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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142 Verified Questions
142 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about the connection between psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder?
A) Psychopathy is another name for antisocial personality disorder.
B) While there is overlap, ASPD is broader and psychopathy is more narrowly defined.
C) Psychopathy is a less severe form of antisocial personality disorder.
D) Psychopathy is a more easily treated form of antisocial personality disorder.
Q2) Paris (2001, 2007) has suggested that the ________ may be responsible for the increase in emotional dysregulation and impulsive behavior that has been increasing since World War II.
A) increase in illicit drugs in the U.S.
B) unstable unemployment rates
C) changes in nutritional needs and diet
D) increased breakdown of the family unit
Q3) Compare and contrast histrionic and narcissistic personality disorder.
Q4) What are the research findings on psychopathy and learning?
Q5) What are the two dimensions of childhood temperament related to antisocial personality disorder and psychopathy, and what is the relationship?
Q6) What complicates the diagnosis of personality disorders?
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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129 Verified Questions
129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brendan has been using marijuana daily for more than six years. If he stops using the drug, he might experience ________
A) withdrawal-like symptoms such as nervousness and changes in sleeping and eating.
B) a period of extreme depression and lethargy, but no physiological symptoms.
C) a potentially lethal withdrawal phase.
D) slowed reaction times, increased heart rate, and memory dysfunction.
Q2) Passing out from a high blood level of alcohol ________
A) may actually be a safety device.
B) means a person has not yet developed tolerance.
C) means that a person's blackouts have worsened and increased over time.
D) may be the result of an allergic reaction to alcohol.
Q3) Controlled drinking (i.e., teaching alcoholics to drink in moderation) ________
A) has been generally accepted as a useful treatment.
B) is incorporated in Brief Motivational Intervention
C) works better than complete abstinence.
D) seems to work for people with less severe alcohol problems.
Q4) Name and describe the two phenomena that are seen when a person has a physiological need for a psychoactive substance.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sexual behavior and attitudes are shaped by the influences of _________
A) intelligence.
B) research-based facts.
C) time and place.
D) comorbid diagnoses.
Q2) Frotteurism is ________
A) sexual arousal by rubbing one's genital area against a nonconsenting person.
B) sexual arousal in a male exclusively through masturbation.
C) inability for males to be aroused by anything except inanimate objects.
D) sexual arousal in males by the thought of having their sex organs removed.
Q3) How do incest offenders differ from extra-familial offenders?
Q4) How was masturbation viewed during the times when degeneracy theory and abstinence theory were popular?
Q5) Which of the following is cross-culturally universal?
A) Acceptance of homosexuality as an alternative lifestyle
B) Attitudes toward premarital sex
C) A distaste for extramarital sex between consenting adults
D) Males value physical appearance in partners more than females
Q6) What are some personality characteristics of rapists?
Q7) Discuss the two main controversies concerning childhood sexual abuse.
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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124 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of hallucinations are the most common?
A) Auditory
B) Tactile
C) Visual
D) Gustatory
Q2) Virginia exhibits a variety of schizophrenic symptoms including delusions, auditory hallucinations, and formal thought disorder. She has been symptomatic for a little more than a month. Virginia qualifies for a diagnosis of ________
A) paranoid schizophrenia.
B) schizoaffective disorder, manic type.
C) undifferentiated schizophrenia.
D) provisional schizophreniform disorder.
Q3) Define positive and negative symptoms for schizophrenia. Give examples of each.
Q4) What is the major difference between a diagnosis of schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder?
A) The presence of delusions and hallucinations
B) The age of the person when they develop the disorder
C) The degree of emotional instability and disconnection from other people
D) The duration of symptoms
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mild to moderate diffuse brain damage is most likely to result in ________
A) mood disturbance.
B) memory problems.
C) visual distortions.
D) altered sleep patterns.
Q2) Many people with brain damage resulting in neuropsychological disorders have problems with __________ and self-regulation.
Q3) The most common cause of major neurocognitive disorder is ________
A) intracranial tumors.
B) severe or repeated head injury.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) drug toxicity.
Q4) Severe head injury resulting in unconsciousness often causes a person to experience ________, the inability to recall events that happened right before the injury.
A) amnestic dementia
B) anterograde amnesia
C) retrograde amnesia
D) psychogenic amnesia
Q5) What is anterograde amnesia?
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence
(Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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Sample Questions
Q1) What complicates the diagnosis of maladaptive behavior in childhood?
A) Behavior that is problematic for a child of one age is normal behavior for a child of a different age.
B) The dividing line between childhood and adolescence has been arbitrarily drawn.
C) Most psychological disorders in the young have an identifiable environmental cause.
D) Drugs are not effective in treating the disorders that are most commonly seen in children.
Q2) What is the clinical picture of oppositional defiant disorder? How is this disorder related to conduct disorder?
Q3) Some of the same genes that have been linked with an increased risk of ________ also increase the risk of ADHD, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and depression.
A) separation anxiety
B) autism
C) enuresis
D) conduct disorder.
Q4) What is unique about the intellectual disability caused by PKU?
Q5) What is coprolalia?
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Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a criticism of humanistic-experiential therapies?
A) Too focused on behavior
B) Impersonal approach
C) Too much emphasis on early experiences
D) Goals are not clear
Q2) For which client is behavior therapy most likely to be effective?
A) Wilson, whose complaint is fear of spiders.
B) Angela, who has a variety of personality disorders.
C) Colin, who is struggling with vague concerns about his career and marital prospects.
D) Tamara, who is trying to understand the origins of her personality.
Q3) The term "psychoactive" means "_________."
A) antipsychotic
B) mind-altering
C) tardive dyskinesia
D) mind and body
Q4) The client's reports of changes that have occurred because of treatment are difficult to replicate and relatively ___________as a measure of success in psychotherapy.
Q5) What is tardive dyskinesia? What causes it?
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Predicting dangerousness is most comparable to ________
A) preparing a team for a sports competition.
B) reviewing for a comprehensive examination.
C) figuring your taxes at the end of the year.
D) preparing a weather forecast.
Q2) The underlying basis of the insanity defense is ________
A) people who have a mental illness should not be punished.
B) people who have a mental illness cannot ever form the intent needed to commit a crime, so shouldn't be punished.
C) some people who have a mental illness are not able to fully comprehend their behavior, so are not able to form the needed intent for a crime, so should not be punished.
D) even if they had the required intent for a crime, the mentally ill still shouldn't be punished.
Q3) Why is it important to prevent teen alcohol use?
A) Teens are more susceptible to alcoholism than adults.
B) Most teens who drink go on to do "harder drugs."
C) Teens are more prone to violence while drinking than adults.
D) Early alcohol use is associated with later alcohol abuse and dependence.
Q4) NIOSH stands for __________ .
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