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Course Introduction
Abnormal Child Psychology explores the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of psychological disorders in children and adolescents. The course examines the biological, psychological, and environmental factors that contribute to atypical development and mental health challenges in young people. Key topics include anxiety disorders, mood disorders, developmental disorders such as autism and ADHD, behavioral disorders, and issues relating to trauma and abuse. Students will also engage with current research, case studies, and ethical considerations in the treatment and care of children with psychological disorders.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Abnormal Child and Adolescent Psychology 3rd Edition by Robert Weis
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1265 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which is the best definition of beneficence?
A) generosity
B) helping and promoting others' welfare
C) sharing results of a study
D) confidentiality
Answer: B
Q2) What are the strengths and weaknesses of defining abnormality based on the child or adolescent's degree of impairment?
Answer: Strengths: Adequately takes into account the individual's distress.Weaknesses: Many mental disorders do not show overt impairment in functioning.
Q3) Since 1995,the percentage of youth receiving medication to treat their psychological problems has ______; the percentage of youth receiving therapy to treat their psychological problems has ______.
A) increased; stayed the same
B) increased; decreased
C) increased; increased
D) stayed the same; increased
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is true of flooding?
A) It is usually more effective than graded exposure.
B) It is usually more rapid than graded exposure.
C) It is more commonly used with kids than graded exposure is.
D) It typically elicits less distress than graded exposure does.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of Piaget's theory of cognitive development?
A) It holds that there are five stages of cognitive development.
B) The stages are in a fixed order.
C) The stages increase in complexity.
D) Not all individuals reach the final stage.
Answer: A
Q3) In what ways are the amygdala and hippocampus different?
A) only the amygdala is part of the limbic system
B) only the amygdala plays a role in emotional processing
C) only the amygdala is located deep inside the brain
D) only the hippocampus plays a role in the formation of emotion-laden memories.
Answer: D
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Q1) A person can be diagnosed with learning disabilities on the basis of the Woodcock-Johnson alone.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Malik is a linebacker on his high school football team.He just took a hard hit.Lying on the ground,when he opens his eyes,one of the first questions his coach asks him is,"Do you know where you are?" The coach is trying to assess Malik's ______.
A) appearance and actions
B) thought content
C) orientation
D) emotion
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of diagnosis in children?
A) prediction
B) planning treatment
C) focusing on individuals
D) facilitating scientific discovery
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding consent for treatment among minors?
A) Children cannot provide consent because consent implies that they freely agree to participate and fully appreciate the risks and benefits of participation in treatment.
B) Adolescents cannot usually provide consent because they are often not in treatment voluntarily; they may instead feel pressured by others, such as their parents.
C) For minors, parents may provide consent and that is sufficient to begin treatment.
D) Children and adolescents must minimally provide assent before treatment can begin.
Q2) Which of the following therapies is mismatched with its goal?
A) cognitive therapy; to help clients recognize the connection between thoughts, feelings, and actions
B) behavioral therapy; to alter environmental contingencies to increase adaptive action patterns
C) interpersonal therapy; to foster the individual's desire for social interaction through increasing self-esteem
D) psychodynamic therapy; to provide insight into unconscious mental conflict
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Q1) What is the relationship between the cause of Prader-Willi syndrome and the cause of Angelman syndrome?
A) Both involve chromosome 15; Prader-Willi involves a deletion of genetic material on this chromosome, while Angelman Syndrome involves extra material on this chromosome.
B) Both involve chromosome 15; Prader-Willi involves a deletion of genetic material from the father whereas Angelman involves a deletion of genetic material from the mother.
C) Both involve the deletion of genetic material; Prader-Willi from chromosome 15 and Angelman from chromosome 16.
D) Both involve nondisjunction; Prader-Willi on chromosome 15 and Angelman on chromosome 16
Q2) Stimulant medications have been shown to reduce self-injurious behaviors in youths with intellectual disability because these medications increase the dopamine in the system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In what ways can challenging behavior adversely affect children?
Q4) What is the difference between mainstreaming and inclusion?
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the results of the Autism Genome Project?
A) The majority of children with ASD have deletions or duplications of genetic material on specific chromosomes.
B) The majority of children with ASD have a genetic abnormality or mutation on a single portion of one gene.
C) The majority of children with ASD show the absence of neurexin 1, which produces proteins important to early brain development.
D) The majority of children with ASD have causes that have not yet been explained.
Q2) Martin is always talking about trains.Even when his mom asks him what he'd like for dinner,he continues talking about train schedules.This is an example of ______.
A) stereotyped or repetitive behaviors
B) excessive adherence to routines or resistance to change
C) restricted, fixated interests that are abnormal in intensity or focus
D) hyper- or hypo-reactivity to sensory input
Q3) About half of individuals with ASD are nonverbal.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Prognosis for childhood-onset fluency disorder is ______.
A) poor; most do not recover without treatment
B) poor; most do not recover even with treatment
C) good; most recover, but it can take 4 to 5 years
D) good; most recover within the first year of intervention
Q2) The primary feature that distinguishes milieu training from other treatments for language disorder is ______.
A) it involves substantially more repetition
B) it is presented to the child only by his or her caregiver, and not by a therapist
C) it occurs in natural contexts
D) it is used primarily with older children, and is not appropriate for children under the age of 6
Q3) Which of the following is true of conversational recast training?
A) Mistakes must be corrected immediately.
B) Reinforcement works best when it occurs every third or fourth trial.
C) It works best for correcting problems with phonology.
D) It involves tangible reinforcement, such as candy.
Q4) How might challenges in the representation of phonemes lead to speech sound disorder?
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Q1) Why might kids with ADHD be able to watch TV for hours but not be able to focus on a writing assignment for more than a few minutes?
Q2) The results of a large scale study to compare the efficacy of pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for ADHD found which of the following?
A) Only the groups whose treatment included methylphenidate showed improvement over the 2 years of the study.
B) Most of the improvement occurred in the latter half of the study.
C) The group that included clinical behavior therapy showed the most improvement at the 2-year follow-up.
D) The addition of psychosocial therapy did not improve the effectiveness of methylphenidate alone.
Q3) Your neighbor tells you her 6-year-old son has ADHD,combined presentation,and he's being rejected by peers.She's considering putting him on medication,in part to improve his peer relationships.What does the research have to say about this?
Q4) What do you think might account for the finding that community care was the least effective of all treatment conditions in the MTA study?
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Q1) How might academic underachievement perpetuate conduct problems?
Q2) Rich and Bobby have both been teased and ostracized by their peers.In part,this is because they each have exhibited disruptive and oppositional behaviors.So,Rich and Bobby become friends with each other.Their friendship is a tendency known as ______.
A) controversial sociometric bias
B) rejected association
C) selective affiliation
D) deviancy training
Q3) Aggressive and delinquent behavior is most strongly associated with:
A) ODD
B) CD
C) low emotional arousal
D) high emotional reactivity
Q4) Which of the following is the best predictor of which children with ODD will be on the childhood-onset CD path?
A) peer rejection
B) additional genetic risk
C) difficult temperament
D) hyperactive-impulsive behaviors in early childhood
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Q1) One study of the efficacy of motivational enhancement therapy found that reductions in alcohol and marijuana use were greatest among adolescents who showed the most frequent use before treatment.What could some possible explanations for this finding be?
Q2) With serious,dangerous drugs,such as methamphetamine or heroin,a single use is sufficient for a diagnosis of a substance use disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the ethical issues surrounding motivational enhancement therapy: Is it ethically permissible for therapists to support an adolescent's decision to engage in an illegal behavior?
Q4) Some researchers believe that the DSM-5 criteria for substance use disorder are developmentally insensitive.What does this mean,and do you agree?
Q5) What are some ways in which the manifestation of substance use disorder differs between adolescents and adults,and why do these differences exist?
Q6) Why do schools in the United States continue to offer the D.A.R.E.program when it does not effectively minimize substance use in youths?
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Q1) Describe how agoraphobia might arise from panic disorder.How might it arise in those with no history of panic disorder?
Q2) Which of the following is true of selective mutism?
A) It is relatively rare.
B) It typically occurs in late childhood.
C) It typically resolves itself without intervention.
D) It is a relatively short-term condition.
Q3) Research has indicated that all of the following are ways in which parents might contribute to social anxiety disorder in their children EXCEPT ______.
A) genetics
B) parental modeling or teaching of anxiety responses
C) parental avoidance of charged discussions
D) parental practices that allow the child too much autonomy
Q4) In obsessive-compulsive disorder,how can obsessions occur without compulsions? How can compulsions occur without obsessions?
Q5) Which medications are most commonly used to treat tic disorders and why?
Q6) Onset of social anxiety disorder is typically between 7 and 9 years of age. A)True B)False
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Q1) Why are there different PTSD criteria for preschoolers than for adults?
Q2) As described in the text,what were the results of a study of 82 children and adolescents with histories of sexual abuse who participated in different treatments (Cohen et al.,2005)?
A) Only children who participated in trauma-focused CBT showed improvement.
B) Only children who participated in supportive therapy showed improvement.
C) Both children who participated in trauma-focused CBT and supportive therapy showed improvement to the same degree, but since supportive therapy is less expensive and time-consuming, this is considered the optimal treatment.
D) Both children who participated in trauma-focused CBT and supportive therapy showed improvement, but children were more likely to complete trauma-focused CBT and showed fewer problems at 12-month follow-up than those who participated in supportive therapy.
Q3) Child abuse is considered a mental disorder in the DSM-5.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Heidi was at a school dance when she threw up all over the dance floor.She later described this event as traumatic.Does it meet the definition of trauma? Why or why not?
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a way in which temperament is thought to relate to the development of depression?
A) Children with difficult temperament may overreact to negative life events and have emotion regulation difficulties.
B) Children with difficult temperament tend to selectively affiliate with each other, exacerbating their likelihood of experiencing and reacting severely toward life stressors.
C) Children with difficult temperament may elicit negative reactions from caregivers and peers leading to low self-worth and depression.
D) Children with difficult temperament may have greater problems coping with early childhood stressors.
Q2) Complete this statement: No SSRIs ______.
A) are more effective than placebo in treating childhood depression
B) increase the availability of serotonin, modulating it to normal levels
C) are FDA approved for treating depression in children
D) showed a large (>20%) increase in improvement of childhood depressive symptoms over placebo
Q3) What is the evidence for the monoamine hypothesis?
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Q1) Explain the neurodevelopmental model for schizophrenia.
Q2) Can an individual be diagnosed with schizophrenia if he or she never experienced delusions or hallucinations? Why or why not?
Q3) The dopamine hypothesis holds which of the following?
A) Excessive dopaminergic activation along the mesocortical pathway is responsible for the negative symptoms in schizophrenia.
B) Dampened dopaminergic activation along the mesolimbic pathway is responsible for the negative symptoms in schizophrenia.
C) Dampened dopaminergic activation along the mesolimbic pathway is responsible for the positive symptoms in schizophrenia.
D) Excessive dopaminergic activation along the mesolimbic pathway is responsible for the positive symptoms in schizophrenia.
Q4) Complete the following statement: The COMT gene ______.
A) is influential in the development of bipolar disorders
B) produces an enzyme which regulates norepinephrine
C) influences the pattern of dopamine overactivity and underactivity in those with schizophrenia
D) is related to mania
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Q1) When those with anorexia nervosa begin refeeding to regain weight,their risk for cardiac arrhythmias drops dramatically and immediately.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to cognitive-behavioral theory,those with eating disorders have which of the following?
A) a stronger than average need for acceptance and acknowledgement
B) lower than average self-esteem
C) fewer friends than average peers
D) the belief that control over eating will give them control over other people
Q3) Adeline developed bulimia nervosa shortly after her older sister left for college.According to interpersonal therapy,which interpersonal problem area does this represent?
A) grief
B) role transition
C) role dispute
D) interpersonal deficits
Q4) According to structural family therapy,how does finding ways for the adolescent to express his or her autonomy help with alleviating anorexia nervosa?
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Q1) Which simple intervention resulted in less time falling asleep,fewer and shorter night wakings,and better morning moods of children and improved mood and energy levels in mothers?
A) swaddling babies
B) rocking babies all the way to sleep
C) using a bedtime routine to put children to bed at a consistent time each night
D) using a transitional object such as a teddy bear in the crib
Q2) In most cases,children's bedwetting is attributable to medical causes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why do so many adolescents experience a phase delay in their circadian rhythm?
A) because they are less attuned to dawn and sunset than those of other ages
B) because their activity tends to be greater at night than during the day
C) because puberty brings a delay in cortisol and melatonin secretion
D) because their amygdala is finally becoming fully formed
Q4) Encopresis is a common indicator of sexual victimization.
A)True
B)False

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