

Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Abnormal Psychology explores the nature, causes, and treatment of psychological disorders. The course examines major theoretical perspectives on abnormal behavior, diagnostic criteria, and the classification systems used to identify mental disorders. Topics include anxiety, mood, personality, psychotic, and developmental disorders, as well as approaches to assessment and intervention. Students will analyze case studies and consider cultural, ethical, and historical factors that influence definitions of abnormality and mental health care.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Abnormal Child and Adolescent Psychology 3rd Edition by Robert Weis
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Q1) Prognosis is often difficult to specify because of ______.
A) equifinality
B) mutifinality
C) homotypic continuity
D) wariness clients have of clinicians
Answer: B
Q2) What does the study of facilitated communication demonstrate about the value (or harm)of ignoring empirically-based interventions in favor of other forms of treatment?
A) that empirically based literature is not always well founded and sometimes alternative treatments are vastly more effective
B) that the stigma that accompanies mental illness treatment can drive families to seek help from non-mainstream sources
C) that interventions that are not empirically based can be harmful to clients and their families
D) that culture must be taken into account when determining how much to rely on empirically based interventions
Answer: C
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Q1) Autosomes ______.
A) look the same in both males and females
B) differ in males and females
C) form 2 of the 23 pairs of chromosomes
D) contain exactly half of an individual's genetic material
Answer: A
Q2) Imagine that Dr.Alvarez and Dr.Chao find that some individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)have a particular allele that those without OCD do not.Which of the following conclusions would be most warranted?
A) that the allele is partially responsible for the disorder
B) that individuals without the allele cannot have OCD
C) that identical twins who both have the allele would both have OCD
D) that if we could modify this allele, we could cure OCD
Answer: A
Q3) What is a trinucleotide?
A) the combination of a base pair, deoxyribose, and a phosphate
B) the combination of three amino acids
C) Three genes
D) three nucleotides arranged together in the ladder
Answer: D

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Q1) When preparing the DSM-5,which of the following approaches was NOT used?
A) formal interviews with individuals currently diagnosed with the disorders in DSM-IV
B) literature reviews of research on each disorder
C) reanalysis of previously collected data to determine the potential effects of altering diagnostic criteria on prevalence rates
D) field trials
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is true of a clinical interview?
A) It always takes multiple sessions to complete.
B) It usually involves the child and his or her parents and sometimes other individuals knowledgeable about the child's functioning.
C) It always occurs during the first session.
D) If parents and children are both interviewed, they are always interviewed separately. Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs of ethics when working with children and families?
A) cooperation
B) consent
C) confidentiality
D) conflicts of interest
Q2) Molly's therapist displays her genuine feelings during a therapy session; she doesn't remain disengaged or emotionally distant.This is known as ______.
A) unethical
B) transference
C) congruence
D) empathy
Q3) Which class is the most frequently prescribed medication for children?
A) psychostimulants
B) anxiolytics
C) antidepressants
D) antipsychotics
Q4) What is the difference between cognitive bias and cognitive distortion?
Q5) What is the dodo verdict?
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Q1) What have brain studies shown about the relationship between poverty and children's cognitive development?
A) Poverty causes about a 10% reduction in brain volume.
B) Brain volume reductions of those in poverty were greatest in the problem-solving and memory areas of the brains.
C) Though there were brain volume reductions in those with poverty, they did not confer a behavioral disadvantage in IQ.
D) Brain volume reductions in those with poverty were associated with deficits in both IQ and academic achievement.
Q2) Zander is engaging in self-injurious behavior by biting his lips until they bleed.His therapist praises him when he talks,chews gum,or even sticks out his tongue,because when he engages in these behaviors he cannot bite his lips.This approach is ______.
A) differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviors
B) differential reinforcement of zero behavior
C) punishment by contingent stimulation
D) overcorrection
Q3) In what ways can challenging behavior adversely affect children?
Q4) Provide an example of universal design in the classroom.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a piece of evidence discussed in the text for the role of the amygdala in ASD?
A) Increasing activity to the amygdala, through electroconvulsive therapy, produces increased sociability in individuals with ASD.
B) People with ASD showed reduced amygdala activity as they attempted to infer the mental states of others.
C) People with ASD often show reduced amygdala volume relative to healthy controls.
D) Humans with damage to the amygdala often display deficits in social understanding that resemble those of high-functioning individuals with ASD.
Q2) Describe some of the evidence for the heritability of ASD.
Q3) Can a child be diagnosed with ASD if he or she displays only marked deficits in social communication and hypersensitivity to sensory stimuli? Why or why not?
Q4) ASD usually begins abruptly,often days before a diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following spelling errors for the word dolphin most likely reflects underlying phonological processing problems?
A) dolfin
B) dollfin
C) dofnil
D) doffin
Q2) Children with specific language impairment (SLI)are typically diagnosed ______.
A) in the first year of life
B) in the second year of life
C) in preschool or kindergarten
D) in high school
Q3) Which of the following individuals would be most likely to rely on the definition of specific learning disorder as outlined in the DSM-5?
A) teachers
B) clinical psychologists
C) social workers
D) school psychologists
Q4) What is the evidence that the anticipatory-struggle theory of stuttering cannot explain all instances of stuttering?
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Q1) The hippocampus is part of which neural circuit thought to underlie ADHD?
A) the mesolimbic neural circuit
B) the frontal-striatal neural circuit
C) the dorsolateral prefrontal circuit
D) the default mode network
Q2) Comorbidity in those with ADHD ______.
A) is relatively uncommon
B) is common, particularly among youths referred to mental health clinics
C) typically involves schizophrenia
D) typically involves depression
Q3) The majority of children whose parents participate in parent training no longer meet diagnostic criteria for ADHD.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is true of the predominantly inattentive presentation of ADHD?
A) It is most common in girls.
B) It typically emerges between 5 and 8 years of age.
C) It is typically preceded by hyperactive-impulsive symptoms.
D) It is typically a precursor to combined presentation.
Q5) Would psychostimulants create any effect for those without ADHD? Why or why not?
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Q1) Teaching a child to ask,"What are all my possibilities?" is associated with improvement in which of the social processing steps?
A) interpreting cues
B) clarifying goals
C) generating possible plans for action
D) evaluating
Q2) Research on the outcomes associated with the Incredible Years program indicates all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A) children whose families participated in any of the treatment components showed more improvement in behavior than children whose families did not participate
B) children whose families participated in multiple treatment components showed more improvement in behavior than children whose families participated in only one
C) the most effective component of the program is the SCHOOL program
D) about 25% of parents report that their children have significant behavior problems 3 years after completing treatment
Q3) How does conduct disorder relate to psychopathy?
Q4) How might academic underachievement perpetuate conduct problems?
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Q1) The genetic component of substance use disorder is ______.
A) almost completely deterministic
B) more pronounced for alcohol use disorder than for other substance use disorders
C) most pronounced for cannabis use disorder
D) predictive of the chronicity of substance use disorder
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a cognitive factor related to likelihood of relapse among adolescents?
A) exposure to substance-using peers
B) encouragement to engage in substance use
C) desire to enhance mood
D) not regarding substance use as problematic
Q3) Relapse is ______.
A) relatively rare when youths have engaged in motivational enhancement therapy
B) relatively rare when youths have engaged in family therapy
C) relatively rare when youths have engaged in cognitive behavioral therapy
D) common, irrespective of the type of treatment
Q4) Abstinence is the primary goal of motivational enhancement therapy.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is interoceptive exposure? In what ways is it helpful to those with panic disorder?
Q2) One primary difference in separation anxiety disorder between children and adolescents is which of the following?
A) In young children, the disorder is seen primarily in males, while in adolescence the disorder is seen primarily in females.
B) Somatic complaints are more common in adolescents with separation anxiety disorder than in children with separation anxiety disorder.
C) Young children with separation anxiety disorder more commonly worry about harm befalling them or other loved ones through unlikely means, while older children worry about more realistic events.
D) Separation anxiety disorder needn't persist as long to be diagnosed in young children compared to adolescents.
Q3) The frequency and severity of GAD increases with children's ______.
A) capacity for worry
B) need for reassurance
C) linguistic ability
D) social awareness
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Q1) Children who engage in overly sexualized behavior have almost certainly been sexually abused.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A father who repeatedly calls a child a "sissy" when he cries,and does so in front of his friends or in public,is perpetrating what kind of psychological abuse?
A) spurning
B) terrorizing
C) isolating
D) denying emotional responsiveness
Q3) The effectiveness of Psychological First Aid has ______.
A) been demonstrated by multiple randomized controlled studies of the entire treatment package
B) been assumed from enhanced coping responses fostered by several of its components, which themselves have been researched
C) not ever been examined empirically
D) only been examined empirically in adults
Q4) In what ways is attachment universal? In what ways is it not?
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Q5) Can escape-avoidance coping ever be seen as an adaptive coping strategy?

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Q1) The kindling hypothesis would predict which of the following?
A) Those with a genetic predisposition toward depression would be more likely to manifest depressive symptoms.
B) Those who have experienced recurrent depression are more likely to experience major life stressors.
C) Those who have experienced an early depressive episode are more likely to view later minor stressors as more severe.
D) Those who have experienced multiple depressive episodes become desensitized to stressors and have greater resilience in the face of future stressors.
Q2) Having a single episode of major depressive disorder is less common than having recurrent episodes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why did rates of bipolar disorder in children increase so much from the 1990s through the 2000s? What was the response of the DSM-5?
Q4) Relational aggression is associated with depression in both boys and girls.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In which of the following is schizophrenia more common?
A) in males than in females in childhood but in females than males in adulthood
B) in males than in females in childhood but equally common between males and females in adulthood
C) in females than males in childhood, but in males in adulthood
D) in females than males in childhood, but equally common between males and females in adulthood
Q2) Marcus sometimes sees shadows that are not really there.Would this be considered a visual hallucination?
A) Yes.
B) No, because it is not a fully formed shape.
C) No, because it doesn't happen all the time.
D) No, because light and shadow are specifically excluded from the diagnostic criteria for the disorder.
Q3) How do children with bipolar disorders differ from children with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder?
Q4) Bipolar disorder cannot be comorbid with ADHD.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Cindy has 35 dolls-all blond and thin.She looks at her own thighs that touch at the top and then marvels at the thigh gap on the dolls."I bet if I stop eating cupcakes,I'll look as good in high heels as my doll Sheila does in hers," Cindy thinks.This is an example of which of the following?
A) social modeling
B) internalization of the thin ideal
C) comparing one's appearance with others'
D) belief that thinness will solve all interpersonal problems
Q2) Medication is a first-line treatment for anorexia nervosa.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Adeline developed bulimia nervosa shortly after her older sister left for college.According to interpersonal therapy,which interpersonal problem area does this represent?
A) grief
B) role transition
C) role dispute
D) interpersonal deficits
Q4) It what ways might bingeing be reinforced?
Q5) How is peer pressure used constructively in group therapy for anorexia nervosa?
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Q1) Archie is trying to train his son Gregor to fall asleep.He puts Gregor in the crib at 10:00 p.m.,30 minutes later than his usual bedtime.Gregor is still not asleep after 10 minutes.So,Archie takes him out.He tries again at 10:30 p.m.He puts Gregor in the crib.By 10:45 p.m.,Gregor is still not asleep,so Archie takes him out.He tries again at 11:00 p.m..He puts Gregor in the crib.Within 5 minutes,Gregor is asleep.The next night,Archie first tries putting Gregor in the crib at 10:30 p.m.Sure enough,Gregor is asleep at 10:40 p.m.This technique is called which of the following?
A) planned ignoring
B) graduated ignoring
C) bedtime fading
D) chronotherapy
Q2) Which of the following individuals with enuresis would be LEAST likely to have socioemotional problems?
A) boys
B) youths with secondary enuresis
C) young children
D) those with diurnal enuresis
Q3) Since many cases of enuresis spontaneously resolve,is treating it really necessary?
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